Chapter 28 - Pharynx and Esophagus (CHERI NOTES) Flashcards

1
Q

The _____ ; also called a ___ ;is a barium examination of the alimentary tract from the pharynx to the ligament of treitz. (p.734)

A

UPPER GASTROINTESTINAL (UGI)SERIES (aka BARIUM MEAL)

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2
Q

A ____ or _____ is a study more dedicated
to the evaluation of swallowing disorders and suspected
lesions of the pharynx and esophagus. (p.734)

A

BARIUM SWALLOW or ESOPHAGOGRAM

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3
Q

Distention of the pharynx is provided by

having the patient ____. (p.734)

A

PHONATE

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4
Q

Distention of the esophagus is attained by
having the patient __.
(p.734)

A

HAVE THE PATIENT INGEST GAS-PRODUCING

CRYSTALS

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5
Q

___ views are collapsed views of the bariium-coated

esophagus. (p.734)

A

MUCOSAL VIEWS

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6
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
CT is poor at evaluating the musosa and
generally cannot differentiate inflammatory and
neoplastic conditions. (p.734)

A

TRUE

MR is preferred over CT for evaluation of the
nasopharynx and is an alternative to CT for
demonstrating the extent of disease.

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7
Q

____ is useful for demonstration of tumor

penetration of the esoophageal wall. (p.734)

A

ENDOSCOPIC SONOGRAPHY

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8
Q

7 symptoms of abnormal oral or pharyngeal

swallowing. (p.737)

A
  1. Difficulty initiating swallowing
  2. Globus sensatuib (lump in throat)
  3. Cervical Dysphagia
  4. Nasal Regurgitation
  5. Hoarseness
  6. Coughing
  7. Choking
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9
Q

4 symptoms suggesting ESOPHAGEAL

DYSFUNCTION. (p.737)

A
  1. HEARTBURN
  2. DYSPHAGIA
  3. “INDIGESTION”
  4. CHEST PAIN
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10
Q

___ is defined as the awareness of swallowing
difficulty during the passage of solids or liquids
from mouth to stomach. (p.734)

A

DYSPHAGIA

  • odynophagia (painful swallowing)
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11
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
In Esophageal Motility disorders; the patient’s
subjective assessment of the location of the
abnormality is not reliable. (p.737)

A

TRUE

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12
Q

4 signs of PHARYNGEAL DYSFUNCTION

p.737

A
  1. PHARYNGEAL STASIS
  2. LARYNGEAL PENETRATION
  3. ASPIRATION
  4. NASAL REGURGITATION
- LARYNGEAL PENETRATION and
tracheobronchial ASPIRATION are 
associated with increased risk of 
developing pneumonia especially in
hospitalized patients.
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13
Q

_____; indicative of impaired pharyngeal transport;
is seen as increased residual volume of swallowed
material filling the valleculae and piriform sinuses.
(p.737)

A

PHARYNGEAL STASIS

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14
Q

____ is defined as entry of barium into the laryngeal
vestibule without passage below the vocal cords.
(p.737)

A

LARYNGEAL PENETRATION

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15
Q

____ implies barium passage below the vocal cords

p.737

A

ASPIRATION

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16
Q

____ occurs when the soft palate does not make a
good seal against the posterior pharyngeal wall.
(p.737)

A

NASAL REGURGITATION

-causes include neurologic impairment;
muscular dystrophies; and structural
defects in the palate.

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17
Q

______ is attibutable to failure of complete relaxation
of the UES ; commonly resulting in dysphagia and
aspiration. (p.737)

A

CRICOPHARYNGEAL ACHALASIA

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18
Q

In CRICOPHARYNGEAL ACHALASIA;
barium swallo demonstrates a shelf-like impression
(CRICOPHARYNGEAL BAR) on the barium column
at the pharyngoesophageal junction at the level
of ____. (p.737)

A

C5-C6 level

  • the pharynx is distended and barium may overflow
    into the larynx and trachea.
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19
Q

Narrowing of the lumen greater than ___ %
is generally accepted as a definite cause of dysphagia
(p.737).

A

greater than 50%

  • cricopharyngeal dysfuntion is commonly associated
    with neuromuscular disorders of the pharynx.
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20
Q

_____ of the esophagus is a disease of unknown
eitology characterized by:
1. absence of peristalsis in the body of the esophagus
2. marked increase in resting pressure of the LES
3. failure of the LES to relax with swallowing
(p.737)

A

ACHALASIA

  • the abnormal peristalsis and LES
    spasm result in a failure of the
    esophagus to empty
  • pathologically; cases show a deficiency
    of ganglion cells in the myenteric plexus
    (Auerbach plexus) throughout the esophagus.
  • clinical presentation is insidious;
    usually at 30 to 5 years; with dysphagia;
    regurgitation; foul breath and aspiration.
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21
Q

5 Radiographic signs of

ACHALASIA (p.738)

A
1. Uniform dilatation of the esophagus;
usually with an air-fluid level present
2. Absence of peristalsis; with tertiary
waves common in the early stages of the 
disease
3. Tapered "beak" deformity at the LES
because of failure of relaxation
4. Findings of esophagitis including ulceration
5. Increased incidence of Epiphrenic 
Diverticulum and Esophageal CA
  • treatment of Achalasia is BALLOON DILATION
    or HELLER MYOTOMY
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22
Q

3 Diseases that may mimic

Esophageal Achalasia. (p. 738)

A
  1. Chagas Disease
  2. Carcinoma of the GEJ
  3. Peptic Strictures
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23
Q
\_\_\_\_\_ is caused by the 
destruction of ganglion cells of 
the esophagus due to a 
neurotoxin released by the 
protozoa; Trypanosoma cruzi; 
endemic to South America;  
esp. eastern Brazil. (p.738)
A

