Chapter 24 - Breast Flashcards
1
Q
Estrogen leads to what part of breast development?
A
Duct (double layer of columnar cells)
2
Q
Progesterone leads to what part of breast development?
A
Lobular development
3
Q
Prolactin has what effect on breast development?
A
Synergizes esterogen and progesterone
4
Q
Estrogen causes what cyclic change in the breast?
A
Increased breast swelling, growth of glandular tissue
5
Q
Progesterone causes what cyclic change in the breast?
A
Increased maturation of glandular tissue; withdrawal causes menses
6
Q
What cyclic change is caused by LH, FHS surge?
A
Causes ovum release
7
Q
Long thoracic nerve innervates what? Injury results in what?
A
Serratus anterior; winged scapula
8
Q
Thoracodorsal nerve innervates what? Injury causes what?
A
Latissimus dorsi; weak arm pull-ups and adduction
9
Q
What artery goes to the serratus anterior?
A
Lateral thoracic artery
10
Q
What artery goes to latissimus dorsi?
A
Thoracodorsal artery
11
Q
Medial pectoral nerve innervates what?
A
Pectoralis major and minor
12
Q
Lateral pectoral nerve innervates what?
A
Pectoralis major only
13
Q
Intercostobrachial nerve comes from where? Innervates what?
A
From lateral cutaneous branch of the 2nd intercostal nerve; sensation to medial arm and axilla
14
Q
Branches of what arteries supply the breast?
A
Internal thoracic artery, intercostal arteries, thoracoacromial artery, lateral tthoracic artery
15
Q
Batson’s plexus allows what to happen in breast cancer?
A
Valveless vein plexus that allows direct hematogenous mets to spine
16
Q
What does primary axillary adenopathy indicate?
A
1 lymphoma
17
Q
Positive supraclavicular nodes indicate what stage disease?
A
M1
18
Q
Most common bacteria in breast abscess?
A
S. aureus, strep; associated with breast feeding
19
Q
Treatment for abscesses?
A
I&D, d/c breast feeding; ice, heat, pump, antibiotics
20
Q
Most common bacteria in infectious mastitis?
A
S. aureus; in nonlactating women can be due to chronic inflammatory diseases (actinomyces, TB, syphilis)
21
Q
Workup for infectious mastitis?
A
Need to rule out necrotic cancer; incisional biopsy including skin
22
Q
What is periductal mastitis?
A
Mammary duct ectasia or plasma cell mastitis; dilated mammary ducts, inspissated secretions, marked periductal inflammation
23
Q
Symptoms of periductal mastitis?
A
Noncyclical mastodynia, nipple retraction, creamy discharge from nipple; can have sterile subareolar abscess; pts with difficulty breast feeding
24
Q
Treatment for periductal mastitis?
A
Reassure if discharge is creamy, non bloody and not associated with nipple retraction; otherwise r/o cancer
25
What is a galactocele?
Breast cysts filled with milk; occurs with breast feeding
26
Treatment for galactocele?
Aspiration to I&D
27
What is galactorrhea caused by?
High prolactin (pituitary prolactinoma), OCPs, TCAs, phenothiazines, metoclopramide, alpha-methyl dopa, reserpine
28
What is gynecomastia? Caused by?
2cm pinch (ouch); cimetidine, spironolactone, marijuana, idiopathic
29
What is the cause of neonatal breast enlargement?
Due to circulating maternal estrogens; will regress
30
Most common location for accessory breast tissue?
Axilla
31
What is the most common breast abnormality?
Accessory nipples
32
What is Poland's syndrome?
Hypoplasia of chest wall, amastia, hypoplastic shoulder, no pectoralis muscle
33
Workup for mastodynia?
Pain in breast; rarely represents breast CA; H&P and bilateral mammogram
34
Treatment for mastodynia?
Danazol, OCPs, NSAIDs, evening primrose oil, bromocriptine
35
What is cyclic mastodynia most commonly caused by?
Fibrocystic diseased
36
What is continuous mastodynia caused by?
Most commonly acute or subacute infection
37
What is Mondor's disease?
Superficial vein thrombophlebitis of breast; cordlike, can be painful
38
What is Mondor's associated with? Treatment?
