Chapter 3 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is cytology

A

The study of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are cells

A

The basic living, structural and functional units of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 3 main parts of the cell

A

Plasma membrane
Cytoplasm
Nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the plasma membrane

A
  • Outer surface of cells
  • Separates the internal environment from the external environment
  • a barrier that is selective
  • regulates the flow of materials that go in and out of the cells
  • communicates with other cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the cytoplasm

A

Consists of the all the contents in between the plasma membrane the the nucleus
Two components: cytosol and organelles of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the cytosol of the cytoplasm?

A

Fluids, consisting of intracellular fluid, water, dissolved solutes, and suspended particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the organelles of the cytoplasm

A

Cytoskeleton, ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi complex, mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the Nucleus

A

Houses the cell’s DNA, contains the chromosomes, genes, and proteins
- controls cell structures and functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the concept of selective permeability

A

Permeability permits the passage of substances through it, while being selective means allowing some contents to pass through but not others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The plasma membrane has a _______ _______ that is selectively permeable

A

Lipid bi-layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The plasma membranes lipid bi-layer is permeable to:

A

Non polar molecules
O2,CO2, and steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The plasma membrane’s lipid bi-layer is moderately permeable to:

A

Small, uncharged polar molecules
H2O, urea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The plasma membrane’s lipid bi-layer is impermeable to:

A

Ions, large uncharged polar molecules
Glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the lipid bilayer interior

A

Non polar and hydrophobic
Contains fatty acid tails filled with phospholipids and glycolipids that move around randomly providing small gaps of spaces briefly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Explain transmembrane proteins

A

Channels or carriers that increase the plasma membranes permeability for ions and uncharged polar molecules that cannot pass the membrane bilateral without assistance
They are selective, allowing only specific molecules or ions to cross

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the concentration gradient?

A
  • The difference in concentration of a chemical from one place to another
    (ions or molecules containing more concentration in either the extracellular fluid or cytosol)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the electrical gradient ?

A

The difference in electrical charges between two regions across the plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is membrane potential ?

A

The charge difference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The plasma membrane creates a difference in the distribution of + and - charged ions between the two sides. The inner surface is more __ charged and the outer surface is more __ charged.

A
  • and +
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The concentration and electrical gradients move substances across the membrane from a place with ____ concentration to where it is ______ concentrated to reach equilibrium

A

More to less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the electrochemical gradient ?

A

The combined influence of the concentration gradient and the electrical gradient on the movement of a particular ion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the difference between an active process and a passive process

A

Active process require cellular energy (usually ATP) to drive the substance uphill against its concentration or electrical gradient

passive processes move substances down its concentration or electrical gradient using its own kinetic energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the two main types of active processes

A

Active transport and transport in vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the difference between active transport and transport in vesicles

A

Active transport - cells use energy to move a substance across the membrane against its concentration gradient with transmembrane proteins that act as carriers

Transport in vesicles- substances move in and out of cells in vesicles that are formed from then plasma membrane created by ATP supplied energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the two types of active transport

A

Primary and secondary active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the process of primary active transport

A

Energy is obtained from the hydrolysis of ATP to change the carrier proteins shaped and “pump” a substance across the membrane against the concentration gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe the secondary active transport process

A

Energy that is stored in an ionic concentration gradient is used to drive other substances across the membrane against the concentration gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What kind of process is the sodium-potassium pump

A

Primary active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How does the sodium potassium pump work

A
  • maintains a low concentration is Na+ in the cytosol by pumping the sodium out into the ECF and pulling the K+ in against their concentration gradient
  • 3 Na+ in the cytosol bind the the pump protein which triggers the hydrolysis of ATP -> ADP + P (the phosphate group attached to the pump protein to change the proteins shape)
  • when the shape changes, the Na+ gets expelled into the ECF, and allows K+ on the ECF side to bind to the protein
  • when K+ is binded to the protein, it triggers the release of the phosphate group, counteracting the protein shape to its original, releasing the K+ into the cytosol

This process works nonstop to maintain equilibrium of the concentrations of Na+ and K+ on each side as they often leak back to original places by passive processes and 2ndary active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Different concentrations of Na+ and K+ in cytosol and ECF maintain a normal ________ _______ and for cells to generate electrical signals such as _________ ________

