Chapter 3, 4 and 5 Flashcards

1
Q
1.	Somatic cells include all of the following EXCEPT:
a.
lung cells.
c.
skin cells.
b.
gametes.
d.
neurons.
A

b.

gametes.

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2
Q
2.	Prokaryotes first appeared:
a.
10,000 years ago.
c.
3.5 bya.
b.
1 mya.
d.
65 mya.
A

c.

3.5 bya.

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3
Q
3.	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ DNA is heteroplasmic, meaning it can differ among different parts of a person’s body.
a.
Nuclear
c.
Ribosomal
b.
All
d.
Mitochondrial
A

d.

Mitochondrial

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4
Q
4.	Nucleotide bases in nuclear DNA include all of the following EXCEPT:
a.
thymine.
c.
uracil.
b.
adenine.
d.
cytosine.
A

c.

uracil.

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5
Q
5.	The following are complementary bases in DNA:
a.
adenine and thymine.
c.
guanine and thymine.
b.
adenine and cytosine.
d.
guanine and uracil.
A

a.

adenine and thymine.

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6
Q
6.	DNA replication produces:
a.
four identical daughter cells.
c.
two single strands of DNA.
b.
two identical copies of itself.
d.
four single strands of DNA.
A

b.

two identical copies of itself.

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7
Q
  1. In mammals, the male parent’s gametes determine the sex of his offspring because:
    a.
    the X chromosome originates only from females.
    b.
    sperm are more powerful than eggs.
    c.
    the Y chromosome is present in males only.
    d.
    the X chromosome determines sex.
A

c.

the Y chromosome is present in males only.

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8
Q
8.	Gametes are:
a.
diploid.
c.
produced during mitosis.
b.
haploid.
d.
somatic.
A

b.

haploid.

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9
Q
9.	Haplotypes are:
a.
not likely to recombine during crossovers.
b.
likely to recombine during crossovers.
c.
genes that code for similar things.
d.
genetic material that come from one parent only.
A

a.

not likely to recombine during crossovers.

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10
Q
  1. Down syndrome can occur:
    a.
    as a result of translocation during mitosis.
    b.
    because of nondisjunction, which yields an extra chromosome.
    c.
    most frequently in the offspring of women under the age of 40.
    d.
    most frequently in the offspring of men under the age of 40.
A

b.

because of nondisjunction, which yields an extra chromosome.

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11
Q
  1. In his work on pea plants, Mendel found that plant height was inherited independently of the type or color of the seed coat. This finding:
    a.
    applies only to genes on the same chromosome.
    b.
    demonstrates the law of independent assortment.
    c.
    explains gene linkage.
    d.
    explains inheritance only in simple organisms.
A

b.

demonstrates the law of independent assortment.

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12
Q
  1. DNA is important for protein synthesis because it:
    a.
    is the biological code for the production of hormones and enzymes.
    b.
    serves as a template to which amino acids are attached in protein production.
    c.
    provides the code to produce proteins.
    d.
    transfers information from RNA to proteins.
A

all of the above??

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13
Q
13.	Proteins consist of:
a.
genes.
c.
chains of DNA nucleotides.
b.
RNA plus mRNA.
d.
chains of amino acids.
A

d.

chains of amino acids.

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14
Q
14.	Transcription:
a.
occurs in the nucleus.
b.
occurs in the ribosome.
c.
results in the production of proteins.
d.
results in the transformation of mitochondria.
A

a.

occurs in the nucleus.

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15
Q
15.	RNA differs from DNA in that it uses:
a.
uracil instead of adenine.
c.
guanine instead of uracil.
b.
uracil instead of guanine.
d.
uracil instead of thymine.
A

d.

uracil instead of thymine.

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16
Q
  1. Transfer RNA:
    a.
    seeks complementary triplet strands of mRNA codons.
    b.
    contains codons that correspond to specific amino acids.
    c.
    brings amino acids together to form polypeptide chains.
    d.
    all of the above
A

d.

all of the above

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17
Q
17.	The gene responsible for lactose persistence among adults in Europe is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ gene.
a.
structural
c.
regulatory
b.
dominant
d.
Hox
A

c.

regulatory

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18
Q
  1. Hoxgenes:
    a.
    appear to function in similar ways across diverse groups of organisms.
    b.
    function only in fruit flies.
    c.
    control which amino acids get plugged into polypeptide chains.
    d.
    control the development of language in humans.
A

a.

appear to function in similar ways across diverse groups of organisms.