CHAGAS DISEASE

  • The radiographic appearance of the esophagus is identical to achalasia.
  • Associated abnormalities include cardiomyopathy;
    megaduodenum; megaureter and megacolon
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24
Q
\_\_\_\_\_ may mimic achalasia
but tends to involve a longer
(> 3.5 cm) segment of the distal
esophagus; is rigid; and tends
to show more irregular tapering
of the distal esophagus and mass
effect. (p.738)
A

CARCINOMA OF THE GEJ

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25
Q
When findings of achalasia are present
on barium studies; it is important
to evaluate the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and 
\_\_\_\_to rule out an underlying
malignant tumor at the GEJ as the 
cause of these findings. (p.738)
A

GASTRIC CARDIA and FUNDUS

- The cardia and fundus is however not 
adequately evaluated radiographically
 in all patients because of 
delayed emptying of barium from the 
esophagus.
- Therefore; it is important to be aware 
of the limitations of barium studies in 
evaluating the cardia and fundus in 
patients with suspected achalasia.
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26
Q
\_\_\_ strictures are usually
 associated with normal 
primary esophageal peristalsis.
A hiatal hernia is usually 
present. (p.738)
A

PEPTIC STRICTURES

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27
Q
\_\_\_\_ is a syndrome of unknown
cause characterized by multiple 
tertiary  esophageal contractions;
thickened esophageal wall; and 
intermittent dyphagia and chest
pain. (p.738)
A

DIFFUSE ESOPHAGEAL SPASM

- primary peristalsis is usually present 
but contractions are infrequent.
- Most patients are middle-aged
- The LES is frequently dysfunctional
and the conditions commonly improves 
with injection of Clostridium botulinum
toxin at the GEJ wth endoscopic balloon
dilatation of the LES.
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28
Q
\_\_\_ is characterized on barium
studies by intermittently absent
or weakened primary esophageal 
peristalsis with simultaneous; 
nonperistaltic contractions that 
compartmentalize the 
esophagus; producing a 
classic corkscrew appearance. (p.738)
A

DIFFUSE ESOPHAGEAL SPASM

  • CT reveals circumferential thickening
    (5 to 15 mm) of the wall of the
    distal 5 cm of the esophagus in
    20% of patients.
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29
Q

______ disorders are a common
cause of abnormalities of the
oral; pharyngeal; or esophageal
phases of swallowing. (p.738)

A

NEUROMUSCULAR disorders

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30
Q

The most common cause
of neurologic dysfunction is
_____ and ____. (p. 738)

A

CEREBROVASCULAR DISEASE and
STROKE

  • additional causes include Parkinsonism;
    Alzheimer disease; multiple sclerosis;
    neoplasms of the CNS and posttraumatic
    CNS injury.
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31
Q
Diseases of the striated 
esophageal muscle; such as
muscular dystrophy; myasthenia
gravis; and dermatomyositis;
predominantly affect the \_\_\_
and \_\_\_\_\_\_ of the esophagus. 
(p.738)
A

PHARYNX and PROXIMAL THIRD
(striated muscle portion) of the
esophagus.

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32
Q
\_\_\_\_ is a systemic disease
of unknown cause characterized
by progressive atrophy of smooth 
muscle and progressive fibrosis 
of affected tissues. (p.739)
A

SCLERODERMA

- women are most commonly affected; 
usually aged 20 to 40 years at the onset
of disease.
- the esophagus is affected in 75% to 
80% of patients
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33
Q

4 Radiographic findings of

Scleroderma (p.739)

A
1. Weak to absent peristalsis in the 
distal two-thirds (smooth muscle 
portion) of the esophagus.
2. Delayed esophageal emptying
3. A stiff dilated esophagus that does 
not collapse with emptying
4. Wide gaping LES with free
gastroesophageal reflux.
  • despite free reflux; tight strictures
    of the distal esophagus are uncommon.
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34
Q
TRUE OR FALSE.
Postoperative states; including
surgery for malignancy of the
tongue;larynx and the pharnyx; 
commonly impair swallowing 
function as well as alter the morphology.
A

TRUE

  • surgical resection is aimed at providing
    at least a 1-cm margin free of tumor and
    often results in removing large blocks of
    tissue and functionally altering the
    structures that remain.
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35
Q
\_\_\_\_ frequently results in 
abnormal esophageal motility 
and esophageal motility and 
visualization of tertiary 
esophageal contractions. (p.739)
A

ESOPHAGITIS

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36
Q
\_\_\_\_ occurs as a result of 
incompetence of the LES. 
The resting pressure of the LES 
is abnormally decreased and fails 
to increase with raised 
intraabdominal pressure. (p.739)
A

GASTROESOPHAGEAL REFLUX
DISEASE (GERD)

  • as a result; increases in intraabdominal
    pressure exceed LES pressure;
    and gastric contents are allowed to
    reflux into the esophagus.
  • GERD is classified as a spectrum of
    conditions: nonerosive reflux disease;
    erosive esophagitis; and Barett esophagus.
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37
Q

3 symptoms of GERD.

p.739

A
1. SUBSTERNAL BURNING PAIN
("heartburn")
2. POSTURAL REGURGITATION
(in supine position)
3. DEVELOPMENT OF 
REFLUX ESOPHAGITITS;
DYSPHAGIA AND ODYNOPHAGIA.
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38
Q

3 complications of GERD (p.739)

A
  1. REFLUX ESOPHAGITIS
  2. STRICTURE
  3. DEVELOPMENT OF BARRETT
    ESOPHAGUS
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39
Q
TRUE OR FALSE. 
Thhe radiographic diagnosis of
GERD may be difficult because
20% of normal individuals
show spontaneous reflux on UGI
examination; and patients with
pathologic GERD may not 
demonstrate reflux without
provocative tests.  (p.739)
A