A

Cell volume
Action potentials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Explain the process of secondary active transport

A
  • stored energy in an ionic concentration gradient is the source of this process
  • the energy stored in Na+ or H+ concentration gradient drives other substances (that cannot cross) across the membrane
  • Na+ or H+ is established by primary active transport from the hydrolysis if ATP
  • due to the sodium-potassium pump, concentration of Na+ is high, and stores potential energy,
  • secondary transport proteins harness the potential energy and provide routes for Na+ to leak back in from ECF and the stored potential energy converts to kinetic energy
  • kinetic energy is used to transport other substances against its concentration gradient
  • the protein acts as a carrier binding to Na+ and other substances, changes it shape and allows both substances to cross the membrane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are vesicles

A

Small membranous spherical sacs, allows substances to enter and leave cells through these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the difference between symporter and antiporter

A

Symporter’s move 2 substances in the same direction
Antiporter’s move 2 substances in opposite directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the active process of transport vesicles

A

Vesicles import materials from cells, and release the materials into ECF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the two types of transport vesicle processes ?

A

Endocytosis and exocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the difference between endocytosis and exocytosis

A

Endocytosis- materials move into a cell by the vesicles that are formed from the plasma membrane

Exocytosis- materials move out of the cell by fusion with the plasma membrane’s vesicle located on the inside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the 3 Endocytosis processes

A

Receptor-mediated, phagocytosis, and bulk-phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the receptor-mediated Endocytosis

A

Cells have specific ligands, which are molecules that bind to specific receptors.
The vesicles form after a receptor protein in the plasma membrane recognize and bind to a particular particle in the ECF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is step 1 of receptor-mediated Endocytosis

A

Binding
-on the ECF side, a LDL particle that contains cholesterol binds to a specific receptor (known as an integral membrane proteins) which are concentrated in Claritin-coated pits of the plasma membrane
- a protein called clathrin attaches to the membrane on the cytoplasmic side
- multiple clathrin molecules cluster together around the LDL receptor, causing the membrane to invaginate (fold inward)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is step 2 of receptor-mediated Endocytosis

A

Vesicle formation
- the invaginated edges of the membrane around the clathrin-coated pit begin to fuse and pinch off
- the vesicle contains the LDL receptor complexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is step 3 of receptor-mediated Endocytosis

A

Uncoating
- the clathrin-coated vesicle loses its coat, becoming an “uncoated vesicle”
-clathrin returns to the plasma membrane to form coats on other vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is step 4 of receptor-mediated Endocytosis

A

Fusion with the endosome
- the uncoated vesicle fuses with another vehicle called endosome
- in the endosome, the LDL particles separate from their receptors (the integral membrane protein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is step 5 of receptor-mediated Endocytosis

A

Recycling of receptors to plasma membrane
- the receptors accumulate with the endosome which then pinch off, and form transport vesicle that return the receptors back into the plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is step 6 of receptor-mediated Endocytosis

A

Degradation in lysosomes
- other transport vesicles that also contain LDL particles pinch off and bud with a lysosome
- lysosomes contain digestive enzymes, that breakdown the large protein and lipid molecules of the LDL particle into smaller molecules like amino acids, fatty acids, and cholesterol.
- the cell uses cholesterol for rebuilding its membranes and for synthesis of steroids. And fatty acids and amino acids can be used for ATP production or to build other molecules
- these small molecules then leave the lysosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is phagocytosis?

A

A cell eating form of Endocytosis
- the cell engulfs large, solid particles (such as worn out cells, bacteria, or viruses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the two types of phagocytosis?

A

Macrophage and pseudopod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a macrophage ?

A

A type of White blood cell found in body tissues and neutrophils
- begins when the particle binds to a plasma membrane receptor on the phagocyte causing it to extend

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is a pseudopod ?