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19
Q
19.	Meiosis results in the production of:
a.
two gametes.
c.
a single gamete.
b.
four gametes.
d.
none of the above
A

b.

four gametes.

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20
Q
20.	Homeotic (Hox) genes are:
a.
structural genes.
b.
responsible for the development and location of key body parts.
c.
responsible for determining the sex of offspring.
d.
not used during embryonic development.
A

b.

responsible for the development and location of key body parts.

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21
Q
21.	Human ABO blood types are determined by:
a.
regulatory genes.
c.
multiple genes.
b.
multiple alleles.
d.
homeotic genes.
A

b.

multiple alleles.

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22
Q
  1. Microsatellites are:
    a.
    small satellite transmitters used in genetic research.
    b.
    useful for determining group but not individual identification.
    c.
    highly individualized repetitive stretches of nuclear DNA.
    d.
    known from Watson and Crick’s 1950’s research.
A

c.

highly individualized repetitive stretches of nuclear DNA.

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23
Q
23.	An individual that is homozygous at the locus that determines ABO blood type may have any of the following EXCEPT type \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ blood.
a.
AB
c.
A
b.
O
d.
B
A

a.

AB

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24
Q
24.	Individuals whose blood type is A and who carry both dominant and recessive genes at this locus have a genotype of:
a.
AA.
c.
AB.
b.
AO.
d.
OO.
A

b.

AO

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25
Q
25.	The presence of a recessive allele:
a.
can always be determined from the phenotype.
b.
can be masked in the phenotype.
c.
is expressed in the phenotype alongside a dominant allele.
d.
can never be expressed in the phenotype.
A

b.

can be masked in the phenotype.

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26
Q
  1. The expression of polygenic traits is:
    a.
    never determined by the influence of environmental factors.
    b.
    determined by genes at several loci.
    c.
    determined by multiple genes at one locus.
    d.
    determined solely by the influence of environmental factors.
A

b.

determined by genes at several loci.

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27
Q
27.	A trait’s heritability is the proportion of its variation that:
a.
is genetic.
b.
cannot be explained.
c.
is the product of genes and environment.
d.
results from the environment alone.
A

a.

is genetic.

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28
Q
28.	In 2004, the Human Genome Project published a human genome map indicating that \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ genes are responsible for the human body’s proteins.
a.
100,000
c.
20,000–25,000
b.
50,000
d.
200,000–250,000
A

c.

20,000–25,000

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29
Q
  1. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR):
    a.
    allows us to use genetic methods to explore the origins and movements of populations.
    b.
    is used to amplify tiny sequences of DNA for study.
    c.
    allows us to study small amounts of DNA available in ancient skeletons.
    d.
    all of the above
A

d.

all of the above

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30
Q
  1. Genetic analysis of haplotypes and variants among living and precontact Native Americans indicates that Native Americans:
    a.
    underwent a huge decline in genetic diversity after Columbus’s arrival in the New World.
    b.
    living today appear to be as diverse genetically as their ancient ancestors thousands of years ago.
    c.
    have a genetic structure and haplogroups that are quite recent.
    d.
    living today appear to be more diverse genetically than their ancient ancestors.
A

b.

living today appear to be as diverse genetically as their ancient ancestors thousands of years ago.

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31
Q
  1. Somatic cells are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
    a.
    each includes a nucleus at some stage of its development.
    b.
    they are used in multiple tissues throughout the body.
    c.
    each contains half a copy of an organism’s DNA.
    d.
    each contains a complete copy of all of an organism’s DNA.
A

c.

each contains half a copy of an organism’s DNA.

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32
Q
32.	Homologous chromosomes:
a.
are genetically identical.
b.
carry genetic information that influences the same traits.
c.
are inherited only from the mother.
d.
are members of different pairs.
A

b.

carry genetic information that influences the same traits.

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33
Q
33.	DNA:
a.
is single stranded.
c.
directs cellular function.
b.
contains six different nucleotide bases.
d.
contains the base uracil.
A

c.

directs cellular function.

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34
Q
34.	Chromosome number is reduced during:
a.
mitosis.
c.
translation.
b.
recombination.
d.
meiosis.
A

d.

meiosis.