TRUE

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40
Q

5 Findings associated with
GERD on barium esophagrams.
(p.739)

A
1. HIATAL HERNIA; associated with 
presence of reflux esophagitis
2. SHORTENING OF THE ESOPHAGUS;
a finding of importance to treating
GERD surgically
3. IMPAIRED ESOPHAGEAL MOTILITY
4. GASTROESOPHAGEAL REFLUX;
often demonstrated by provocative
maneuvers such as Valsalva; leg raising; 
and cough
5. Prolonged clearance time of refluxed 
gastric contents. 
  • low volume reflux is not considered a
    significant finding.
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41
Q

Most sensitive means of
diagnosing abnormal GERD
(p.739)

A

MONITORING OF ESOPHAGEAL pH for
24 hours in an ambulatory patient.

  • GERD is managed medically with agents
    that inhibit gastric acid production or
    surgically with fundoplication
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42
Q

___ hernia is often considered

synonymous with GERD. (p.739)

A

HIATUS hernia

- most patients with hiatus hernia do not
have gastroesophageal reflux or 
evidence of esophagitis.
- Hiatus hernia is therefore NOT LIKELY
 as a PRIMARY CAUSE OF REFLUX.
- However; up to 90% of patients with 
GERD have a hiatus hernia. 
- The presence of hiatus hernia delays 
the clearance of reflux and promotes 
development of RE.
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43
Q

Simply defined as protrusion
of any portion of the stomach
into the thorax. (p.740)

A

HIATUS hernia

  • highly prevalent affecting
    40% to 60% of adults.
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44
Q

3 types of hiatal hernia (p.740)

A
  1. SLIDING HIATUS HERNIA
  2. PARAESOPHAGEAL HIATUS HERNIA
  3. MIXED OR COMPOUND HIATAL
    HERNIA
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45
Q

Most common type of hiatal hernia (95%).

p.740

A

SLIDING HIATUS HERNIA

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46
Q
Type of hiatal hernia where the 
the GEJ is displaced more than 
1 cm above the hiatus. The 
esophageal hiatus is often 
abnormally widened to 3 to 4 cm.
(p.740)
A

SLIDING HIATUS HERNIA

  • the gastric fundus may be displaced above
    the diaphragm and present as a
    retrocardiac mass on chest radiographs.
  • the presence of an air-fluid level in the
    mass suggests the diagnosis.
  • small; sliding hiatus hernias commonly
    reduce in the upright position.
  • the function of the LES and the presence
    of pathologic gastroesophageal reflux
    are the crucial factors in producing
    symptoms and causing complications.
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47
Q

The upper limit of normal hiatal
width is __ mm; most easily
measured by CT. (p.740)

A

15 mm

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48
Q
type of hiatal hernia where the 
the GEJ remains in normal 
location; while a portion of the 
stomach herniates above the 
diaphragm. (p.740)
A

PARAESOPHAGEAL HIATUS HERNIA

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49
Q
\_\_\_\_\_is the most common type
of paraesophageal hernia.
The GEJ is displaced into the 
thorax with a large portion of the
stomach; which is usually 
abnormally rotated.
A

MIXED OR COMPOUND HIATAL HERNIA

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50
Q
TRUE OR FALSE.
Paraesophageal hernis; esp.
when large with most of the
stomach in the thorax; are at risk
for volvulus; obstruction and 
ischemia. 
(p.740)
A

TRUE

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51
Q

___ are protrusions of pharyngeal
mucosa through areas of
weakness of the lateral
pharyngeal wall. (p.741)

A

LATERAL PHARYNGEAL DIVERTICULA

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52
Q

Most common regions of
Lateral Pharyngeal Diverticula.
(p.741)

A

TONSILLAR FOSSA and the

THYROHYOID MEMBRANE

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53
Q

These condition reflects
increased intrapharyngeal pressure and are seen most
commonly in wind instrument
players. (p.741)

A

LATERAL PHARYNGEAL DIVERTICULA

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54
Q
\_\_\_\_ arises in the hypopharynx
just proximal to the UES.
It is located in the posterior 
midline at the cleavage plane, 
known as Killian dehiscence;
between the circular and the
oblique fibers of the crico-
pharyngeus muscle. (p.741)
A

ZENKER DIVERTICULUM

 - the diverticulum has a small neck that 
is higher than the sac; resulting in food
and liquid being trapped within the
sac. 
- the distended sac may compress the 
cervical esophagus
- symptoms include dysphagia; halitosis
and regurgitation of food.
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55
Q
\_\_\_\_\_ diverticula which 
originate on the anterolateral 
wall of the proximal cervical 
esophagus in a gap just below 
the cricopharyngeus and lateral
to the longitudinal tendon 
of the esophagus (i.e. the Killian-
Jamieson space). (p.741)
A

KILIAN-JAMIESON DIVERTICULA

- less common and considerably smaller
than Zenker diverticulum and appear on
pharyngoesophagography as persistent
left-sided or; less frequently; bilateral 
outpouchings from the proximal cervical
esophagus below the cricopharyngeus.
  • less likely to cause symptoms
    and are less likely to be associated with
    overflow aspiration or gastroesophageal
    reflux than is Zenker Diverticulum
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56
Q

Midesophageal diverticula
may be ___ or ___ diverticula.
(p.742)

A

PULSION or TRACTION DIVERTICULA

  • midesophageal diverticula have large
    mouths; empty well and are usually
    asymptomatic
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57
Q

____ diverticula occur as a result
of disordered esophageal
peristalsis. (p.742)

A

PULSION DIVERTICULA

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58
Q
\_\_\_\_ diverticula occur because of
fibrous inflammatory reactions
of adjacent lymph nodes and 
contain all esophageal layers.
(p.742)
A

TRACTION DIVERTICULA

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59
Q

_____ diverticula occur just above
the LES; usually on the right side.
They are rare and usually found
with esophageal motility disorders.

