Chapter 3 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is the primary goal of police questioning when a person is a suspect in a crime?

a. Obtain eyewitness testimonies
b. Elicit a confession
c. Gather character witness testimonies
d. Secure circumstantial evidence

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

According to the available studies, what percentage of suspects, on average, make full confessions during police interrogations?

a. Between 20% and 29%
b. Between 39% and 48%
c. Between 50% and 59%
d. Between 60% and 69%

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why do police prefer confessions over other types of evidence?

a. They are quicker to obtain.
b. They guarantee a conviction.
c. They save time and may avoid trials.
d. Both b and c.

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In the case of Colorado v. Connelly (1986), what significance did Justice William Brennan attribute to confessions?

a. Confessions are irrelevant in court.
b. Confessions render the trial process superfluous.
c. Confessions require further investigation.
d. Confessions should be excluded from trials.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In a study comparing the impact of different types of evidence, what evidence led to the highest conviction rate?

a. Eyewitness testimony
b. Confession
c. Character witness testimony
d. Forensic evidence

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How did mock jurors perceive high-pressure confessions in a study?

a. They easily recognized coercion and disregarded the confession.
b. They were more likely to find the defendant guilty.
c. They were less influenced by coercion.
d. They discounted confessions in both high and low-pressure conditions.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In a study of actual false confessions, what percentage of the time were suspects convicted when they falsely confessed and proceeded to trial?

a. 62%
b. 71%
c. 81%
d. 92%

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What psychological tendency contributes to the difficulty jurors face in discounting a confession?

a. Confirmation bias
b. Fundamental attribution error
c. Groupthink
d. Availability heuristic

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do defense attorneys often argue when a defendant has confessed?

a. Confessions should be excluded as irrelevant.
b. Confessions are always coerced.
c. Confessions are voluntary and reliable.
d. Confessions are inadmissible if obtained under duress.

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What role does incriminating evidence play in the impact of high-pressure interrogation techniques?

a. It strengthens the impact of coercion.
b. Jurors disregard coercion when strong evidence is present.
c. It has no effect on jurors’ perception of coercion.
d. Jurors are less likely to convict when incriminating evidence is weak.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What catalyzed a shift in police interrogation techniques in 1931?

a. Introduction of psychological coercion
b. Government commission report on police abuses
c. Advancements in forensic technology
d. Adoption of Miranda rights

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What led to the shift from overt physical abuse to covert forms of abuse in police interrogations?

a. Legal decisions favoring psychological coercion
b. Advancements in forensic technology
c. A decline in police brutality
d. Public awareness of physical abuse

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Since the Miranda v. Arizona decision of 1966, what rights must be explained to suspects during interrogation?

a. Right to an attorney and the right to remain silent
b. Right to a fair trial and the right to confront accusers
c. Right to speedy trial and the right to an unbiased jury
d. Right to appeal and the right to cross-examine witnesses

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What percentage of suspects choose to exercise their Miranda rights, according to the notes?

a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 50%
d. 80%

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do police detectives sometimes deemphasize Miranda warnings to increase the probability of a waiver?

a. Speaking slowly and clearly
b. Skipping the Miranda warnings entirely
c. Speaking faster and ritualistically
d. Repeating the warnings multiple times

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What term do lawyers use to describe disputes between defendants and police regarding coercion allegations?

a. Confession contests
b. Swearing contests
c. Miranda disputes
d. Coercion debates

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What has been permitted by courts over the past 50 years to persuade suspects to confess?

a. Physical brutality
b. Deceptive lies and theatrical tricks
c. Verbal threats of violence
d. Isolation without food or water

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What makes determining psychological coercion difficult based on the information provided to judges?

a. Lack of judicial expertise
b. Ambiguity in defining coercion
c. Inadequate legal precedents
d. Lack of forensic evidence

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What rights established by the U.S. Supreme Court in Miranda do many innocent suspects waive?

a. Right to a fair trial
b. Right to remain silent
c. Right to confront accusers
d. Right to an attorney

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What did one study reveal about the willingness of guilty and innocent participants to waive their rights?

a. Guilty participants were more likely to waive rights.
b. Innocent participants were more likely to waive rights.
c. Both guilty and innocent participants had equal willingness.
d. The study did not provide conclusive results.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a common psychological technique used in the good cop–bad cop approach?

a. Threats of physical violence
b. Display of anger by the “bad” cop
c. Isolation of suspects in a dark room
d. Offering leniency to the suspect