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35
Q
35.	Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) differs from ribonucleic acid (RNA) in that it:
a.
was studied during Darwin’s lifetime.
b.
is the so-called recipe for all biological characteristics and functions in animals.
c.
was discovered by Mendel.
d.
is stored in ribosomes.
A

b.

is the so-called recipe for all biological characteristics and functions in animals.

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36
Q
36.	If two alleles influencing the expressed phenotype for a trait are equally expressed, this is an
example of:
a.
polymorphism.
c.
pleiotropy.
b.
codominance.
d.
Mendelian inheritance.
A

b.

codominance

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37
Q
37.	In his experiments with garden peas, Mendel found that one physical unit is inherited from the father and one from the mother. This provided evidence for:
a.
Mendel’s law of independent assortment.
b.
Thomas Hunt Morgan’s ideas of mutation.
c.
Mendel’s law of segregation.
d.
Mendel’s concept of nondisjunction.
A

c.

Mendel’s law of segregation.

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38
Q
38.	A doctor finds that the mammary glands of a woman are not functioning due to a genetic abnormality that influences the structural design of the thoracic cavity. This is likely the result of a mutation:
a.
on the sex chromosomes.
c.
in HSV-1.
b.
in aHoxgene.
d.
none of the above
A

b.

in aHoxgene.

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39
Q
  1. In the days races were thought to be valid, static categories, Friedrich Blumenbach categorized humans into the following races:
    a.
    Negroids, Caucasoids, and Mongoloids.
    b.
    Mongoloids, Negroids, Inuit, and Caucasoids.
    c.
    Mongoloids, Malays, Ethiopians, American Indians, and Caucasoids.
    d.
    Mongoloids, Negroids, Malays, Europeans, and Caucasoids.
A

c.

Mongoloids, Malays, Ethiopians, American Indians, and Caucasoids.

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40
Q
2.	Together, all of the alleles contained within a group of interbreeding individuals are known as a:
a.
gene pool.
c.
clinal distribution.
b.
population.
d.
polymorphism.
A

a.

gene pool.

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41
Q
  1. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium assumes:
    a.
    strong selection pressure on the trait(s) being studied.
    b.
    a significant mutation rate from generation to generation.
    c.
    gene flow that is equal both into and out of the population.
    d.
    no gene flow, mutation, or natural selection.
A

d.

no gene flow, mutation, or natural selection.

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42
Q
4.	While conducting research with a small population in South America you note that an overwhelming majority of individuals exhibit signs of a specific genetic abnormality. This is most likely the result of:
a.
natural selection.
c.
extinction.
b.
the founder effect.
d.
gene flow.
A

b.

the founder effect.

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43
Q
8.	When individuals of the same species are reproductively isolated, genetic differences may accumulate in sufficient number so that new species could emerge. Such an event would be an example of:
a.
microevolution.
c.
equilibrium.
b.
the founder effect.
d.
macroevolution.
A

d.

macroevolution.

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44
Q
6.	In certain species of nonhuman primates there are groups where only one dominant female has access to mates. The other females must wait until the opportunity to mate presents itself. This will have direct impacts on “fitness,” influencing which of the following?
a.
reproductive success
c.
strength
b.
aggressiveness
d.
age at death
A

a.

reproductive success

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45
Q
12.	The ABO and MN blood-type frequencies of the Dunkers differ significantly from those of current American and German populations due to:
a.
genetic drift.
c.
gene flow.
b.
natural selection.
d.
mutation.
A

a.

genetic drift.

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46
Q
16.	Mutations in DNA found in which cells are most likely to have significant evolutionary consequences?
a.
sex cells (gametes)
c.
skin pigment cells
b.
red blood cells
d.
brain cells
A
a.
sex cells (gametes)
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47
Q
  1. Australian aborigines are an endogamous society. This means that marriage and reproduction take place within the group, leading to:
    a.
    increased genetic diversity through genetic drift.
    b.
    migration without gene flow.
    c.
    more genetic diversity than would be observed in an exogamous society.
    d.
    decreased genetic diversity due to a lack of admixture.
A

d.

decreased genetic diversity due to a lack of admixture.

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48
Q
10.	The southern migration of which African people may have led to a significant increase in the incidence of malaria?
a.
Masai
c.
Efe
b.
Turkana
d.
Bantu
A

d.

