Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Biology - Chapter 19-29 > Chapter 22 - Lympathic System & Immunity > Flashcards

Chapter 22 - Lympathic System & Immunity Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What are pathogens?

A

Disease-producing microbes

- bacteria or viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is immunity or resistance?

A

Ability to ward off damage or disease through our defenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is susceptibility?

A

Vulnerability or lack of resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the two general types of immunity?

A
  1. Innate (nonspecific immunity)

2. Adaptive (specific immunity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is innate (nonspecific) immunity?

A

Defenses that are present at birth

- acts against all microbes the same way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the components of innate (nonspecific) immunity?

A
  1. First line of defense (skin and mucous membranes)

2. Second line of defense (antimicrobial substances, natural killer cells, phagocytes, inflammation, fever)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the function of innate (nonspecific) immunity?

A
  • early warning system
  • prevent microbes from gaining access
  • help eliminate those microbes that do gain access
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is adaptive (specific) immunity?

A

Defenses that involve special recognition of a microbe

- once it has breached the innate immunity defenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does adaptive (specific) immunity involve?

A

Lymphocytes

  • a type of white blood cell
  • T cells and B cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why is adaptive (specific) immunity named the way it is?

A

Specific response for a specific microbe

- its adjusts/adapts to handle a specific microbe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the lymphatic system consist of?

A
  • lymph
  • lymphatic vessels (transport lymph)
  • structure and organs containing lymphatic tissue
  • red bone marrow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is lymph?

A

The fluid of the lymphatic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is lymphatic tissue?

A

Specialized form of reticular connective tissue

- contains a large number of lymphocytes (agranular white blood cell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What two types of lymphocytes are adaptive to immune responses?

A
  1. B cells

2. T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the three functions of the lymphatic system?

A
  1. Drains excess interstitial fluid into blood
  2. Transports dietary lipids
  3. Carries out immune responses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Generally summaries lymphatic circulation.

A

Lymph passes from lymphatic capillaries into lymphatic vessels (thin walls and more valves than veins) and then through lymph nodes (consisting of B cells & T cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the tissues that lack lymphatic capillaries?

A
  • cartilage
  • epidermis
  • cornea of the eye
  • CNS
  • portions of spleen
  • red bone marrow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How do lymphatic capillaries differ from blood capillaries?

A
  • greater permeability
  • slightly larger diameter
  • unique one-way structure (interstitial fluid)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are lacteals?

A

Specialized lymphatic capillaries, in the small intestine

- carry dietary lipids into lymphatic vessels and ultimately the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is chyle?

A

Lymph in the small intestine

- appears creamy white due to presence of lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What colour is lymph normally?

A

Clear, pale-yellow fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What happens after lymphatic vessels exit lymph nodes?

A

They unite to form lymph trunks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the five principal lymph trunks?

A
  1. Lumbar
  2. Intestinal
  3. Bronchomediastinal
  4. Subclavian
  5. Jugular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

After lymph passes from lymph trunks, where does it go?

A

Into two main channels

  • thoracic (left lymphatic) duct
  • right lymphatic duct
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the Thoracic (left lymphatic) duct?

A

THE main channels that lymph passes through before draining into venous blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the cisterna chyli?

A

A dilation where the thoracic (left lymphatic) duct begins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where does the thoracic (left lymphatic) duct receive lymph from?

A
  • left side of the head, neck, chest
  • left upper limb
  • entire body inferior to the ribs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where does the thoracic duct drain lymph into venous blood?

A

At the junction of the left internal jugular and subclavian veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Where does the right lymphatic duct receive lymph from?

A
  • right side of the head, neck, chest

- right upper limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Where does the right lymphatic duct drain lymph into venous blood?

A

At the junction of the right internal jugular and right subclavian veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How is lymph formed?

A

More fluid filters out of capillaries than returns to them be reabsorption (approx. 3 liters), so it drains into lymphatic vessels and becomes lymph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the sequence of fluid flow in the lymphatic system?

A

Blood capillaries –> interstitial spaces (interstitial fluid) –> lymphatic capillaries (lymph) –> lymphatic vessels –> lymphatic ducts –> junction of the internal jugular and sublcavian veins –> returns to blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What maintains the flow of lymph?

A
  1. Skeletal muscle pump

2. Respiratory pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How does the skeletal muscle pump aid in the flow of lymph?