A

Projected from the plasma membrane and cytoplasm, surrounding a particle outside the cell
- membranes fuse to form a vesicle called phagosome, which enters the cytoplasm and fuses with lysosomes.
- the lysosome enzymes then breakdown the ingested material (called residual body)
- the residual Josh either gets secreted or stored in lipofusion granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is pinocytosis

A

“Cell-drinking” a form of Endocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the process of bulk-phase Endocytosis

A
  • no receptor proteins involved
  • Tiny droplets of solutes dissolved in ECF are brought into the cell
  • plasma membrane folds inwards (invaginate) and form a vesicle that contains the droplets
  • the vesicle pinches off from the plasma membrane and enters the cytosol
  • the vesicle then fuses with the lysosome, where enzymes degrade the engulfed solutes into smaller molecules that leave the lysosome to be used elsewhere
51
Q

Exocytosis releases materials from a cells by 2 types of cells, which are:

A

Secretory cells and nerve cells

52
Q

What do secretory cells do?

A

Liberate digestive enzymes, hormones, mucous or other secretions
- wastes can be released by secretory vesicles from inside cells that fuse with the plasma membrane and release their contents into the ECF
- lost segments of the plasma membrane are used by exocytosis

53
Q

What do nerve cells do for exocytosis ?

A

Release neurotransmitters

54
Q

What is transcytosis?

A

A transport vehicle that moves substance into a cell by Endocytosis, across the cell; and out of the cell by exocytosis
- the vesicles fuse to the plasma membrane, and contents release into the ECF

55
Q

What are the two main process of the passive transport process

A

Diffusion and osmosis

56
Q

What is diffusion

A

The random mixing of particles in a solution because if it’s kinetic energy. Both solutes (dissolved substances) and the solvent undergo diffusion

57
Q

When one solute is in a higher concentration area of a solution, the other is an area of a lower concentration . Solute molecules diffuse toward the area of _______ concentration to evenly distribute the solution

A

Lower (goes down the concentration gradient)

58
Q

What are the 4 types of diffusion

A

Simple, facilitated, channel-mediated, and carrier-mediated

59
Q

What are the 4 factors that influence the diffusion rate

A
  1. Steepness of the concentration gradient (bigger the difference between the two sides of the membrane; the higher the rate of diffusion)
  2. Temperature (higher the temp; higher the rate)
  3. Mass of the diffusing substance (bigger the mass, the slower the rate)
  4. Surface area (larger the surface area of the membrane, the faster the rate)
60
Q

What is simple diffusion ?

A

When a substance moves freely through the membrane without help from membrane transport proteins
- nonpolar, hydrophobic molecules, and small, uncharged polar molecules

61
Q

What is facilitated diffusion

A

Integral membrane proteins assist a specific substance (too polar or highly charged) across the membrane as a channel or carrier

62
Q

What is the channel-mediated facilitated diffusion ?

A

Solutes move down it’s concentration gradient across the lipid bilayer through ionic membrane channels at certain sites
- the channels are gated integral transmembrane proteins change their shape in one way to open pores one way and close the other way
- this allows the passage of inorganic ions that are hydrophilic (such as K+, Cl-, Na+, Ca2+)

63
Q

What is the carrier-mediated facilitated diffusion

A

Solutes bond to a specific carrier on one side, and get released on the other side
- when the solute binds to the carrier, the carrier changes shape
- solutes bind to the carrier in the side with higher concentration
- the concentration is equalized when solutes bind to the cell side, and exit on the ECF side and vice versa at the same time

64
Q

What is the process of osmosis

A

The net movement of a solvent (water) through the selective membrane from an area of high concentration to the area of low concentration (down the concentration gradient making is a passive process)
However the solute moves uphill in the concentration gradient
- water (solvent) moved through the membrane by neighbouring phospholipid molecules in the lipid bilayer by simple diffusion OR by assistance of aquaporins - integral membrane proteins that act as a water channel
- occurs when a membrane is permeable to water but not to certain solutes

65
Q

What are aquaporins

A

Integral transmembrane proteins that function as water channels
Controls the water content of cells
Responsible for the production of CSF, aqueous humour, tears, and urine concentration

66
Q

With a U-Shape tube, when water is placed on the left side, and a solute solution is placed on the right side, osmosis occurs when:

A

-The membrane is permeable to water but not permeable to the solutes
- The net movement of the water goes left to right down the concentration gradient and the membrane prevents solutes on the right to go left
- due to this, the volume of fluid to the right increases and the left decreases due to the movement of water, increase the pressure (hydrostatics pressure) on the membrane forcing the water back to the left to equalize the levels of fluid.