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the significance of setting up the interrogation room according to the widely used police guide?

a. Aesthetic appeal
b. Psychological comfort for suspects
c. Detailed advice on every aspect of interrogation
d. Compliance with interior design standards

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the four basic influence strategies underlying the Reid technique?

a. (1) Positive reinforcement, (2) group dynamics, (3) situational awareness, (4) cooperation
b. (1) Loss of control, (2) social isolation, (3) certainty of guilt, (4) minimization of culpability
c. (1) Physical intimidation, (2) deception, (3) empathy, (4) negotiation
d. (1) Mirroring, (2) rapport building, (3) miranda rights, (4) disclosure

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the primary goal of the loss of control strategy in interrogation?

a. To create a friendly environment
b. To instill fear in the suspect
c. To make suspects feel comfortable
d. To induce vulnerability and anxiety

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Why are suspects often interrogated alone?

a. To strengthen their emotional support
b. To avoid contradictory information
c. To provide legal counsel
d. To minimize interrogator influence

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the main purpose of the certainty of guilt strategy in interrogation?

a. To gather evidence against the suspect
b. To convince the suspect of their guilt
c. To establish rapport with the suspect
d. To express sympathy towards the suspect

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How might interrogators use false evidence ploys to influence suspects?

a. To confuse the suspect intentionally
b. To create a surreal environment
c. To exaggerate the strength of the case
d. All of the above

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the term used in interrogation manuals for the strategy of offering face-saving justifications or excuses for a crime?

a. Sympathy expressions
b. Minimization of culpability
c. Guilt projection
d. Denial reinforcement

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How do the strategies of certainty of guilt and minimization of culpability avoid direct threats or promises?

a. By using reverse psychology
b. By employing deceptive language
c. By implying threats and promises
d. By avoiding communication altogether

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the overall aim of the four psychologically powerful strategies in interrogation?

a. To convince suspects of their innocence
b. To create a surreal environment
c. To induce vulnerability and anxiety
d. To cause guilty suspects to recognize they are caught

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What risk may innocent suspects face due to the strategies used in interrogation?

a. Exoneration
b. Acquiescence and false admission of guilt
c. Legal representation
d. Reduced sentences

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

According to Robert Cialdini’s principles of influence, which principle suggests that we are more likely to comply with requests from people in positions of power or with expert knowledge?

a. Reciprocity
b. Liking
c. Authority
d. Scarcity

A

C

33
Q

What principle of influence is at play when we feel obligated to return favors, leading to an increased likelihood of complying with a later request?

a. Liking
b. Commitment and Consistency
c. Social Proof
d. Reciprocity

A

D

34
Q

According to Cialdini, what makes us more likely to say “yes” to people, whether it’s due to physical attractiveness, perceived similarity, or special treatment?

a. Scarcity
b. Social Proof
c. Liking
d. Commitment and Consistency

A

C

35
Q

In the context of influence, which principle suggests that we place greater value on things that are perceived as being in short supply?

a. Commitment and Consistency
b. Scarcity
c. Authority
d. Social Proof

A

B

36
Q

When uncertain about what action to take, according to Cialdini, which principle involves looking to people around us to guide our choices and behaviors?

a. Reciprocity
b. Liking
c. Social Proof
d. Commitment and Consistency

A

C

37
Q

Which principle of social influence emphasizes that once we make a commitment, especially a public one, we are more likely to honor and act consistently with that commitment?

a. Scarcity
b. Authority
c. Commitment and Consistency
d. Reciprocity

A

C

38
Q

What behavior of Thomas Sawyer made the police suspicious during questioning?
a. Lack of cooperation
b. Blushing, fidgeting, avoiding eye contact, and sweating
c. Calm and composed demeanor
d. Confident denial of the crime

A

B

39
Q

Why did the police invite Thomas Sawyer to the police station to assist with the investigation?
a. He was a suspect
b. He requested to help
c. He was a police officer
d. He was a fan of TV police shows

A

D

40
Q

What technique did the interrogators use to get a confession from Thomas Sawyer?
a. Physical mistreatment
b. Good cop-bad cop approach
c. Threats and intimidation
d. Polygraph examination

A

B

41
Q

How did the police convince Thomas Sawyer to confess to the crime?
a. They provided concrete evidence of his guilt
b. They lied about the results of the polygraph test
c. They promised leniency in sentencing
d. They threatened him with physical harm