  • because of a small neck;
    higher than the sac; they may trap
    food and liquids and cause symptoms
    (p.742)
A

EPIPHRENIC DIVERTICULA

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60
Q

____ are small outpouchings
of the esophagus that
usually occur as a sequela of
severe esophagitis. (p.742)

A

SACCULATIONS

- thought to result from the healing
and scarring of ulcerations
- tend to change in size and shape
during fluoroscopic observation
- smooth contours help to differentiate
sacculations from ulcerations
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61
Q
\_\_\_\_\_ are the dilated excretory 
ducts of deep mucous glands of
the esophagus. 
- they appear as flask-shaped 
barium collections that extend 
from the lumen or as lines 
and flecks of barium outside the 
esophageal wall. (p.742)
A

INTRAMURAL PSEUDODIVERTICULA

- tend to occur in clusters and in 
association with strictures. 
- linear tracks of barium ("intramural
tracking") commonly bridge adjacent 
pseudodiverticula.
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62
Q

7 radiographic signs of

ESOPHAGITIS (p.743)

A
1. Thickened esophageal folds
(>3 mm)
2. Limited esophageal distensibility
(asymmetric flattening)
3. Abnormal motility
4. Mucosal plaques and nodules
5. Erosions and ulcerations
6. Localized stricture
7. Intramural pseudodiverticulosis
(barium filling of dilated 1 to 3 mm
submucosal glands)
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63
Q

____ are a hallmark finding of

esophagitis. (p. 743)

A

ULCERS

  • CT usually reveals non-specific findings
    of :
    1. thickening of the wall (>5 mm)
    2. target sign with hypoattenuating thickened wall
    and high attenuating enhancing mucosa
64
Q
SMALL ULCERS (< 1 cm) are found
with \_\_\_\_\_(give 5). (p.743)
A
  1. reflux esophagitis
  2. herpes
  3. acute radiation
  4. drug-induced esophagitis; and
  5. benign mucous membrane pemphigoid
65
Q
LARGER ULCERS (>1 cm) are 
characteristic of \_\_\_. (give 4).
(p. 743)
A
  1. CYTOMEGALOVIRUS
  2. HIV
  3. BARETT ESOPHAGUS
  4. CARCINOMA
66
Q

____ is the result of esophageal
mucosal injury owing to exposure
to gastroduodenal secretions.
(p.743)

A

REFLUX ESOPHAGITIS

  • severity depends on the concentration
    of the caustic agent and duration of the
    contact with the esophageal mucosa.
67
Q

The findings of reflux esophagitis
is always most prominent in the
___ and _____. (p.743)

A

DISTAL ESOPHAGUS and GEJ

68
Q
Early changes of REFLUX
ESOPHAGITIS include \_\_\_\_;
 which is manifest as granular or 
nodular pattern of the distal
esophagus. (p.743)
A

MUCOSAL EDEMA

69
Q
TRUE OR FALSE.
In contrast to the distinct borders 
of Candida plaques and nodules; 
REFLUX ESOPHAGITIS nodules
have poorly defined borders.
A

TRUE

70
Q

Inflammatory exudates and
pseudomembrane formation
may mimic fulminant ____
esophagitis. (p.743)

  • patient has symptoms of reflux
    rather than severe odynophagia.
A

CANDIDA esophagitis

71
Q

____ is the most common cause

of esophageal ulcerations. (p.743)

A

REFLUX ESOPHAGITIS

  • ulcers appear as discrete linear;
    punctate;or irregular collections of
    barium; usually surrounded by a
    radiolucent mound of edema. (p.743)
72
Q
TRUE OR FALSE.
Prominence of ulcerations in the
DISTAL rather than proximal 
or midesophagus is the key to
differentiating reflux esophagitis
ulcers from those of herpes
or drug-induced esophagitis.
(p.743)
A

TRUE

73
Q

4 Complications of reflux

esophagitis. (p.743)

A
  1. Ulceration
  2. Bleeding
  3. Stricture
  4. Barett esophagus
74
Q
\_\_\_\_ is an acquired condition
of progressive columnar 
metaplasia of the distal 
esophagus caused by chronic
gastroesophageal reflux.
A

BARRETT ESOPHAGUS

- Columnar rather than squamous
epithelium lines the distal esophagus.
- PREMALIGNANT; with 30 ro 40-times
increased risk of developing 
adenocarcinoma; resulting in a 15% 
prevalence of adenocarcinoma in patients
with Barrett esophagus. 
- AdenoCA may develop at any age
75
Q
The prevalence of Barrett 
Esophagus in patients with RE
is about \_\_%; but increases
 to \_\_ % in patients with 
scleroderma. (p.743)
A

BARRETT ESOPHAGUS prevalence:
10 % (RE)
37% (Scleroderma)

76
Q

The characteristic radiographic
appeaerance of BARRETT
ESOPHAGUS is a ___.
(p.743)

A

HIGH (MIDESOPHAGEAL) STRICTURE
OR DEEP ULCER IN A PATIENT WITH
GERD

 - a reticular mucosal pattern of the 
esophageal mucosa; resembling 
areae gastricae of the stomach;
is also suggestive. 
- the diagnosis is confirmed by 
endoscopy and biopsy
77
Q

___ esophagitis is found most
commonly in patients with
compromised immune system.
(p.743)

A

INFECTIOUS esophagitis

  • increasingly common because of the
    use of steroids and cytotoxic drugs
    and because of the increasing
    prevalence of AIDS
78
Q