Trauma and strenuous exercise; NSAIDs
39
Symptoms of fibrocystic disease?
Breast pain, nipple discharge (uncommon, yellow to brown), masses, lumpy breast tissue that varies with hormonal cycle
40
How can sclerosing adenosis present?
Cluster of calcifications on mammogram without mass or pain
41
How is sclerosing adenosis differentiated from breast CA?
By regularity of nuclei and absence of mitoses
42
Risk factors for benign breast disease?
Early menarche, late menopause, small breast size, normal or low body weight, h/o cyclic breast discomfort, irregular menses, h/o spontaneous abortions, postmenopausal status
43
Most common cause of bloody discharge from nipple?
Intraductal papilloma
44
Malignancy risk with intraductal papilloma?
NOT premalignant
45
Treatment of intraductal papilloma?
Resection (subareolar resection curative)
46
What is the most common breast lesion in adolescents and young women?
Fibroadenoma
47
Characteristics of fibroadenoma?
Painless, slow growing, well cicumscribed, firm and rubbery; change size in pregnancy; grows to several cm in size then stop
48
Pathology of fibroadenoma? Mammography findings?
Prominent fibrous tissue compressing epithelial cells; popcorn lesions (large, coarse calcifications)
49
Work up of nipple discharge?
H&P, bilateral mammogram
50
What is green discharge due to? What is the treatment?
Fibrocystic disease; if cyclical and nonspontaneous, reassure patient
51
What is bloody discharge due to? Treatment?
Most commonly intraductal papilloma, occasionally ductal CA; galactogram and excision of that ductal area
52
What is serous discharge due to? Treatment?
Worrisome for cancer; excisional biopsy of that ductal area
53
What is spontaneous discharge due to? Treatment?
Worrisome for cancer no matter what color or consistency; biopsy in area of duct
54
What is nonspontaneous discharge due to? Treatment
Pressure, tight garments, exercise; not as worrisome, however still need biopsy
55
Characteristics of diffuse papillomatosis? Risk of cancer?
Multiple ducts of both breasts, larger when solitary, serous discharge; increased risk of cancer (40%)
56
Mammogram findings of diffuse papillomatosis?
Swiss cheese appearance
57
Definition of ductal carcinoma in situ?
Malignant cells of ductal epithelium without invasion of the basement membrane
58
% risk of cancer with DCIS?
50-60% get cancer if not resected; 5-10% will get cancer in contralateral breast
59
Mammogram findings with DICS?
Usually not palpable; cluster of calcifications on mammography
60
Margins needed with excision of DCIS?
2-3mm
61
Patterns of DCIS?
Solid, cribriform, papillary, comedo
62
What is the most aggressive subtype of DCIS?
Comedo pattern; with necrotic areas; high risk fro multicentricity, microinvasion, recurrence
63
What characteristics increase the recurrence risk following excision of DCIS?
Comedo type, lesions >2.5cm
64
Treatment for DCIS?
Lumpectomy and XRT, ?tamoxifen; simple mastectomy if high grade, if large tumor not amenable to lumpectomy or not able to et good margins; NO ALND
65
Cancer risk with lobular carcinoma in situ?
40% get cancer (either breast)
66
Is LCIS premalignant?
NO, considered a marker for the development of breast CA; do NOT need negative margins
67
What type of breast CA do patients with LCIS develop?
More likely to develop ductal CA (70%)
68
% risk of having synchronous breast CA at the time of diagnosis of LCIS?
5%
69
Treatment for LCIS?
Nothing, tamoxifen, bilateral subutaneous mastectomy (NO ALND)
70
What country has the lowest rate of breast cancer worldwide?
Japan
71
Lifetime risk of breast cancer?
1 in 8 women (12%); 4-5% in women with no risk factors
72
What % will screening decrease mortality of breast cancer by?
25%
73
Median survival of untreated breast cancer?
2-3y
74
Clinical features of breast CA?
Distortion of normal breast architecture, skin/nipple distortion or retraction, hard, tethered, indistinct borders
75
Workup for symptomatic breast mass in pt <30y?
US: if solid - FNA; excisional biopsy if FNA is nondiagnostic
76
Workup of symptomatic breast mass in patient 30-50y?