Bantu

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49
Q
11.	Which of the following is NOT a genetic disorder that decreases susceptibility to malaria?
a.
G6PD deficiency (favism)
c.
Huntington’s chorea
b.
sickle-cell anemia
d.
thalassemia
A

c.

Huntington’s chorea

50
Q
23.	Studies of Galapagos finches have found that at certain points in time all finches on the island have either wide beaks or sharp narrow beaks. The type of evolution that leads to this phenotype distribution is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ selection.
a.
directional
c.
disruptive
b.
natural
d.
stabilizing
A

c.

disruptive

51
Q
13.	Another name for the evolutionary force called gene flow is:
a.
the “founder effect.”
c.
“admixture.”
b.
“disruptive selection.”
d.
“transposition.”
A

c.

“admixture.”

52
Q
14.	Which of the evolutionary forces is most likely to decrease variation between populations?
a.
gene flow
c.
mutation
b.
the founder effect
d.
natural selection
A

a.

gene flow

53
Q
15.	The clinal decrease in type B blood from East Asia to Western Europe is probably the result of:
a.
the founder effect.
c.
mutation.
b.
stabilizing selection.
d.
gene flow.
A

d.

gene flow.

54
Q
32.	An individual who displays the disease sickle-cell anemia must have inherited the deleterious allele from both phenotypically normal parents. This individual is therefore:
a.
homozygous, with two dominant alleles.
b.
homozygous, with two recessive alleles.
c.
heterozygous, with one dominant and one recessive allele.
d.
haplozygous.
A

b.

homozygous, with two recessive alleles.

55
Q
33.	The mutation known as trisomy 21, in which an extra copy of chromosome 21 is present, is more commonly known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ syndrome.
a.
Turner
c.
Klinefelter’s
b.
Down
d.
Williams
A

b.

Down

56
Q
18.	A point mutation that does NOT result in a change to the amino acid coded for is said to be a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ mutation.
a.
spontaneous
c.
selective
b.
synonymous
d.
stabilizing
A

b.

synonymous

57
Q

IQ test scores are influenced by

a. diet
b. overall health
c. cultural background
d. stress, hormonal cycle and mood
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

58
Q
20.	Over a period of two generations, the frequency of green dung beetles in a population shifts from 75% to 71% while the frequency of brown dung beetles within this population shifts from 25% to 29%. This is an example of:
a.
minievolution.
c.
millievolution.
b.
microevolution.
d.
nanoevolution.
A

b.

microevolution.

59
Q

Jim scored 131 on a properly administered IQ test. He will likely have no difficulty getting “A”s &
“B”s in most college courses, if he is willing to spend 3 hours study time per unit a week studying outside the class.
a. True b. False

A

a. True

60
Q
22.	Spontaneous mutation is the result of:
a.
unknown causes.
c.
toxic chemicals.
b.
x-rays.
d.
UV radiation.
A

a.

unknown causes.

61
Q

Dizygotic twins…

  1. Have the same genotype but not phenotype
  2. Have the same phenotype but not genotype
  3. Are not related
  4. Have the same genotype commonality as older and younger sibs
  5. Both 1 and 4
A
  1. Both 1 and 4
62
Q

Karyotypes is/are a/an

  1. abnormal chromosome
  2. hereditary syndrome
  3. standardized arrangement ofchromosomes
  4. mutation
  5. mRNA molecule
A
  1. standardized arrangement ofchromosomes
63
Q
25.	A random change in allele frequencies over time is known as:
a.
genetic drift.
c.
admixture.
b.
gene flow.
d.
gene migration.
A

a.

genetic drift.

64
Q
26.	The absence of the A and B alleles in Native American populations is a result of:
a.
natural selection.
c.
the founder effect.
b.
gene flow.
d.
mutation.
A

c.

the founder effect.

65
Q
34.	Familial hypercholesterolemia, an autosomal dominant disease, is five times more frequent in the Afrikaner population of South Africa than in the original population of Europe from which the ancestors to the Afrikaners immigrated. This represents an example of:
a.
natural selection.
c.
the founder effect.
b.
bottleneck.
d.
kin selection.
A

c.

the founder effect.

66
Q
28.	What effect does natural selection have on population variation?
a.
It increases variation.
b.
It decreases variation.
c.
It both increases and decreases variation.
d.
It does not affect variation.
A

b.

It decreases variation.