____ is by far th most common
cause of infectious esophagitis
and is highly prevalent in patients
with AIDS. (p.744)

A

CANDIDA ALBICANS

  • additional risk factors include
    malignancy; radiation; chemotherapy
    and steroid treatments.
79
Q

Candida of the oropharynx

p.744

A

THRUSH

  • odynophagia is a prominent symptom
  • discrete plaque-like lesions demonstrated
    by double-contrast esophagrams are most
    characteristic
  • plaques appear as longitudinally oriented
    linear or irregular discrete filling defects
    etched in white with intervening normal-
    appearing mucosa.
  • the lesions may be tiny and nodular or giant
    and coalescent with pseudomembranes
  • ulcers tend to be small (<1 cm) and may
    be punctate; round; oval or linear.
  • fulminant disease produces the “foamy
    esophagus” with a pattern of tiny bubbles
    at the top of the barium column
80
Q

____ esophagitis begins as
discrete vesicles that rupture to
to form discrete mucosal ulcers.
(p.744)

A

HERPES SIMPLEX ESOPHAGITIS

  • ulcers may be linear; punctate or
    ring-like and have a characteristic
    radiolucent halo.
81
Q

Discrete ulcers on a background
of normal mucosa involvong
the midesophagus are most
characteristic of ____. (p. 744)

A

HERPES

  • nodules and plaques are
    usually absent
82
Q

___ is cause of fulminant
esophagitis in patients with
AIDS. (p.744)

A

CYTOMEGALOVIRUS

- CMV esophagitis is is characteristically
manifest as one or more large; flat 
mucosal ulcers
- endoscopic biopsy or culture confirms
the diagnosis
83
Q

____ esophagitis causes giant
ulcers and severe odynophagia.
(p.744)

A

HIV esophagitis

  • the ulcers are large; flat and usually
    in the midesophagus
84
Q

The ___ is the least common
portion of the GI tract to be
involved by tuberculosis.
(p.744)

A

ESOPHAGUS

  • manifestations of esophageal TB:
    ulceration; stricture; sinus tract and
    abscess formation
85
Q
\_\_\_\_ esophagitis is the result 
of intake of oral medications
 that produce a focal 
inflammation in areas of contact
with mucosa. (p.744)
A

DRUG-INDUCED ESOPHAGITIS

  • drugs that cause this condition include:
    tetracycline; doxycyclne; quinidine;
    aspirin; indomethacin; ascorbic acid;
    potassium chloride and theophylline.
  • radiographic appearance may be
    identical to herpes esophagitis;
    with discrete ulcers separated by
    normal mucosa in the midesophagus.
  • history is suggested by a history of
    recent drug ingestion
86
Q

Healing of drugi-induced
esophagitis occurs within
__ to __ days of discontinuing
the offending medication. (p.744)

A

7 to 10 days

87
Q

____ ingestion usually occurs
as an accident in children or a
suicide attempt in adults.
(p.744)

A

CORROSIVE ingestion

  • alkaline agents (liquid lye)
    produce deep (full thickness)
    coagulation necrosis.
  • acid agents tend to produce
    more superficial injury
  • ulceration; esophageal
    perforation and mediastinitis
    may complicate the acute
    injury.
  • late complications are fibrosis long
    or multiple strictures
88
Q

___ may rarely manifest as
discrete apthous ulcers in the
esophagus. (p.744)

A

CROHN DISEASE

  • involvement of the small
    or large bowel by CROHN DISEASE
    is virtually always present.
89
Q
TRUE OR FALSE. 
Crohn disease of the esophagus
should not be considered unless
Crohn disease of the bowel is 
already evident. (p.744)
A

TRUE

90
Q

____ esophagitis occurs in
patients with a history of
thoracic radiation therapy
for malignant disease. (p.745)

A

RADIATION ESOPHAGITIS

- acute radiation may cause shallow
or deep ulcers in the area of 
involvement.
- with the development of fibrosis;
the peristaltic wave is interrrupted
and a long smooth stricture may develop
within the radiotherapy field. 
- UGI shows a variable length segment of 
esophageal narrowing multiple discrete
ulcers or a granular mucosal pattern 
within the radiation field.
91
Q

Higher radiation dose in the
range of ___ to ____ R
is associated with development
of strictures. (p.745)

A

4500 to 6000 R

- simultaneous radiotherapy
and doxorubicin hydrochloride
(Adriamycin) chemotherapy
greatly accentuates esophageal
inflammation.
92
Q

__ defined as any persistent
intrinsic narrowing of the
esophagus. (p.745)

A

STRICTURES

93
Q

The most common causes of
esophageal strictures are ____.
(p.745)

A

FIBROSIS induced by INFLAMMATION
AND NEOPLASM

  • because radiographic findings are not
    reliable in differentiating benign from
    malignant strictures; all should be
    evaluated endoscopically.
94
Q

DISTAL ESOPHAGEAL
STRICTURES are caused by
__ (give 3). (p.745)

A
  1. GERD
  2. SCLERODERMA
  3. PROLONGED NASOGASTRIC
    INTUBATION
95
Q

UPPER AND MID-ESOPHAGEAL
STRICTURES most commonly
results from ____ (give 4).
(p.745)

A
  1. BARRETT ESOPHAGUS
  2. MEDIASTINAL RADIATION
  3. CAUSTIC INGESTION
  4. SKIN DISEASES associated with
    mucosal ulceration such as pemphigoid;
    erythema multiforme and epidermolysis
    bullosa dystrophica
96
Q

BENIGN vs MALIGNANT
ESOPHGEAL STRICTURES
(p.745)

