CHAPTER 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Applications of recombinant DNA in Transgenic animals

A
  • Improved farm animals
  • Pharming
  • Disease models
  • Biopolymer
  • Xenografting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Applications of recombinant DNA in Nucleic acids

A
  • Gene therapy
  • Targeted
  • Diagnostic probes
  • Vaccines
  • Anti sense
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Applications of recombinant DNA in Transgenic plants

A
  • Stress tolerant plants
  • Improved productivity
    -Therapeutic proteins
  • Small molecules
  • Vaccines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Applications of recombinant DNA in recombinant microbes

A
  • Industrial enzymes
  • Vaccines
  • Therapeutic proteins
  • Biopolymers
  • Bioremediation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

involves using enzymes and various
laboratory techniques to manipulate and
isolate DNA segments of interest

A

Recombinant DNA technology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

cutting and pasting DNA from different
samples/specimen

A

Recombinant DNA tech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Enzymes in Recombinant tech

A

Nucleases
DNA modifiers
DNA Ligases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

It joins the DNA fragments with cloning vector

A

DNA ligase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Also known as molecular glues

A

Ligases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Three steps of DNA ligation:

A
  1. DNA ligase self-adenylates
  2. Adenyl-group transfers to donor DNA
  3. Phosphodiester bond forms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

synthesize complementary
strand (cDNA) from mRNA template

A

Reverse transcriptase/ RNA dependent
DNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Functions of reverse transcriptase

A
  • Synthesize cDNA
  • Amplify cDNA
  • Analyze mRNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

recognize and cut
DNA strand at specific sequence called restriction
site.

A

Restriction Endonuclease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

3 types of Restriction endonuclease

A

Type I
Type II
Type III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

-recognize a
bipartite sequence, but do not
produce a predictable cleavage
pattern

A

Type I RE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

are most
commonly used for molecular
biology applications, as they
recognize stereotypical
sequences and produce a
predictable cleavage pattern.

A

Type II RE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

recognize a nonpalindromic sequence,
comprising two inversely
oriented site

A

Type III RE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

are enzymes
composed of distinct domains that exhibit
different biochemical activities.

A

Terminal Transcriptase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

It converts
blunt end of DNA fragments into sticky end.

A

Terminal transcriptase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

are helpful in cloning because they hold two
pieces of DNA together so they can be linked by
DNA ligase.

A

Sticky ends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Sticky ends have __________ _______ at the end of the
fragment, whereas blunt ends produce _________ __________

A

Unpaired bases, straight cleavage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

It usually cut DNA on either
side of distortion caused by thymine
dimers or intercalating agents.

A

Nuclease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Two types od nuclease

A

Endonuclease, Exonuclease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

hydrolyzing enzyme that
cleaves the phosphodiester bond between the nucleotides

A

Endonuclease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cleave from the ends

A

Exonuclease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

-synthesize nucleotide
complementary to template strand and
helps to fill gap in double stranded DNA.

A

DNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

RNase-H removes
mRNA from DNA-RNA heteroduplex and
that mRNA is used to synthesize cDNA

A

Ribonuclease-H

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

helps in
removal of terminal phosphate group
from 5′ end.

A

Alkaline phosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

It adds
phosphate group from ATP molecule to
terminal 5’end after dephosphorylation
by alkaline phosphatase

A

Polynucleotide kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

enzymes that
transfer a methyl group from Sadenosylmethionine (SAM) to their substrates.

A

Methyltransferases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

DNA methyltransferases modify DNA by
adding a methyl group to _____________.

A

Cytosines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

derived from a Greek word that describes
a cutting (of a twig) that used to propagate
or copy a plant.

A

Clone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

a molecule, cell, or organism produced
from another single entity to which it shares
the same genetic make-up.

A

Clone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

the process of producing or
generating a genetically identical
copy of a cell or an organism.

A

Cloning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

DNA cutting enzymes, also known as
“scissors” used for gene cloning

A

Restriction Enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

restriction endonucleases (endo,
“__________”, nuclease, “_____________________”)

A

Within, nucleic acid-cutting enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

they cut within DNA sequences as
opposed to enzymes that cut from the ends of
DNA sequences (exonucleases)

A

Restriction endonucleases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Are the DNA molecules, which can carry a foreign DNA fragment into a host cell

A

Vectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

If it is used for the reproducing the DNA fragment, called _______ _______

A

Cloning vector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Vector is also called _______ _____ because they act as carrier of gene to be cloned into a recipient cell.

A

vehicle DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Properties of vector

A
  • Small DNA molecule
  • Origin of replication
  • Unique restriction enzyme are able to replicate autonomously
  • Be non-toxic to cell
  • Have space for foreign insert
  • Have suitable marker genes
  • Unique recognition sites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

are DNA molecules
into which foreign DNA can be
inserted

A

Cloning vectors

43
Q

_________ is an artificially synthesized/
manipulated DNA whereas a _________
naturally occurs in bacterial cells.

A

Vector, Plasmid

44
Q

There are several vectors, which can be
used in recombinant DNA, whereas all
__________ may not be used directly in
recombinant DNA technology.