67
Q
30.	Fitness trade-off refers to selection favoring which genotype?
a.
homozygous dominant
c.
heterozygous
b.
homozygous recessive
d.
No genotype is favored.
A

c.

heterozygous

68
Q
  1. A genetic study conducted over two generations found that the frequencies of genotypes in the first generation were AA: 0.36, Aa: 0.48, aa: 0.16. In the second generation, genotype frequencies remained the same. According to the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, we can assume:
    a.
    negative assortative mating has maintained gene frequencies.
    b.
    mutations have likely occurred, resulting in the same frequency.
    c.
    mating in this population is random.
    d.
    the population is small and we cannot detect change.
A

c.

mating in this population is random.

69
Q
  1. A genetic study conducted over multiple generations found that the frequency of genotypes in the first generation were AA: 0.36, Aa: 0.48, aa: 0.16. In the second generation, genotype frequencies shifted to AA: 0.16, Aa: 0.48, aa: 0.36. According to the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, we can assume:
    a.
    random mating has altered gene frequencies.
    b.
    gene flow has possibly shifted the gene frequencies.
    c.
    mating in this population must be nonrandom mating.
    d.
    both b. and c.
A

d.

both b. and c.

70
Q
36.	A study of Galapagos finches after a long period of drought found that all species of finch on one of the islands had wide beaks well adapted to breaking open seeds. The type of evolution that leads to this phenotype distribution is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ selection.
a.
directional
c.
disruptive
b.
natural
d.
stabilizing
A

a.

directional

71
Q
37.	Frameshift mutations are more likely to have an impact at the phenotypic level because they:
a.
are the result of a change in a single nucleotide.
b.
are the result of exposure to radiation.
c.
produce a protein having no function.
d.
are mobile pieces of DNA.
A

c.

produce a protein having no function

72
Q
38.	In a classroom taste test for PTC the genotype frequency was determined to be P =0.35 and Q =0.65. After applying the Hardy-Weinberg equation, the percentage of genotypes was found to be as follows:
a.
p2=0.12; 2pq =0.46; q2=0.42.
b.
p2=0.35; 2pq =0.00; q2=0.65.
c.
p2=0.12; 2pq =0.65; q2=0.23.
d.
p2=0.20; 2pq =0.20; q2=0.60.
A

a.

p2=0.12; 2pq =0.46; q2=0.42.

73
Q
  1. Franz Boas:
    a.
    was a strong supporter of the race concept.
    b.
    created racial categories based on living populations in the United States.
    c.
    showed that U.S.-born children had the same head shapes as their immigrant parents.
    d.
    showed that U.S.-born children had different head shapes than their immigrant parents.
A

showed that U.S.-born children had different head shapes than their immigrant parents.

74
Q
  1. Johann Friedrich Blumenbach:
    a.
    discovered the existence of three races.
    b.
    categorized skulls into five racial types.
    c.
    used blood types and skin colors to create a racial taxonomy for humans.
    d.
    showed that skull shape changed over time.
A

categorized skulls into five racial types.

75
Q
  1. R. C. Lewontin found that human “races” have no taxonomic significance. He demonstrated this through:
    a.
    research indicating that most genetic variation is found among human races.
    b.
    research indicating that race categories accounted for a very small percentage of variation found across human populations.
    c.
    the examination of variation in multiple human skull characteristics.
    d.
    research that examined genetic diversity across different species of mammals.
A

a.

research indicating that most genetic variation is found among human races.

76
Q
  1. A cline:
    a.
    is continuous variation that follows a continuum.
    b.
    is variation that falls into discrete categories.
    c.
    describes the pattern of occurrence of trisomy 18.
    d.
    was used to describe human variation as early as the Renaissance.
A

d.

was used to describe human variation as early as the Renaissance.

77
Q
  1. The long limb measurements of Turkana pastoralists indicate that the population:
    a.
    is on the continuum of variation observed in Allen’s rule.
    b.
    represents the variability that results from Wolff’s law of skeletal replacement.
    c.
    has body proportions that are not well adapted to warmer climates.
    d.
    is well adapted for life at high latitudes, as Allen’s rule predicts for pastoralist populations.
A

a.

is on the continuum of variation observed in Allen’s rule.

78
Q
  1. The American economist David Seckler incorrectly hypothesized that:
    a.
    growth accelerates and decelerates according to various life stages.
    b.
    undernourished populations experience accelerated growth and development.
    c.
    there is a relationship between genes and the environment.
    d.
    shortness in height is an adaptation to reduced food supplies.
A

d.

shortness in height is an adaptation to reduced food supplies.