A

BENIGN STRICTURES
- typically show smoothly tapering
concentric narrowing

MALIGNANT STRICTURES
- are characteristically abrupt; 
assymetric; eccentric narrowings
with irregular; nodular mucosa
- tapered margins may occur because
of the ease of submucosal spread
of tumor
97
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
Acute and chronic findings of
esophagitis commonly overlap.
(p.745)

A

TRUE

  • Chronic inflammation induces
    progressive firbrosis that eventually
    narrows the esophageal lumen
98
Q

___ (____) is the most common
cause of esophageal stricture.
(p.745)

A

REFLUX ESOPHAGITIS (GERD)

- reflux strictures are usually confined 
to the DISTAL ESOPHAGUS
- may be tapered; smooth and 
circumferential (the classic appearance)
or assymetric and irregular
- small smooth sacculations and fixed
transverse folds are characteristic and 
caused by scarring.
99
Q

Long segment esophageal
stricture may be induced by
long-term_____ . (p.745)

A

long-term NASOGASTRIC INTUBATION

- nasogastric tubes prevents closure 
of the LES; resulting in continuous
bathing of the distal esophagus with 
acid reflux from the stomach
- Zollinger-Ellison syndrome can lead
 to severe reflux esophagitis because
of the high acid content of refluxed
gastric contents.
100
Q
A \_\_\_\_\_ is pathologic ring-like
esophageal stricture at the 
level of the B ring; 
caused by reflux esophagitis.
(p.745)
A

SCHATZKI RING

101
Q
TRUE OR FALSE.
BARRETT ESOPHAGUS strictures
tend to be high in the 
midesophagus and may be
smooth and tapered or ring-like
narrowings. (p.745)
A

TRUE

- the high position is because of a 
tendency for strictures to occur at the 
squamocolumnar junction; which has 
been displaced to a position well 
above the GEJ
102
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
CORROSIVE STRICTURE are long
and symmetrical. They commonly develop years
after the initial injury. (p.745)

A

TRUE

103
Q

___ esophagitis may occur
in patients who have undergone
partial or total gastrectomy. (p.745)

A

ALKALINE REFLUX ESOPHAGITIS

- reflux of bile or pancreatic secretions
into the esophagus results in the 
development of severe alkalkine reflux
esophagitis and distal esophageal
strictures whose length and severity
increase rapidly over a short period of
time.
104
Q
Performing a \_\_ reconstruction
at the time of surgery helps
prevent reflux of bile and 
pancreatic secretion into the 
esophagus. (p.745)
A

ROUX-EN-Y reconstruction

105
Q
TRUE OR FALSE.
An alkaline reflux stricture
 should be suspected when 
barium examination performed 
in patients who have undergone
partial or total gastrectomy or 
gastrojejunostomy reveals a 
long stricture in the distal 
esophagus. (p.745)
A

TRUE

106
Q
\_\_\_ esophagitis is an 
increasingly common diagnosis
made most often in young men
with a history of allergies. 
(p.745-746)
A

EOSINOPHILIC ESOPHAGITIS

- some have a peripheral 
eosinophilia
- patients present with a long-
standing history of dysphagia 
and food impaction
107
Q
DIAGNOSIS?
Barium studies demonstrate
smooth long-segment 
narrowing of the esophagus 
or a series of ring-like strictures; 
called the "RINGED ESOPHAGUS"
(P.746)
A

EOSINOPHILIC ESOPHAGITIS

- biopsy reveal eosinophilic infiltration
of the wall of the esophagus
- the cause may be related to ingested
food allergens
- treatment is STEROIDS
108
Q
Radiation strictures are 
confined to the radiotherapy
field. They are smooth and 
tapered and usually in the 
\_\_\_ or \_\_\_ -esophagus. (p.746)
A

UPPER or MID-ESOPHAGUS

109
Q
An irregular; ulcerated;
circumferential narrowing with
nodular shoulders is most
typical of \_\_\_  esophageal 
stricture. (p.746)
A

MALIGNANT stricture (esophageal)

- infiltrative tumors may cause smooth;
rigid narrowing of the esophagus without
a clear zone of transition
- the mucosa may not be altered 
until tumor spread is substantial
110
Q
TRUE OR FALSE. 
Because longitudinal spread
of tumor along the length
of the esophagus is typical;
long-segment strictures caused
by carcinoma are common. 
(p.746)
A

TRUE

111
Q

___ are thin (1 to 2 mm);
delicate membranes that
sweep partially across the
esophageal lumen. (p.746)

A

ESOPHAGEAL WEBS

 - they occur in both the pharynx
esophagus and are commonly 
multiple. 
- most are incidental findings;
however; they occasionally cause
sufficient obstruction to result in
dysphasia.
112
Q

Pharyngeal webs arise most
commonly from the ____ wall
of the hypopharynx. (p.746)

A

ANTERIOR wall of the hypopharynx

113
Q

Esophageal webs may occur
anywhere; but they are most
common in the _____. (p.746)

A

CERVICAL ESOPHAGUS just distal

to the cricopharyngeus impression

114
Q
TRUE OR FALSE.
Malignancy or inflammation
in the mediastinum may 
encase the esophagus and 
narrow its lumen.  (p.746)
A

TRUE

- causes of esophageal extrinsic
compression include Lung CA;
Lymphoma; metastatsis to 
mediastinal nodes; TB and 
histoplasmosis.
115
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
Thick folds occur most commonly
with reflux esophagitis. (p.746)

A

TRUE

  • additional findings associated with
    esophagitis ; such as ulcerations and nodules; are commonly present.
116
Q
\_\_\_ appear as serpiginous filling
defects that change in size with 
changes in intrathoracic pressure and that 
collapse with esophageal 
peristalsis distension. (p.746)
A

ESOPHAGEAL VARICES

117
Q

Esophageal varices are best
best demonstrated on UGI
with ___ views. (p.746)

A

MUCOSAL REFIEF VIEWS.