A

B

42
Q

What percentage of known wrongful convictions involve false confessions?
a. 10%
b. 26%
c. 50%
d. 80%

A

B

43
Q

Why are DNA exoneration cases less likely in false confession situations?
a. DNA evidence is usually fabricated
b. DNA evidence is not relevant in criminal cases
c. DNA evidence is rarely available in criminal cases
d. DNA evidence is kept secret by prosecutors

A

C

44
Q

What vulnerability is identified as the most dangerous in raising the risk of false confessions?
a. Substance abuse
b. Mental illness
c. Youth
d. Lack of education

A

C

45
Q

What is the primary cause of most false confessions according to the notes?
a. Lack of legal representation
b. Police misconduct
c. Suspect vulnerabilities
d. Psychological pressures in police interrogation

A

D

46
Q

What is the term used to describe the breakdown of self-regulation during interrogation?
a. Interrogation trauma
b. Regulatory decline
c. Psychological breakdown
d. Mental fatigue

A

B

47
Q

What psychological effect does the process of interrogation have on suspects?
a. Enhanced memory recall
b. Improved self-regulation
c. Short-sightedness
d. Reduced stress

A

C

48
Q

Why do innocent suspects sometimes waive their Miranda rights during interrogation?
a. They trust the police
b. They believe they have nothing to hide
c. They want to confess to the crime
d. They are coerced by interrogators

A

B

49
Q

What are the four basic types of false confessions based on dimensions of voluntariness and internalization?
a. Coerced, voluntary, pressured, internalized
b. Instrumental, internalized, coerced, voluntary
c. Guilt-ridden, innocent, pressured, instrumental
d. Externalized, voluntary, coerced, internalized

A

B

50
Q

What is an instrumental–coerced false confession?
a. A confession given freely by the confessor
b. A confession achieved through coercion and pressure
c. A confession involving delusional beliefs
d. A confession made voluntarily to protect others

A

A

51
Q

What did the dismissal of APA officers result from according to the Hoffman Report?
a. Unethical practices in psychological research
b. Collaboration with the Pentagon and CIA on enhanced interrogation techniques
c. Failure to comply with ethical guidelines
d. Mismanagement of APA funds

A

B

52
Q

What is a key finding from decades of research on criminal interrogations regarding coercion?
a. Coercion is always necessary for obtaining confessions
b. Coercion rarely leads to false confessions
c. Coercion increases the probability of false confessions
d. Coercion is ineffective in obtaining information

A

C

53
Q

What is the legal status of using false evidence ploys in the United States?
a. It is illegal
b. It is permitted
c. It depends on the severity of the crime
d. It is allowed only for certain types of crimes

A

B

54
Q

What was the outcome of the Guildford Four case in England?
a. All were acquitted
b. All were executed
c. All were sentenced to life imprisonment
d. Some were released after serving 15 years

A

D

55
Q

What does the Police and Criminal Evidence Act (PACE) make illegal during interrogations in England and Wales?
a. Bullying, threats, and intimidation
b. All interviews conducted at police stations
c. Trickery and lies about evidence to induce confessions
d. Recording of interviews

A

C

56
Q

How have pressure tactics, intimidation, and trickery changed since the PACE reforms in England?
a. They have become more prevalent
b. They have not changed
c. They have moved outside the interrogation room
d. They have been completely eliminated

A

C

57
Q

What concern is raised about allowing police to lie during interrogations in the United States?
a. It may increase public confidence in the police
b. It may undermine public confidence in the police
c. It has no impact on public confidence
d. It may lead to more voluntary confessions

A

B

58
Q

What is the primary purpose of Human Intelligence (HUMINT) interrogations?
a. To gather evidence for criminal trials
b. To uncover information about national security threats
c. To intimidate suspects
d. To force confessions

A

B

59
Q

Which model of interrogation emphasizes strategically withholding or revealing known evidence to expose contradictions?
a. Accusatorial model
b. Information-gathering model
c. PEACE model
d. SUE model

A

D

60
Q

What does the acronym PEACE stand for in the context of the UK model of interrogation?
a. Positive, Engaging, Assertive, Cooperative, Effective
b. Preparation, Engage, Account, Closure, Evaluation
c. Public, Education, Accountability, Cooperation, Equality
d. Proactive, Elicitation, Analysis, Cooperative, Execution