79
Q
  1. The prenatal stage in humans is divided into:
    a.
    trimesters.
    b.
    the neonatal period versus after the end of lactation.
    c.
    infancy, childhood, the juvenile period, puberty, adolescence, and adulthood.
    d.
    the neonatal period, infancy, the juvenile period, puberty, and adolescence.
A

a.

trimesters.

80
Q
9.	Which of the following biological processes involves a reduction in homeostasis?
a.
senescence
c.
prenatal development
b.
Wolff’s law
d.
adult stage of development
A

a.

senescence

81
Q
10.	Multiple biological traits:
a.
do not lead to clear-cut racial classifications.
b.
are race specific.
c.
help with biological profiling.
d.
do not exist in humans.
A

a.

do not lead to clear-cut racial classifications.

82
Q
10.	Multiple biological traits:
a.
do not lead to clear-cut racial classifications.
b.
are race specific.
c.
help with biological profiling.
d.
do not exist in humans.
A

a.

do not lead to clear-cut racial classifications.

83
Q
  1. Stressors during the prenatal stage include:
    a.
    a vegetarian diet of greens, fruits, and dairy products.
    b.
    smoking, alcohol, and drugs.
    c.
    heavy exercise like running and swimming.
    d.
    lack of exercise.
A

b.

smoking, alcohol, and drugs.

84
Q
  1. Children living at high altitudes develop a larger chest cavity by adulthood than children living at lower altitudes. This is an example of:
    a.
    environmental adaptations that occur at the individual level.
    b.
    acclimatization at the individual level.
    c.
    developmental adaptations that occur at the level of the individual during critical life stages.
    d.
    inheritance of increases in lung volume by high-altitude populations.
A

c.

developmental adaptations that occur at the level of the individual during critical life stages.

85
Q
  1. Infancy:
    a.
    runs from the second month after birth to the end of lactation, usually by the end of the third year.
    b.
    runs from three to seven years, generally postweaning.
    c.
    is also called the “neonatal” period.
    d.
    includes three months before birth and three months after birth.
A

a.

runs from the second month after birth to the end of lactation, usually by the end of the third year.

86
Q
  1. Although Allen’s and Bergmann’s rules often explain body shape and morphology, we occasionally see variations from the correct patterns. This sometimes indicates that:
    a.
    the long-term association between body shape and climate is an example of acclimatization.
    b.
    body shape and morphology do not reflect both evolutionary and developmental processes.
    c.
    the association between body shape and morphology does respond to environmental stressors.
    d.
    the association between body shape, morphology, and the environment is not a result of natural selection.
A

a.

the long-term association between body shape and climate is an example of acclimatization.

87
Q
  1. Allen’s rule indicates that humans will have:
    a.
    larger lungs in hot environments and smaller lungs in cold environments.
    b.
    smaller bodies in cold environments and larger bodies in hot environments.
    c.
    longer limbs in hot environments and shorter limbs in cold environments.
    d.
    taller bodies in cold environments and shorter bodies in hot environments.
A

c.

longer limbs in hot environments and shorter limbs in cold environments.

88
Q
16.	Sexual maturation or puberty is marked by:
a.
menarche in girls.
b.
similar body size in boys and girls.
c.
a short-term rapid increase in brain growth.
d.
adult social roles.
A

a.

menarche in girls.

89
Q
  1. The obesity pandemic is primarily due to:
    a.
    the increased ability to produce and consume inexpensive, high-fat foods.
    b.
    a lack of physical exercise.
    c.
    a combination of lower calories and more exercise.
    d.
    the production of high-calorie, low-fat foods even though people still have a high exercise level.
A

a.

the increased ability to produce and consume inexpensive, high-fat foods.

90
Q
18.	When epiphyses fuse to the diaphyses:
a.
long bone growth is slowed.
b.
full adult height is attained.
c.
the adolescent growth spurt begins.
d.
the diaphyses continue to grow but the epiphyses stop growing.
A

b.

full adult height is attained.

91
Q
19.	The postnatal stage includes:
a.
the first, second, and third trimesters.
b.
menarche and senescence.
c.
the growth or development of the deciduous teeth, motor skills, and cognitive abilities.
d.
the human growth cycle from the embryo stage.
A

c.

the growth or development of the deciduous teeth, motor skills, and cognitive abilities.