118
Q
TRUE OR FALSE.
CT with bolus contrast
enhancement demonstrates
varices as enhancing vascular 
structures within and adjacent 
to esophageal wall near the GEJ.
(p.746)
A

TRUE

  • MR is also effective in demonstrating
    varices as vascular spaces; with signal
    void because of flowing blood.
119
Q

___ varices refer to the porto-
systemic veins that enlarge
because of portal HTN. (p.746)

A

UPHILL VARICES

  • coronary vein collaterals connect
    with gastroesophageal varices that
    drain into the inferior vena cava through
    the azygos system. (p.746)
120
Q

Uphill varices are usually only
present in the ___ esophagus.
(p.746)

A

DISTAL esophagus

121
Q
\_\_\_ varices are formed as a 
result of obstruction of the 
superior vena cava with 
drainage from the azygous 
system through esophageal 
varices to the portal vein. 
(p.748)
A

DOWNHILL VARICES

122
Q

Downhill varices usually
predominate in the ____
esophagus. (p.748)

A

PROXIMAL esophagus

123
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
Lymphoma may infiltrate the
submucosa and thicken the
folds. (p.748)

A

TRUE

- lymphoma rarely involves the
esophagus directly and is virtually
never primary in the esophagus.
p.748

124
Q

___carcinoma causes thick;
tortuous; longitudinal folds
that resemble varices but
are rigid and persistent. (p.748)

A

VARICOID carcinoma

125
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
Pharyngeal carcinoma are well
demonstrated by double
contrast pharyngography. (p.748)

A

TRUE

126
Q
DIAGNOSIS? (pharynx)
Radiographic signs include:
1. intraluminal mass seen as 
a filling defect; abnormal 
luminal contour; or focal 
increased density.
2. mucosal irregularity
 owing to ulceration or 
mucosal elevations
3. asymmetrical distensibility
due to infiltrating tumor or 
extrinsic nodal mass.
A

PHARYNGEAL CARCINOMA

127
Q
Most pharyngeal tumors are
\_\_\_\_\_ that may arise on the 
base of the tongue; palatine
tonsil; posterior pharyngeal
wall or the piriform sinus. (p.748)
A

SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMAS

  • LARYNGEAL tumors may impress
    on the pharynx or extend into it.
  • Staging is best performed by
    CT or MR.
128
Q

____ are benign lesions that
typically involve the valleculae
and should not be mistaken for
phargyngeal neoplasms.(p.748)

  • arise from dilatation of mucus
    glands caused by chronic inflammation.
A

PHARYNGEAL RETENTION CYSTS

  • appear as small; smooth; well-defined;
    round or oval-filling defects best
    appreciated on frontal views.
  • they are NEVER MALIGNANT.
129
Q

____ usually manifest as a large;
bulky tumor of the lingual or
palatine tonsils. (p.748)

A

LYMPHOMA OF THE PHARYNX

  • Lymphoma constitutes 15% or
    oropharyngeal tumors
130
Q
TRUE OR FALSE. 
Esophageal CA is squamous
cell CA in 85% to 90% of cases;
and the remainder are 
adenoCA arising in Barrett
esophagus.; undifferentiated;
or miscellaneous cell types.
(p.748)
A

TRUE

- because of rapid spread to adjacent
structures; esophageal CA is deadly;
with a 5-year survival of only 5% for 
advanced disease.
- early stage disease treated surgically
has a 5-year survival of 50% to 80%.
131
Q

4 basic radiographic patterns of

ESOPHAGEAL CA. (p.748)

A
1. ANNULAR CONSTRICTING LESION;
appearing as an irregular ulcerated
stricture (MOST COMMON)
2. POLYPOID PATTERN causes 
an intraluminal filling defect
3. INFILTRATIVE VARIETY 
grows predominantly in the submucosa
and may simulate a benign stricture
4. ULCERATED MASS (LEAST COMMON)
132
Q
Give 4 risk factors for 
ESOPHAGEAL CA (p.748)
A
  1. CIGARETTE SMOKING
  2. ALCOHOL ABUSE
  3. CORROSIVE INGESTION
  4. CARCINOMA OF THE HEAD
    AND NECK

-typical patient is a 65 year old man

133
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
Esophageal CA tumor spreads
quickly by direct invasion into
the adjacent tissues. (p.748)

A

TRUE

- because of the lack of a serosal 
covering on the esophagus.
- Lymphatic spread may go to nodes 
in the neck; mediastinum; or below 
the diaphgragm; depending on the location
of the primary tumor in the esophagus.
134
Q

Hematogeneous spread of
Esophageal CA is to __; __ and
___. (p.748)

A
  1. LUNG
  2. LIVER
  3. ADRENAL GLAND
135
Q
TRUE OR FALSE.
CT and endosopic US are used 
primarily to define the extent of 
disease and determine surgical 
resectability of esophageal CA. 
(p.748)
A

TRUE

- findings include irregular thickening
of the esophageal wall (>5mm);
eccentric narrowing of the lumen;
dilation of the esophagus above the 
area of narrowing; invasion of 
periesophageal tissues; and 
metastases to mediastinal
lymph nodes and the liver.
- obliteration of the fat space 
between the aorta; esophagus;
and vertebral body is highly 
predictive of invasion of the 
aorta.
136
Q
TRUE OR FALSE.
GASTRIC ADENOCA spreads 
from the fundus  and GEJ 
into the distal esophagus. 
(p.748)
A

TRUE

  • AdenoCA of the distal esophagus
    may be either primary gastric or
    primary esophageal ; arising in
    Barrett esophagus.
137
Q
\_\_\_; while; is still the most 
common benign neoplasm of 
the esophagus; accounting for 
50% of all benign esophageal 
neoplasms. (p.748)
A

LEIOMYOMA

- the tumor is firm; well-encapsulated
and arises in the wall. 
- Ulceration is rare.
- Most cause no symptoms
and are discovered incidentally.
- Men aged 25 to 35 years are 
affected most commonly 
(male-to-female ratio=2:1)
138
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
GI stromal tumor (GISTs)
(748-749)
are RARE in the esophagus.