67
Q

What is osmotic pressure ?

A

The solution with the impermeable solute exerts a force
It is the pressure needed to stop the movement of water from the left into the right to keep the fluid volume equal
The higher the solutes concentration, the higher the solution osmotic pressure

68
Q

What is tonicity?

A

The measure of a solutions ability to change the volume of cells by altering their water content

69
Q

Osmotic pressure of cytosol is _____ to osmotic pressure of interstitial fluid. This makes cell volume _______.

A

Equal
Constant

70
Q

Cells in a solution have a different osmotic pressure than cytosol, however the shape and volume of cells change. What are the 3 types of solutions?

A

Isotonic, hypotonic and hypertonic

71
Q

What is an isotonic solution

A

NaCl .09%
- Solution where the cell maintains its shape and volume
- The concentration of solutes that cannot cross the plasma membrane are the same on both sides
- cell plasma membrane permits water to move back and forth, but is impermeable to the solutes (Na and Cl)

72
Q

What is a hypotonic solution

A

Pure H2O
- solution has a lower concentration of solutes than the cytosol of the cells
- water enters the cells faster than they leave which causes the cells to swell and burst (hemolysis)

73
Q

What is a hypertonic solution

A

NaCl 2%
- the solution has a higher concentration of solutes than does the cytosol of the cells
- water moves out of the cells faster than they can enter.
- this causes the cells to shrink (crenation)

74
Q

What is the cytoplasm ?

A
  • Cellular contents between the plasma membrane and the nucleus
  • Include the cytosol and organelles
  • site of all intracellular activities other than the nucleus
75
Q

That is the cytosol

A

Intracellular fluid is the portion of cytoplasm surrounding organelles
- make sup 55% if the cell volume and consists of 75-90% water and dissolved/suspended components such as ion, glucose, amino acids, fatty acids, proteins, lipids, ATP and waste products
- the site of chemical reactions

76
Q

What is the cytoskeleton

A

A network of protein filaments
- serves as a scaffold that determines cells shape and organize cellular contents
- aids in movement of organelles, within cells of chromosomes and whole cells

77
Q

What are the 3 types of protein filaments

A

Microfilaments, intermediate filaments, microtubules

78
Q

What are microfilaments

A
  • The thinnest of the 3 protein filaments
  • composed of actin and myosin proteins
  • generate movement, provide mechanical support (strength and shape)
  • involved in muscle contraction, cell division, cell locomotion, migration of embryonic cells, invasion of tissue WBC’s to fight infection, migration of skin cells during wound healing
  • anchors to integral proteins
  • cell extensions by microvili which increase cell surface area for absorption in the small intestine
79
Q

What are intermediate filaments

A

-middle in size, very strong
- found in parts of cells subject to mechanical stress
- stabilize the position of organelles and help attach cells to one another

80
Q

What are microtubules

A
  • thicket if the protein filaments
  • long unbranched hollow tubes
    -composed of the protein tubulin
  • found in the Centrosome and grow outward towards the surface of the cell
  • determines cell shape and movement of some organelles
81
Q

What is the centrosome structure and function

A
  • structure: pair of centrioles and a pericentricular matrix
  • function: builds and organize the microtubules and forms the mitotic spindle for cell division
82
Q

What are the two types of microtubules

A

Cilia and flagella

83
Q

What is the structure and function of the cilia

A
  • structure: short, hairlike projections extend from the surface of the cell, are anchored to the nasal body below the surface of the plasma membrane
  • function: sweeps foreign particles that are trapped, moves fluids along the cell surface
84
Q

What is the structure and function of flagella

A
  • structure: long hairlike structures
  • function: move an entire cell by generating a forward motion along an axis, has a head and tail; tail rapidly wiggles giving the momentum
85
Q