45
Q

Components of an empty plasmid vector

A

Promoter, Restriction site, Origin of replication, Antibiotic resistance gene

46
Q

Components of a recombinant plasmid vector

A

Promoter, Restriction sites, Inserted DNA fragment, Origin of replication, Antibiotic resistance gne

47
Q

Preparation of recombinant plasmid vector

A
  1. Cleave vector with restriction enzyme
  2. Cleave foreign DNA with same restriction enzyme
  3. Mix vector and DNA fragment under conditions that favor base pairing
  4. Treat with DNA ligase to join DNA pieces covalently
48
Q

or origin of replication, is the sequence
at which replication of DNA begins.

49
Q

There are only ____ selectable markers

50
Q

are genes that help identify
bacteria that have successfully transformed, or
taken up the recombinant plasmid.

A

Selectable markers

51
Q

are commonly used markers.

A

Antibiotic resistance genes

52
Q

It acts as a light switch, and it signals when to turn the gene on and off

53
Q

r is a short region of DNA (100–1,000
bp) where transcription of a gene by RNA
polymerase begins. It is typically located directly
upstream or at the 5′ end of the transcription
initiation site.

54
Q

Characteristics of cloning vectors

A
  • Self-replicating inside host cell
  • Unique restriction enzyme
  • possess some marker gene
  • easily isolated from the host cell
  • Unaffected by the introduction of donor DNA
    fragment in terms of its replication property
55
Q

Types of cloning vectors

A
  • Bacteriophage
  • Plasmid DNA/Plasmid vetcor
  • Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes (BACs)
  • Yeast Artificial Chromosomes (YACs)
  • Human Artificial Chromosomes (HACs)
56
Q

these are viruses, known as
phage, which can infect bacterial
cells

A

Bacteriophage

57
Q

capable to deliver DNA fragment
of a size up to 20 kb

A

Bacteriophage

58
Q

Parts of Bacteriophage:

A

Spikes, Long tail fibre, Baseplate, Tail tube and sheath, Collar, Nucleic acid (DNA), Capsid

59
Q

small circular pieces of DNA found in primarily in
bacteria

A

Plasmid DNA/ Plasmid Vector

60
Q

considered as extrachromosomal DNA in bacteria
(found in the cytoplasm in addition to the bacterial
chromosome)

A

Plasmid DNA

61
Q

plasmids may be inserted into bacterial cells in
the process known as

A

Transformation

62
Q

a DNA fragment of size up to 10 kb can be
delivered using this vector

A

Plasmid DNA

63
Q

plasmid which is designed to clone
very large DNA fragments ranging in
size from 75 to 300 kb

A

Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes (BACs)

64
Q

used in sequencing the genome of
organisms in genome projects i.e.,
human genome project

65
Q

yeast expression vectors
- may clone DNA fragments with sizes from 100
kb to 3000 kb

A

Yeast Artificial Chromosomes (YACs)

66
Q

used for cloning very large DNA fragments and
for the physical mapping of complex genomes

67
Q

However, YACs are known to produce _________
effects which make them less stable compared
to BACs

68
Q
  • An organism or tissue that contains at least two different
    sets of DNA, most often originating from the fusion of as many different
    zygotes (fertilized eggs).
69
Q

artifacts where the
sequence of the cloned DNA actually
corresponds not to a single genomic region
but to multiple regions.

A

Chimeric effects

70
Q

o a DNA fragment that
consists of DNA from two or more different
sources

A

Chimeric DNA

71
Q

Developed by Burke and Olson in 1987

A

YAC vectors

72
Q

Can replicated inside yeast; used to clone DNA sequences in yeast cells

A

YAC vectors

73
Q

Developed by Melsimon et al in 1992; can replicate inside bacteria

74
Q

also known as mammalian artificial
chromosomes (MACs)
-still under development

A

Human Artificial Chromosomes (HACs)

75
Q

range in size from 6 to 10 Mb that carry
new genes introduced by human researchers

76
Q
  • used as vectors in transfer of new genes,
    studying their expression, and mammalian
    chromosomal function can also be elucidated
    using these micro chromosomes in
    mammalian system.
77
Q

DNA fragment/s from
two different species
that are inserted into a
host organisms to
produce new genetic
combinations that could
add value to science,
agriculture, medicine,
and industry.

A

Recombinant DNA

78
Q

many fragments are randomly cloned at
once and no individual gene is specifically
targeted for cloning.