A

“Milking action” of skeletal muscle contractions compresses lymphatic vessels and forces lymph toward the junction of the internal jugular and subclavian veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How does the respiratory pump aid in the flow of lymph?

A

Maintained by the pressure changes that occur during inhalation

  • lymph flows from abdominal region (high pressure) towards the thoracic region (low pressure)
  • valves prevents back-flow during exhalation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the two groups of classifications of lymphatic organs and tissues?

A
  1. Primary lymphatic organs

2. Secondary lymphatic organs and tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are primary lymphatic organs?

A

Sites where stem cells divide and become immuno-competent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What does immuno-competent mean?

A

Capable of mounting an immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the names of the primary lymphatic organs?

A
  • red bone marrow (in flat bones and epiphyses of long bones in adults)
  • thymus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What happens at the secondary lymphatic organs and tissues?

A

Sites where most immune responses occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the names of the secondary lymphatic organs and tissues?

A
  • lymph nodes
  • spleen
  • lymphatic nodules (follicles)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the function of the thymus in the lymphatic system?

A

Vital role in the training and development of T-lymphocytes (T cells)
- a type of white blood cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the route taken by lymph as it flows through a lymph node?

A

Afferent lymphatic vessel –> Subcapsular sinus –> Travecular sinus –> Medullary sinus –> Efferent lymphatic vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Approximately how many lymph nodes do we have?

A

600

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Where are the areas of the body that have a large number of lymph nodes grouped together?

A
  • Mammary glands
  • Axillae
  • Groin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is a capsule?

What does it cover?

A

Dense connevtive tissue that covers lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are trabeculae?

A

Capsule extensions

- divide the node into compartments, provide support, provide route for blood vessels into the vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is within the outer cortex of lymphatic nodes?

A

Aggregates of B cells (lymphatic nodules)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are lymphatic nodules (follicles)?

A

Small, localized collection of lymphatic tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is a primary lymphatic nodule?

A

A lymphatic nodule consisting mainly of B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the function of dendritic cells?

A

Assist in the maturation process of T cells in the thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the function of thymic macrophages?

A

Help clear out the debris of dead and dying cells

- T cells that did not manage to mature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does the inner cortex consist of?

in a lymph node

A
  • T cells

- Dendritic cells that enter a lymph node from other tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the function of a B cell?

A

A lymphocyte not processed by the thymus gland, and responsible for producing antibodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the function of a T cell?

A

A lymphocyte of a type produced or processed by the thymus gland and actively participating in the immune response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does the medulla of a lymph node consist of?

A
  • B cells
  • antibody producing plasma cells
  • macrophages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the function of afferent lymphatic vessels?

A

Contain valves that open toward the center of the node, directing lymph INWARD
- penetrate the convex surface of the node at several points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are sinuses?

lymph nodes

A

A series of irregular channels that contain branching reticular fibers, lymphocytes and macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the function of efferent lymphatic vessels?

A

Contain valve that open away from the center of the node, directing lymph AWAY from the node
- wider and fewer in number than afferent vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is a hilum?

A

A slight depression where efferent lymphatic vessels emerge from one side of the lymph node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the single largest mass of lymphatic tissue in the body?

A

Spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What two kinds of tissue does the spleen consist of?

A
  1. White pulp

2. Red pulp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is white pulp?

A

Lymphatic tissue of the spleen

- mostly lymphocytes and marcrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is red pulp?

A

Blood-filled venous sinuses and cords of splenic tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the function of red pulp as related to blood cells?

A
  1. Removal by macrophages of ruptured, worn-out, or defective blood cells
  2. Storage of platelets (1/3 of body supply)
  3. Production of blood cells during fetal life
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are lymphatic nodules (follicles)?

A

Egg-shaped masses of lymphathic tissue that are not surrounded by a capsule
- scattered throughout gastrointestinal, urinary, reproductive tracts, respiratiory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are lymphatic nodules (follicles) also referred as?

A

MALT

- mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How many tonsils do we have?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the function of tonsils?

A

Participate in immune responses against inhaled or ingested foreign substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are tonsils?

A

Aggregation of lymphatic nodules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Name the 5 tonsils.

A
  1. Single Pharyngeal tonsil (x1)
  2. Two palatine tonsils (x2)
  3. Paired lingual tonsils (x2)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the first line of defense against pathogens?

A

Skin and mucous membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

How does the epidermis contribute to the skins’ defenses?