What is the structure and function of ribosomes

A
  • structure: there are 2 subunits (small and large), made in the nucleolus then exiting the nucleus and cone together at the cytoplasm. Made up of RNA and proteins. Attach to nuclear membrane and endoplasmic reticulum, location in the mitochondria
  • functions: protein synthesis for insertion in the plasma membrane or secretion from the cell
86
Q

What is the endoplasmic reticulum

A

A network of membranes as flattened sacs (rough ER) it tubules (smooth ER) that extends from the nuclear envelope (membrane) and projects/connects through the cytoplasm

87
Q

What is the structure and function of rough ER

A

Structure: folded flattened sacs on the outer surface of the ribosomes
Function: enter spaces of the plasma membrane for processing and sorting, procure secretory, membrane, and organelle proteins that get secreted by exocytosis

88
Q

What is the structure and function of smooth ER

A

Structure: a network of membrane tubules that extend from the rough ER, contain unique enzymes
Function: synthesize fatty acids and steroids

89
Q

What is the structure and function of the golgi complex

A

Structure: consist of cisterns (cavities) that as small, flat membranous sacs with bulging edges
Function: have different enzymes in each region that permit each area to modify, sort, and package proteins into vesicles for transport to different destinations

90
Q

What are the 3 cisterns and their locations

A

1) entry (cis) face- faces the rough ER side (transport vesicles form from the ER by merging to create the entry face)
2) medial cistern - in between sacs
3) exit (trans) face - faces the plasma membrane

91
Q

What are the steps of maturing cisterns and exchanges

A

1) the proteins that are synthesized by ribosomes on rough ER, cluster and form transport vesicles at the membrane surface
2) vesicles move into the entry face
3) fusion of transport vesicles create the entry face and release proteins into the lumen space
4) proteins move from the entry to the medial, and enzymes modify the proteins. Transfer vesicles bud at the edges. Some enzymes move to the entry while others move toward the exit
*5) some products that moved to the exit cistern further get modified, sorted and packaged
*6) some products as the exit are stored in secretory vesicles that deliver proteins to the plasma membrane and ECF by exocytosis
*7) other processes proteins leave the exit face in membrane vesicles that also deliver the products to the plasma membrane
8) the golgi adds new segments of the plasma membrane
*9) other proteins leave in transport vesicles, carrying the proteins to other cells

92
Q

What are the differences between secretory vesicles, membrane vesicles, and transport vesicles

A

Secretory: sends proteins to the plasma membrane by exocytosis to the ECF
Membrane: proteins leave through these and get delivered to the plasma membrane to be incorporated while the Golgi adds new segments to modify and distribute to the plasma membrane as the existing ones are lost
Transport: carry proteins to other cells

93
Q

What is the structure and function of lysosomes

A

Structure: are formed by the Golgi complex, they are membranous enclosed vesicles
Function: contain powerful digestive and hydrolytic enzymes that breakdown molecules once fused with vesicles that are formed by Endocytosis

94
Q

What is autophagy

A

When a lysosome engulfs another organelle, digests it, and returns the contents to the cytosol to be reused (enzymes recycle the worn out cells)
- uses active transport pumps by importing H+ as it works best in acid pH, and also includes transporters and more products to assist with digestion
- organelle bring digested is enclosed by a membrane derived from the ER to create a vehicle called autophagosome that fuses with a lysosome
-involved in cell differentiation, controls growth, and tissue remodelling, helps with cell defence and and adaptation to adverse environments

95
Q

What is autolysis

A

Lysosonal enzymes destroy the entire cell
- pathological conditions, responsible for tissue deterioration occurring after cellular death
- digest Endocytosis substances, transports products to the cytosol, carry out autophagy, implements autolysis, and then accomplishes extracellular growth

96
Q

What is the structure and function of perioxisomes

A

Structure: contains enzymes that oxidize by removing oxygen called oxidases, from organic substances, also contains an enzyme called catalase
Function: oxidize toxic substances such as alcohol, A by product of the oxidation reaction os hydrogen peroxide (a superoxide) which is toxic, so the enzyme catalase decompose the superoxide therefore peroxisomes protect other parts of the cell