A

B

61
Q

What is the purpose of the “Account” stage in the PEACE model?
a. To prepare the suspect psychologically
b. To build rapport with the suspect
c. To elicit a full account of the crime from guilty suspects
d. To evaluate the effectiveness of the interrogation

A

C

62
Q

What is the main difference between accusatorial and information-gathering interrogation methods?
a. The use of physical force
b. The emphasis on building rapport
c. The psychological manipulation
d. The approach to obtaining confessions

A

B

63
Q

According to research, what is the impact of accusatorial methods on obtaining true and false confessions?
a. Increases the likelihood of both true and false confessions
b. Increases only the likelihood of true confessions
c. Increases only the likelihood of false confessions
d. Has no impact on the likelihood of confessions

A

A

64
Q

What does the SUE technique emphasize in interrogation?
a. Social Understanding and Empathy
b. Strategic Use of Evidence
c. Subtle Use of Emotions
d. Simplified Understanding of Events

A

B

65
Q

What is a frequent complication in HUMINT interrogations according to the notes?
a. Lack of legal representation
b. Difference in cultures and languages
c. Excessive use of force
d. Absence of recorded interviews

A

B

66
Q

What does the Evaluation stage in the PEACE model focus on?
a. Interrogator’s physical appearance
b. Reflecting on the suspect’s account
c. Gathering additional evidence
d. Seeking feedback from colleagues

A

D

67
Q

Why do some observers worry about allowing lying by police during interrogations?
a. It may lead to more voluntary confessions
b. It may increase public confidence in the police
c. It may undermine public confidence in the police
d. It has no impact on public perception

A

C

68
Q

What is the primary challenge discussed in the notes regarding interrogations?
a. Identifying innocent suspects
b. Detecting false confessions
c. Improving interrogation techniques
d. Streamlining investigative tools

A

B

69
Q

What is a potential benefit of video recording interrogations, according to the notes?
a. It may intimidate suspects
b. It reduces the need for note-taking
c. It limits the visual cues available
d. It is only useful in minor cases

A

B

70
Q

Why is the video camera’s point of view considered an issue in recorded confessions?
a. It doesn’t capture nonverbal cues
b. It introduces a psychological bias
c. It obstructs the view of the suspect
d. It hinders the evaluation by judges

A

B

71
Q

What is a psychological concern regarding the impact of recorded confessions on jurors?
a. Jurors may become overly sympathetic
b. Jurors may focus on the suspect’s appearance
c. Jurors may discount the coercive process
d. Jurors may experience emotional distress

A

C

72
Q

Why do most interrogators embrace video recording, according to the notes?
a. It increases the need for note-taking
b. It has no impact on defense claims
c. It civilizes the behavior of interrogators
d. It adds more pressure on the suspect

A

C

73
Q

What is the purpose of imposing time limits on interrogations?
a. To speed up the legal process
b. To increase the risk of false confessions
c. To avoid lengthy and inherently unfair interrogations
d. To pressure suspects into quick confessions

A

C

74
Q

What is the suggested time limit for interrogations according to the notes?
a. 1 hour
b. 2 hours
c. 3 hours
d. 6 hours

A

C, no longer than 4 hours

75
Q

Why is youth identified as a significant risk factor for false confessions?
a. Young people are easily intimidated
b. They lack legal representation
c. They are prone to making false statements
d. They may not fully understand the consequences

A

A

76
Q

What role does the “appropriate adult” play in the context of interrogations involving juveniles or mentally impaired suspects?
a. Providing legal counsel
b. Advocating for the police
c. Serving as an independent witness
d. Ensuring the suspect’s confession is recorded

A

A

77
Q

How do specific jury instructions aim to enhance juror sensitivity?
a. By minimizing the impact of coercion
b. By emphasizing the efficiency of the legal process
c. By highlighting risk factors for false confessions
d. By discouraging the consideration of physical evidence

A

C

78
Q

Why might parents sometimes work against the interests of their children during interrogations?
a. Parents are too emotional to make rational decisions
b. Parents may believe their child is guilty
c. Parents lack understanding of legal processes
d. Parents are not allowed during interrogations

A

B

79
Q

What role does expert testimony play in cases involving disputed confessions?
a. To convince the jury of the suspect’s guilt
b. To disable the defendant from answering questions
c. To educate the jury about false confession risk factors
d. To cast doubt on the credibility of the confession

A

C