Bilateral mammograms and FNA; excisional biopsy if FNA nondiagnostic
77
Workup of symptomatic breast mass in pt >50y?
Bilateral mammograms and excisional or core needle biopsy
78
Workup for cyst?
If fluid bloody: cyst excisional biopsy; clear and recurs, cyst excisional biopsy; complex, cyst excisional biopsy
79
What is the sensitivity/specificity of mammography?
90%; sensitivity increases with age as the dense parenchymal tissue is replaced with fat
80
Size of tumor that is able to be detected by mammography?
>5mm
81
General screening guidelines?
Mammogram Q2-3y after 40y, yearly after 50y; high risk screening: 10y prior to youngest age of diagnosis of breast CA in 1st degree relative
82
What are the node levels of the breast?
I: lateral to pec minor, II: beneath pec minor, III: medial to pec minor; Rotter's nodes - between the pec major and minor
83
What level node needs to be sampled?
Level I
84
What is the most important prognostic factor in breast cancer?
Nodal status; also tumor size, grade, progesterone/estrogen receptor status
85
5 year survival is 0 positive nodes?
75%
86
% of nonpalpable nodes that are positive at surgery?
30%
87
5 year survival if 1-3 nodes are positive?
60%
88
5 year survival if 4-10 nodes are positive?
40%
89
What is the most common location of distant mets?
Bone
90
What characteristics of tumor have increased multicentricity?
Central and subareolar tumors
91
T staging for breast cancer?
T1: 5cm, T4: skin or chest wall involvement, peau du'orange, inflammatory cancer
92
N staging for breast cancer?
N1: ipsilateral axillary nodes, N2: fixed ipsilateral axiallary nodes, N3: ipsilateral internal mammary nodes
93
Factors that will greatly increase breast cancer risk?
BRCA gene, >2 primary relatives with bilateral or premenopausal breast CA, DCIS and LCIS, fibrocystic disease with atypical hyperplasia
94
Factors that will moderately increase risk of breast cancer?
FH of breast cancer, early menarche, late menopause, nulliparity, radiation, previous breast CA, environmental risk factor (high-fat diet, obesity)
95
How much does a 1st degree relative with bilateral, premenopausal breast cancer increase breast cancer risk?
50%
96
Other cancers associated with BRCA I?
Ovarian (50%), endometrial CA; consider TAH, bilateral oophrectomies
97
Other cancers associated with BRCA II?
Male breast cancer
98
Requisites for prophylactic mastectomy?
FH + BRCA gene, LCIS, plus one of the following: anxiety, poor access to follow up exams, difficult lesion to follow, patient preference
99
Receptor positive tumors lead to what prognosis?
Better response to hormones, chemo, surgery, and better overall prognosis
100
Which receptor-positive tumors have best prognosis?
Progesterone > estrogen; both positive with best prognosis
101
What % of breast cancers are negative for both receptors?
10%
102
What type of cancer do males usually have?
Ductal
103
Male breast cancer is associated with what?
Steroid use, previous XRT, FH, Klinefelter's syndrome, prolonged hyperestrogenic state
104
Treatment of male breast cancer?
Modified radical mastectomy
105
What % of breast CAs are ductal?
85%
106
What are the subtypes of ductal CA?
Medullary, tubular, mucinous, scirrhotic
107
Characteristics of medullary breast CA?
Smooth borders, high lymphocytes, ductal type cancer with bizarre cells; majority E+/P+, more favorable prognosis
108
Characteristics of tubular CA?
Small tubule formations, nodes + in 10%, more favorable prognosis
109
Characteristics of mucinous CA?
Colloid, produces an abundance of mucin, more favorable prognosis
110
Characteristics of scirrhotic CA?
Worse prognosis
111
Treatment for ductal CA?
MRM or lumpectomy with ALND (or SNLB); post op XRT
112
What % of breast cancers are lobular?
10%
113
Characteristics of lobular CA?
Does not form calcifications, infiltrative, inc. bilateral, multifocal and multicentric
114
Lobular cancer with signet ring cells have what prognosis?
Worse
115
Treatment for lobular CA?
MRM or lumpectomy with ALND (or SLNB); postop XRT
116
Treatment for inflammatory cancer?
May need chemo and XRT 1st, then mastectomy
117
Stage of inflammatory cancer?