A

Shotgun cloning

79
Q

Creating recombinant DNA:

A
  1. Isolate DNA from two sources
  2. Cut both DNAs with the same restriction enzyme
  3. Mix the DNAs; they join by base pairing
  4. Add DNA ligase to seal DNA with covalent bonds
  5. Put plasmid into bacterium by transformation
  6. Clone the bacterium
80
Q

a method for the identification and cloning of
genes which includes a DNA library

A

Cloning approach involving DNA libraries

81
Q

collection of cloned
DNA fragments from a particular
organism contained within bacteria or
virus as a host

A

DNA library

82
Q

is synthetic DNA
that has been transcribed from a specific mRNA
through a reaction using the enzyme reverse
transcriptase

A

Complementary DNA

83
Q

the chromosomal DNA (which the whole
genome of the organism) from the tissue of
interest is isolated and then digested with
restriction enzyme .

A

Genetic library

84
Q

mRNA from the tissue of interest is
isolated and used for making the library

A

cDNA library

85
Q

after building
the genomic library or cDNA library, it must
be screened to identify the genes of
interest
- colony hybridization

A

Library Screening

86
Q

a more rapid approach to cloning
compared to building and screening a
library - a technique for making copies or
amplifying a specific sequence of DNA in
a short period of time.

A

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

87
Q

Some Laboratory Techniques and Application
of Recombinant DNA Technology

A

Agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA Sequencing, Next generation sequencing, Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH), Southern blotting, Northern blot analysis

88
Q

allows one to separate and visualize DNA
fragments based on size

A

Agarose gel electrophoresis

89
Q
  • gel with a high percentage of agarose (say 2%)
    is better suited for separating ______DNA
    fragments while lower percentage of agarose is
    better suited for resolving ______ DNA fragments.
A

small, large

90
Q

a technique of
determining the nucleotide sequence of the
gene – the exact order of the bases in the
genome or gene of the organism

A

DNA sequencing

91
Q

designed to produce highly accurate and
long stretches of DNA sequence, greater than
1 giga base (billion bases) of DNA per reaction,
at a low cost

A

Next Generation Sequencing

92
Q
  • can be used to identify which chromosome
    contains a gene of interest
  • can also be used to determine the cell type that
    is expressing a particular mRNA
A

Fluorescence In Situ Hybridization

93
Q

Process of Next Generation Sequencing

A
  1. DNA extraction
  2. Library preparation
  3. Sequencing
  4. Analysis
94
Q

molecular biology technique for identification
and quantification of DNA

A

Southern blotting

95
Q
  • following electrophoresis, the gel is treated
    with an alkaline solution to denature the DNA;
    then the fragments are transferred onto a
    nylon or nitrocellulose membrane using a
    technique called blotting
  • used to visualize only specific fragments
    of interest
A

Southern blotting

96
Q

Process of Southern blotting

A
  1. Extract DNA from the sample
  2. Fragment DNA with restriction enzymes
  3. Separate DNA by size using gel electrophoresis
  4. Transfer and fix separated DNA molecules from the gel into a nylon membrane
  5. Probe for the DNA of interest using a nucleotide probe
  6. Radiolabeled probes can be analyzed
97
Q
  • molecular biology
    technique for identification and
    quantification of DNA
A

Northern blotting

98
Q

RNA is isolated from a tissue of interest and
separated by gel electrophoresis (the RNA is
not digested with enzymes)

A

Northern blotting

99
Q

RNA is blotted onto a nylon membrane and
then hybridized to a probe - Amounts of mRNA
produced by different tissues can be compared
and quantified via different techniques

A

Northern blotting

100
Q

performed when only very small amount of
mRNA is extracted from the sample; isolated
mRNA is converted into double-stranded
cDNA by the enzyme reverse transcriptase in a
process similar to the way in which cDNA for a
library is made.

A

Reverse transcription PCR (RT-PCR)

101
Q

enables researchers to quantify amplification
reactions as they occur in “real time”; basic
procedure involves the use of specialized
thermal cyclers that use a laser to scan a beam
of light through the top or bottom of each PCR
tube

A

real-time PCR or quantitative PCR

102
Q

– another technique for studying gene
expression; created with the use of a small
glass microscope slide; single-stranded DNA
molecules are attached or “spotted” onto the
slide using a computer-controlled highspeed robotic arm called an arrayer, which
is fitted with a number of tiny pins; arrayer
fixes the DNA onto the slide at specific
locations

A

Gene microarrays/DNA microarrays/gene chip

103
Q

mutations can be
created in specific nucleotides of a cloned gene
contained in a vector; gene can then be
expressed in cells, which results in the translation
of a mutated protein; site-directed mutagenesis
can be a very valuable way to help scientists
identify critical sequences in genes that
produce proteins involved in human Diseases.

A

Gene mutagenesis studies

104
Q

a technique that uses
double-stranded pieces of RNA (dsRNA) to
inhibit or silence expression of genes

A

RNA interference