97
Q

What is the structure and function of proteasomes

A

Structure: tiny barrel of 4 stacked rings of proteins that surround the core
Function: destroys unneeded, damaged or faulty proteins,myriad proteases enzymes cut proteins into small peptides then other enzymes breakdown the peptides into amino acids to be recycled into new proteins

98
Q

What is the structure and function of mitochondria

A

Structure: has an internal mitochondrial membrane (folds of mitochondrial cristae surrounds the matrix), mitochondrial matrix (central fluid filled cavity, enclosed by the internal membrane), and external mitochondrial membrane with fluid filled spaces in between the membranes
Functions: generates ATP by aerobic respirations, plays a role in apoptosis

99
Q

What is apoptosis

A

Genetic program of cell death

100
Q

What is the role of the mitochondrial matrix

A

Has enzymes that catalyze the reaction for ATP

101
Q

What is the role of the internal mitochondrial membrane cristae

A

Provided surface area for chemical reactions for aerobic cell respirations producing ATP

102
Q

What is the structure and function of the nucleus membrane

A

Structure: spherical/oval shape, had a double membrane called nuclear envelope that separates the nucleus from the cytoplasm, had many nuclear pores with circular arrangements of a proteins that surround a large opening
Function: pores control the movement of substances between the nucleus and cytoplasm by passive diffusion (small ions and molecules), or active transport (large molecules like RNA and proteins)

103
Q

What is the structure and function of the nucleoli

A

Structure: cluster of protein, DNA, RNA enclosed by a membrane , and genes which are arranged along chromosomes
Function: produce ribosomes, sites of synthesis and assembly of rRNA and proteins into ribosomes psi units
Control cell structures and direct cell functions (the powerhouse of the cell)

104
Q

DNA consists of __ chromosomes, with __ each from the mom and the dad

A

46
23

105
Q

1 single chromosome molecule is coiled together with _____

A

Proteins

106
Q

What makes up a chromatin

A

DNA, Proteins, and RNA

107
Q

What is a genome

A

Total genetic information carried in a cell/organism

108
Q

Before cell division, DNA replicates and loops condense to form _______

A

A pair of chromatids

109
Q

What are the 2 steps in protein synthesis

A

Transcription and translation

110
Q

What are the 3 types of RNA and their functions

A

Messenger (directs protein synthesis)
Ribosomal (joins with ribosomal proteins to create ribosomes)
Transfer (binds to amino acids and hold in place on a ribosome till it’s a protein) - one end Carrie’s an amino acid, the opposite end contains an anticodon

111
Q

What is the process of transcription of protein synthesis

A

Copies DNA to produce a specific RNA sequence (occurs in the nucleus)
The tRNA anticodon attaches to the mRNA codon
- RNA polymerase (enzyme) catalyzes transcription
- begins at the the “promoter” which is the beginning of a gene of a special nucleotide sequence
- ends at the “terminator” where an enzyme detaches

112
Q

What is the process of translation of protein synthesis

A

-occurs in the ribosome
- mRNA molecule attaches to a ribosome subunit at the mRNA binding site (where information contained in the RNA gets translated into a corresponding sequence of amino acids to form a new protein
- a special (initiator) tRNA binds to the start codon (AUG) on mRNA (site translation begins and is amino acid methionine, the first amino acid in a growing peptide)
- pairing between the complementary bases (the tRNA anticodon (UAC) attaches to the mRNA codon (AUG) )
- the large ribosomal subunit attaches to the small ribosomal subunit creating the mRNA complex (creates a functional ribosome)
- the initiator tRNAc with the amino acid (methionine) fits into the “P” site of the ribosome and the anticodon if another tRNA with it’s attached amino acid pairs with the second mRNA codon at the “A” site of the ribosome
- a component of the large ribosomal subunit catalyzes the formation of a peptide bond between the methionine and the amino acids carried by the tRNA at the “A” site
- following the formation of the peptide bond, the resulting two peptide proteins become attached to the tRNA at the “A” site
- after peptide bond formation, the ribosome shifts the mRNA strand by one codon, the tRNA in the “P” site enters the “E” site and is released from the ribosome
- the tRNA in the “A” site bearing the two peptide protein shifts into the “P” site, allowing another tRNA with its amino acid to bind to a newly exposed codon at the “A” site
- the protein lengthens as the steps repeat and synthesis ends when the ribosome reaches a “stop” codon at the “A” site causing the protein to detach from the final tRNA