92
Q
  1. Genetic adaptation:
    a.
    occurs at the population level via natural selection.
    b.
    occurs at the individual level during childhood.
    c.
    occurs at the individual level throughout an individual’s lifetime.
    d.
    involves using material culture to make living possible in certain settings.
A

a.

occurs at the population level via natural selection.

93
Q
  1. Developmental (or ontogenetic) adaptation:
    a.
    occurs at the individual level throughout an individual’s lifetime.
    b.
    occurs at the individual level during childhood.
    c.
    involves using material culture to make living possible in certain settings.
    d.
    occurs at the population level via natural selection.
A

b.

occurs at the individual level during childhood.

94
Q
  1. Acclimatization:
    a.
    occurs at the individual level throughout an individual’s lifetime.
    b.
    occurs at the individual level during childhood.
    c.
    involves using material culture to make living possible in certain settings.
    d.
    occurs at the population level via natural selection.
A

a.

occurs at the individual level throughout an individual’s lifetime.

95
Q
  1. Cultural adaptation:
    a.
    occurs at the population level via natural selection.
    b.
    occurs at the individual level during childhood.
    c.
    involves using material culture or learned practices to make living possible in certain settings.
    d.
    usually occurs in adults, not children.
A

c.

involves using material culture or learned practices to make living possible in certain settings.

96
Q
  1. Functional adaptations:
    a.
    are important population-level genetic changes.
    b.
    occur at the individual level only during childhood.
    c.
    involve using material culture to make living possible in certain settings.
    d.
    are biological adjustments within an individual’s lifetime, including developmental adaptations and acclimatization.
A

d.

are biological adjustments within an individual’s lifetime, including developmental adaptations and acclimatization.

97
Q
  1. The maintenance of homeostasis:
    a.
    is a key feature of most levels of any organism’s biology.
    b.
    involves the study of populations in their natural environments.
    c.
    involves using material culture to make living possible in certain settings.
    d.
    involves the replication of environmental conditions and human responses to those conditions.
A

a.

is a key feature of most levels of any organism’s biology.

98
Q
  1. Homeostasis may be studied indirectly by:
    a.
    observing living populations as they engage in various activities in various settings.
    b.
    experimentally manipulating or replicating environmental conditions and observing human responses.
    c.
    identifying the genome of a given population of humans.
    d.
    observing differences in such measures as body temperature across human groups.
A

a.

observing living populations as they engage in various activities in various settings.

99
Q
  1. Melanin:
    a.
    is advantageous because it provides protection from solar radiation.
    b.
    is a chemical that decreases the possibility of a tan.
    c.
    occurs at high rates in individuals with light skin tone.
    d.
    develops more with age.
A

a.

is advantageous because it provides protection from solar radiation.

100
Q
  1. For women with very low body weight, high amounts of exercise can result in:
    a.
    increased female fertility.
    b.
    increased ovarian function.
    c.
    a reduced ability to conceive relative to women who do not exercise.
    d.
    higher rates of conception than in women who do not exercise.
A

c.

a reduced ability to conceive relative to women who do not exercise.

101
Q
30.	Relative to people with a history of living in temperate climates, the Inuit and other cold-adapted populations:
a.
have lower BMRs.
b.
consume more carbohydrates.
c.
reduce peripheral body temperatures to maintain core temperatures.
d.
have short limbs and large bodies.
A

d.

have short limbs and large bodies.

102
Q
31.	Dark skin (a result of increased melanin production in equatorial peoples) is likely a response to ultraviolet radiation, because UV radiation can cause:
a.
skin cancer.
c.
rickets.
b.
hypoxia.
d.
hypothermia.
A

a.

skin cancer.

103
Q
  1. Sexual dimorphism refers to the:
    a.
    onset of menarche.
    b.
    reduction in bone growth rate with the fusion of epiphyses.
    c.
    difference in sexual characteristics before versus after puberty.
    d.
    difference in physical attributes of males and females.
A

d.

difference in physical attributes of males and females.