Considered T4
118
Median survival of inflammatory cancer?
Very aggressive; 36mo
119
What causes the peau d'orange lymphedema of inflammatory cancer?
Dermal lymphatic invasion; erythematous and warm
120
Preoperative studies needed before breast surgery?
CXR, bilateral mammorgrams, CBC, LFTs; abdominal CT if LFTs elevated; head CT if headaches; bone scan if bone pain or inc. alk phos
121
Subcutaneous (simple) mastectomy indications?
DCIS, LCIS; NOT indicated for breast CA; leaves 1-2% of breast tissue, preserves teh nipple
122
Margins necessary with simple mastectomy?
1cm; with SLNB
123
Indications for SLNB?
Malignant tumors >1cm; NOT indicated for pts with clincallly positive nodes
124
Complications of lymphazurin blue?
Type I hypersensitivity reactions
125
What next if no SLN found during SLND?
Formal ALND
126
The sentinal node is found in what % of the time?
95%
127
Contraindications to SNLB?
Pregnancy, multicenteric disease, neoadjuvant, clinically positive nodes, prior axillary surgery, inflammatory or locally adcanced disease
128
Modified radical mastectomy includes what?
All breast tissue including the nipple areolar complex; axillary node dissection (level I)
129
Radical mastectomy includes what?
MRM and overlyting skin, pectoralis major and minor, level I, II, III lymph nodes
130
Complications of axillary lymph node dissection?
Infection, lymphedema, lymphangiosarcoma, axillary vein thrombosis, lympatic fibrosis, intercostal brachiocutaneous nerve injury
131
Signs of axillary vein thrombosis?
Sudden, early, postop swelling
132
Most commonly injured nerve after mastecomy?
Intercostal brachiocutaneous nerve; hypersthesia of inner arm and lateral chest wall
133
Radiotherapy dose for breast cancer?
5000 rad for lumpectomy and XRT
134
Complications of XRT?
Edema, erythema, rib fractures, pneumonitis, ulceration, sarcoma, contralateral breast CA
135
Contraindications of XRT?
Scleroderma, previous XRT, SLE, active RA
136
What is the chance of recurrence following lumpectomy with XRT?
10%; usually within first 2 years
137
Treatment with local recurrence?
Salvage MRM
138
Which patients get chemo?
Positive nodes (except postmenopausal women with positive estrogen receptors (tamoxifen), >1cm and negative nodes
139
By what percent does tamoxifen decrease short-term risk of breast cancer by?
50-60%
140
What is the risk of blood clots on tamoxifen?
1%
141
What is the risk of endometrial cancer in patients that are on tamoxifen?
0.1%
142
What are the symptoms of a metastatic flare? What is the treatment?
Pain, swelling, erythema in metastatic areas; XRT
143
What is occult breast cancer?
Breast-cancer that presents as axillary metastases with unknown primary
144
What percent of occult breast-cancer are found to have breast cancer at mastectomy?
70%
145
What are benign conditions that mimic breast cancer?
Radial scar, fibromatosis, granular cell tumors, fat necrosis
146
Which malignant tumors have a benign appearance; smooth rounded masses?
Mucinous cancer, medullary cancer, cystosarcoma phyllodes
147
How does Paget's disease present? What is the treatment?
Presents with scaly skin lesion on nipple; biopsy shows Paget's cells. Need modified radical mastectomy if cancer present, otherwise simple mastectomy
148
What percent of cystosarcoma phyllodes are malignant? How is the diagnosis made?
10%; based on mitoses per high-power field, resemble giant fibroadenoma, has stromal and epithelial elements
149
What is the treatment for cystosarcoma phyllodes?
Wide local excision with negative margins, no ALND
150
What is Stuart-Treves syndrome?
Lymphangiosarcoma from chronic lymphedema following axillary dissection, presents with dark purple nodule on the arm 5 to 10 years after surgery
151
What is the prognosis for a mass that presents during pregnancy?
Worse prognosis because it tends to present late
152
Treatment for breast cancer that presents during pregnancy?
First trimester: MRM; second trimester: MRM; third trimester: MRM or if late can perform lumpectomy with ALND and postpartum XRT; no chemo or radiation while pregnant, no breast-feeding after delivery