113
Q

What are the 2 types of cell division

A

Somatic and reproductive

114
Q

What is somatic cell division

A

Nuclear division (mitosis) and cytoplasmic division (cytokinesis)
-produce 2 genetically identical cells w/ the same number and kind of chromosomes as the original cells
- replace dead/injured cells and adds new ones

115
Q

What are the two main phases of the somatic cell cycle

A

Interphase and mitotic

116
Q

Describe interphase of the somatic cell cycle

A

Interphase is where there is high metabolic activity, where cells do most of its growing, and consists of 3 phases
-G1(replicated most organelles and cytosolic components and centrosomes begin)
-S (DNA replication and synthesis begins, 2 identical cells form at the site of cell division later)
-G2 (cell growth, enzymes and protein synthesize in preparation for cell division and replication of centrosomes complete)

117
Q

Describe the mitotic phase of somatic cell division

A

Formation of 2 identical cells
consisting of nuclear division and cytoplasmic division

118
Q

Describe nuclear division of the mitotic phase of the somatic cell cycle

A

Distributed 2 sets of chromosomes into 2 separate nuclei
4 stages:
1)prophase- chromatin fibers condense and shorten into paired chromatids. Tubulins in the centrosomes form mitotic spindles, the nucleus disappears and the nuclear envelope breaks down

2) metaphase- microtubules align the centrosomes of chromatid pairs at the metaphase plate

3) anaphase- centrosomes split separating the 2 members of each chromatid pair (chromosomes) which get pulled by the microtubules of the mitotic spindle (separates chromatids) and centre instead stage the arms of chromatids towards the poles on opposite ends

4) telophase- with movement, the sets of chromosomes on opposites poles begin to uncoil and revert to a “thready” chromatin form. The nuclear envelop forms around each chromatin, nucleoli reappear and the mitotic spindle breaks up

119
Q

What is the cytokinesis process of the somatic cell division cycle

A

Division of cell cytoplasm and organelles into 2 identical cells
Begins in late anaphase - begins to form a cleavage furrow which completed after telophase
- actin microfilaments form contractile rings that pull the plasma membrane inward, and constrict the centre of a cell to pinch it into 2
Once this step completes, interphase begins again

120
Q

What is reproductive cell division

A

The union of 2 different gamete’s (fertilization) - 1 produced from each parent
Meiosis- occurs in the gonads (ovaries/tested)c produce gametes in which the number of chromosomes is reduced by half, making them haploid cells

121
Q

What are the 2 main stages of reproductive cell decision

A

Meiosis 1 and meiosis 2

122
Q

Describe the process of Meiosis 1

A

During interphase before meiosis 1, chromosomes of diploid cells begin the start replicating
Meiosis 1 starts once chromosomal replication is complete
Has 4 phases:
1) prophase 1 (chromosomes shorten and thicken, nuclear envelop and nucleoli disappear, mitotic spindle forms.

2) metaphase 1 (2 sister chromatids of each pair of chromosomes pair off - synapsis resulting in 4 chromatids called tetrads that line up along the metaphase plate side by side. Parts of the chromatids of the 2 chromosomes exchange genes with one another in a proves called “cross over”. This results in genetic recombination, the formation of new combinations of genes for genetic variation)

3) anaphase 1 (each pair of chromosomes separate and pull to opposite piles of the cell by microtubules attached to centromeres, the chromatids are held by the centromere and remain together)

4) telophase 1(the sets of chromosomes on opposites poles begin to uncoil and revert to a “thready” chromatin form. The nuclear envelop forms around each chromatin, nucleoli reappear and the mitotic spindle breaks up)

123
Q

Describe the process of Meiosis 2

A

Consists of 4 stages:
-prophase 2, metaphase 2, anaphase 2, telophase 2
- similar to mitosis, centromeres spirit, sister chromatids separate and pull towards opposite poles of a cell z
- each of the 2 haploid cells formed during meiosis 1 divides, and the net result is 4 haploid gamete’s that are genetically different from the starting diploid cell.