104
Q
  1. Wolff’s law:
    a.
    is the principle that the lengths of limb bones are related to environmental conditions.
    b.
    applies to the maintenance of the entire endocrine system.
    c.
    states that after puberty there will be almost no further remodeling of bone when it is under stress.
    d.
    refers to the homeostatic balance leading to bone mass being produced where it is needed and removed where it is not needed.
A

d.
refers to the homeostatic balance leading to bone mass being produced where it is needed and removed where it is not needed.

105
Q
  1. Hypoxia has been shown to be an agent of natural selection in that Tibetan women:
    a.
    at high altitudes had fewer surviving children.
    b.
    with alleles for high oxygen saturation in their hemoglobin had more surviving children.
    c.
    with alleles for high oxygen saturation in their hemoglobin had fewer surviving children.
    d.
    have poor nutrition.
A

b.

with alleles for high oxygen saturation in their hemoglobin had more surviving children.

106
Q
  1. In the days races were thought to be valid, static categories, Friedrich Blumenbach categorized humans into the following races:
    a.
    Negroids, Caucasoids, and Mongoloids.
    b.
    Mongoloids, Negroids, Inuit, and Caucasoids.
    c.
    Mongoloids, Malays, Ethiopians, American Indians, and Caucasoids.
    d.
    Mongoloids, Negroids, Malays, Europeans, and Caucasoids.
A

c.

Mongoloids, Malays, Ethiopians, American Indians, and Caucasoids.

107
Q
  1. Adolescence includes:
    a.
    stability in physiology, behavior, and cognition.
    b.
    a decline in function of tissue and many organs.
    c.
    eruption of dentition and increased brain growth.
    d.
    the development of secondary sex characteristics and interest in adult social, sexual, and economic behaviors.
A

d.

the development of secondary sex characteristics and interest in adult social, sexual, and economic behaviors.

108
Q
37.	Rickets is the result of:
a.
a lack of vitamin D.
c.
high UV exposure.
b.
a lack of melanin.
d.
severe air pollution.
A

a.

a lack of vitamin D.

109
Q
38.	Natural selection favored alleles for light skin in:
a.
Africa.
c.
South America.
b.
Europe.
d.
Australia.
A

b.

Europe.

110
Q
39.	Which is a major contributor to the success of our species?
a.
high fecundity
c.
human adaptability
b.
body variation
d.
skin tone variation
A

c.

human adaptability

111
Q

IQ test scores are influenced by

a. diet
b. overall health
c. cultural background
d. stress, hormonal cycle and mood
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

112
Q

IQ Test scores are

  1. good for predicting college success
  2. good for language skills but not math
  3. influenced by numerous factors including genetics
  4. are meaningless
  5. are impossible to understand
A

top 3

113
Q

IQ tests

a. are a measure of intelligence
b. are measured/scored relative to a largenumber of people who took the test
c. are biased in favor of white males ofthe higher social classes
d. give scores influenced by health and diet
e. all of the above but “a”

A

e. all of the above but “a”

114
Q

Jim scored 131 on a properly administered IQ test. He will likely
have no difficulty getting “A”s &
“B”s in most college courses, if he is willing to spend 3 hours study time per unit a week studying outside the class.
a. True b. False

A

a. True

115
Q

Monozygotic twins

  1. are derived from one sperm & one ovum
  2. may be bro/bro, sis/sis or bro/sis
  3. possess the same genotype
  4. a & b only
  5. a & c only
A
  1. a & c only
116
Q

Dizygotic twins…

  1. Have the same genotype but not phenotype
  2. Have the same phenotype but not genotype
  3. Are not related
  4. Have the same genotype commonality as older and younger sibs
  5. Both 1 and 4
A
  1. Both 1 and 4
117
Q

Karyotypes is/are a/an

  1. abnormal chromosome
  2. hereditary syndrome
  3. standardized arrangement ofchromosomes
  4. mutation
  5. mRNA molecule
A
  1. standardized arrangement ofchromosomes
118
Q

The basis of race is

  1. exclusively a social concept
  2. exclusively a biological phenomenon
  3. both 1 & 2
  4. only valid when comparing blood types
  5. none of the above
A
  1. exclusively a social concept
119
Q
  1. Happiness is effected in a positive way in all but which of the following:
    a. a sense of humor
    b. a meaningful job
    c. health
    d. an intimate relationship
    e. being outgoing
A

c. health

120
Q

Happiness is effected in a positive way in all but which of the following:

a. setting and working toward goals
b. a high level of income
c. optimism
d. having some form of faith
e. being active

A

b. a high level of income