A

Closely packed keratinized cells provide a formidable physical barriers
- not effective if the surface is broken (cut, scrape, burn)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Where are mucous membranes found and what do they secrete?

A

Line body cavities

- secrete mucous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the function of mucous?

A

Lubricates and moistens the cavity surface

- traps microbes and foreign substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What does the nose contain that helps protect against foreign objects, microbes and pollutants?

A

Mucous-coated hairs

- trap and filter inhaled air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

How do the cilia in the upper respiratory tract remove foreign objects?

A

Waving action of cilia propels inhaled dust and microbes towards the throat
- coughing and sneezing accelerate this movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How does the lacrimal apparatus help protect the body?

A

Manufactures and drains away tears in response to irrantants

- blinking spreads tears over the surface of the eye, continual washing dilutes microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is lysozyme? How does it help to protect the body?

A

An enzyme that is capable of breaking down the cell walls of certain bacteria
- present in saliva, perspiration, nasal secretions and tissue fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

How does saliva help protect the body?

A

Washes microbes from the surface of teeth and from mucous membrane of the mouth
- flow of saliva reduces colonization of microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

How does the urethra remain clean?

A

By the flow of urine

- slows microbial colonization in the urinary system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

How does defecation and vomiting help protect the body?

A

By expelling microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is sebum? How does it protect the body?

A

Secretion from oil glands

- forms a protective film over the surface of the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How does perspiration protect the body?

A

Helps to flush microbes from the surface of the skin

85
Q

How do gastric juices protect the body?

A

Strong acidity of gastric juices destroys many bacteria and most bacterial toxins

86
Q

How do vaginal secretions help protect the body?

A

Slightly acidic, discourages bacterial growth

87
Q

What are the four main types of antimicrobial substances that discourage microbial growth?

A
  1. Interferons
  2. Complement
  3. Iron-binding proteins
  4. Antimicrobial proteins
88
Q

What cells release interferons?

A
  1. Lymphocytes
  2. Macrophages
  3. Fibroblasts
89
Q

What are interferons?

A

Proteins released by certain cells in response to a virus

- able to inhibit virus replication

90
Q

What are the three types of interferons?

A
  1. Alpha-IFN
  2. Beta-IFN
  3. Gamma-IFN
91
Q

What is the complement system of immunity?

A

Proteins that “complement” or enhance certain immune responses

  • contributes to inflammation
  • promotes phagocytosis
  • causes cytolysis (bursting) of microbes
92
Q

How do iron-binding proteins inhibit the growth of bacteria?

A

By reducing the amount of available iron

93
Q

What are examples of iron-binding proteins?

A
  1. Transferrin (in blood and tissue fluids)
  2. Lactoferrin (in milk, saliva, mucous)
  3. Ferritin (in liver, spleen, red bone marrow)
  4. Hemoglobin (in red blood cells)
94
Q

How do antimicrobial proteins (AMPs) protect the body?

A
  • kills a wide variety of microbes
  • attract dendritic cells and mast cells (which participate in immune responses)
  • microbes do NOT develop resistance against AMPs
95
Q

What are some example of AMPs?

A
  • Dermicidin (produced by sweat glands)
  • Defensins and Cathelicidins (produced by neutrophils, macrophages and epithelia)
  • Thrombocidin (produced by platelets
96
Q

If a microbe penetrates the skin and gets past the antimicrobial substances in the blood, what is the next line of defense?

A
  1. Natural killer (NK) cells

2. Phagocytes

97
Q

What are natural killer (NK) cells?

A

Lymphocytes that has the ability to kill a wide variety of infected body cells and certain tumor cells
- attack any body cell that displays abnormal or unusual plasma membrane proteins

98
Q

Where are natural killer cells found?

A

Spleen, lymph nodes, red bone marrow

99
Q

What is perforin?

A

A protein that natural killer cells inserts into the plasma membrane of the target cell
- creates channels (perforations) in the membrane

100
Q

How does perforin kill cells?

A

Channels allow extracellular fluid to flow into the cell, they burst (cytolysis)

101
Q

What are phagocytes?

A

Specialized cells that perform phagocytosis

ingestion of microbes or other particles

102
Q

What are the two main types of phagocytes?

A
  1. Neutrophils
  2. Macrophages
    - both types migrate to infected areas
103
Q

What are the two kinds of macrophages?

A
  1. Wandering macrophages (move around)

2. Fixed macrophages (present in specific tissues)

104
Q

What are the five phases of phagocytosis?