A

TRUE

139
Q
TRUE OR FALSE.
LEIOMYOSARCOMA of the 
Esophagus is exceedingly rare;
accounting for less than 1% 
of the esophageal malignancy.
(p.749)
A

TRUE

140
Q

TRUE OR FALSE.
Fibroepithelial or fibrovascular
polyps are a rare cause of
esophageal filling defect. (p.749)

A

TRUE

  • They appear as a large ovoid or
    elongated intraluminal masses in the
    upper esophagus.
141
Q
\_\_\_ cysts are congenital 
abnormalities that are usually
incidental findings presenting
without symptoms. 
- most (60%) occur in the LOWER
ESOPHAGUS. (p.749)
A

ESOPHAGEAL DUPLICATION CYSTS

  • CT shows a well-defined cystic mass
  • Barium examination will show
    extrinsic or intramural compression
    due to close contact with the esophagus.
  • differential diagnosis include
    bronchogenic and neurenteric
    cyst
142
Q

3 extrinsic lesions that may
invade the esophagus or
simulate an esophageal mass
or filling defect. (p.749)

A
  1. Mediastinal adenopathy
  2. Lung CA
  3. Vascular structures
143
Q

___ artery which arises from the
aorta distal to the left
subclavian artery. (p.749)

  • to reach its destination; it must
    cross the mediastinum
    behind the esophagus.
A

ABERRANT RIGHT SUBCLAVIAN artery

  • it causes a characteristic upward-
    slanting linear filling defect on the
    posterior aspect of the esophagus.
144
Q

More than half of ESOPHAGEAL
PERFORATION cases are related to
______. (p.749)

A

ESOPHAGEAL INSTRUMENTATION

- bleeding can be profuse and infection
is a great risk in esophageal perforations
- conventional radiographs demonstrate
subcutaneous; cervical or mediastinal
emphysema within 1 hour of perforation
- chest radiographs may show widened
mediastinum and pleural effusion or 
hydropneumothorax.
145
Q

Key imaging finding in the
diagnosis of ESOPHAGEAL
PERFORATION. (p.750)

A

FOCAL OR DIFFUSE EXTRAVASATION
OF CONTRAST OUTSIDE THE ESOPHAGUS

  • CT demonstrates fluid collections;
    extraluminal contrast and air in the
    mediastinum. (p.750)
146
Q
TRUE OR FALSE.
Blunt trauma may tear the 
esophagus by an explosive 
increase in intraesophageal 
pressure. (p.750)
A

TRUE

147
Q

____ syndrome refers to the
rupture of the esophagus wall
as a result of forceful vomiting.
(p.750)

A

BOERHAAVE syndrome

- the tear is virtually always in the 
LEFT POSTERIOR WALL near the left
crus of the diaphragm
- esophageal contents usually escape
into the left pleural space or into the 
potential space between the parietal
pleura and the left crus.
- tears may result in intramural
dissections and hematomas in the
wall of the esophagus.
148
Q

_____ tear involves only the
MUCOSA and not the full
thickness of the esophagus.
(p.750)

A

MALLORY-WEISS TEAR

- endoscopy usually identifies
the lesion
- the lesion is commonly missed
on UGI. 
- when seen; the tear appears
as a longitudinally oriented barium
collections; 1 to 4 cm in length;
in the distal esophagus.
- it may be a cause of 
copious hematemesis.
149
Q

Mallory-Weiss tears are usually

caused by ____. (p.750)

A

VIOLENT RETCHING

150
Q
TRUE OR FALSE.
Foreign body impaction 
in adults is usually attributable 
to bones or boluses of meat. 
(p.750)
A

TRUE

  • childeren may ingest any foreign
    object including toys, coins and
    jewelry.
151
Q

IN FOREGN BODY IMPACTION:
Bones usually lodge in the
____; most often near the
_____ muscle. (p.750)

A

PHARYNX; CRICOPHARYNGEUS

muscle.

152
Q

IN FOREGN BODY IMPACTION:
Meat impacts in the ____ or
___ esophagus (p.750)

A

DISTAL or MIDESOPHAGUS

153
Q
IN FOREGN BODY IMPACTION:
Perforation occurs in only
1% of cases, but the risk
increases if impaction
persists of more than
\_\_ hours. (p.750)
A

MORE THAN 24 HOURS

154
Q
TRUE OR FALSE. 
Bones in the pharynx are 
difficult to differentiate from 
calcification of the thyroid and 
cricoid cartilages. (p750)
A

TRUE

155
Q

Contrast studies show
nonopaque foreign bodies as
___. (p750)

A

FILLING DEFECTS

- impacted foreign bodies may be 
removed by use of a Foley balloon
catheter or wire basket or by gaseous
distention of the esophagus with gas-
producing crystals.
- CT demonstates the nature of the
foreign body and frequently any 
associated pathology that 
predisposed to impaction. 
(p.751)
156
Q

UGI and CT findings in LEIOMYOMA (p.749)

A
UGI: most appear as smooth; well-defined
wall lesions; although rarely they may
be pedunculated or polypoid. 
- coarse calcifications are occasionally
present and strongly indicative of 
leiomyoma

CT: demonstrates a smooth; well-defined
mass of uniform soft tissue density.
The esophageal wall is eccentrically
thickened.