A
  1. Chemotaxis
  2. Adherence
  3. Ingestion
  4. Digestion
  5. Killing
105
Q

What is chemotaxis?

Stage of Phagocytosis

A

A chemically stimulated movement of phagocytes to a site of damage
- from invading microbes, white blood cells, damaged tissue cells or activated complement proteins

106
Q

What is adherence?

Stage of Phagocytosis

A

Attachment of the phagocytes to the microbe or foreign substance
- binding of complement proteins to invading pathogens enhances adherence

107
Q

What is ingestion?

Stage of Phagocytosis

A

Pseudopods (plasma membrane projections) engulf the microbe

- surround the microbe in a phagosome (a sac)

108
Q

What is digestion?

Stage of Phagocytosis

A

Phagosome merges with lysosomes to form a phagolysosome

- breaks down microbial cell walls

109
Q

What is killing?

Stage of Phagocytosis

A

Chemical onslaught provided by the lysosome

- kills the microbes

110
Q

What is inflammation?

What are the conditions that cause inflammation?

A

Nonspecific, defensive response to tissue damage

- pathogens, abrasions, chemical irritations, distortion, extreme temperatures

111
Q

What are the four characteristic signs and symptoms of inflammation?

A
  1. Redness
  2. Pain
  3. Heat
  4. Swelling
112
Q

What is a common cause of inflammation to an injured area?

A

Loss of function

- ex. inability to detect sensations

113
Q

What are the three basic stages of the inflammatory response?

A
  1. Vasodilation and increased permeability of blood vessels
  2. Emigration (movement) of phagocytes from blood into interstitial fluid
  3. Tissue repair
114
Q

Why is vasodilation and increased blood vessel permeability important to the inflammatory response?

A

Vasodilation - allows more blood to flow through the damaged area (increased blood flow also helps to remove microbial toxins and dead cells)
Increased permeability - allows defensive proteins (antibodies and clotting factors) to enter the damaged area

115
Q

What are the five other aspects of the inflammatory response?

A
  1. Histamine
  2. Kinins
  3. Prostaglandins
  4. Leukotriens
  5. Complement
116
Q

What is histamine and what does it do?

A

Compound released by cells in response to injury, allergic and inflammatory reactions
- causes contraction of smooth muscle and dilation of capillaries

117
Q

What are kinins and what do they do?

A

Polypeptides

- cause vasodilation, increased permeability and smooth muscle contraction

118
Q

What are prostaglandins and what do they do?

A

Lipids

  • intensify the effects of histamine and kinins
  • stimulate the emigration of phagocytes through capillary walls
119
Q

Where are leukotrienes produced and what do they do?

A

Produced by basophils and mast cells

  • cause increased permeability
  • also function in adherence and as chemotactic agents that attract phagocytes
120
Q

What do complement do in the inflammatory response?

A
  • stimulate histamine release
  • attract neutrophils by chemotaxis
  • promote phagocytosis
  • destroy bacteria
121
Q

What is emigration?

A

Movement of phagocytes from blood into interstitial fluid

- neutrophils squeeze through the wall of the blood vessel to reach the damaged area

122
Q

What does emigration depend on?

A

Chemotaxis

123
Q

What is leukocytosis?

A

Increase in white blood cells from red bone marrow

124
Q

What is pus?

A

Collection of dead cells and fluid

- dead macrophages/phagocytes

125
Q

What is a fever?

Why does it occur?

A

Abnormally high body temperature

  • occurs because the hypothalamic thermostat is reset
  • occurs during infection and inflammation
126
Q

What three effects does a fever have on the body?

A
  • intensifies the effects of interferons
  • inhibits the growth of some microbes
  • speeds up body reactions that aid repair
127
Q

What are antigens (Ags)?

A

Substances that generate an immune response

- bacteria, toxins, viruses, foreign substances

128
Q

What two properties distinguish adaptive immunity fro innate immunity?

A
  1. SPECIFICITY for particular foreign molecules, which also involves distinguishing self from non-self molecules
  2. MEMORY for most previously encountered antigens
129
Q

Why is memory so important to adaptive immunity?

A

A second encounter prompts an even more rapid and vigorous response

130
Q

What cells are involved in adaptive immunity?

A

B cells

T cells

131
Q

How do B cells mature?

A
  • Develop in primary lymphatic organs (red bone marrow and thymus)
  • Complete development in red bone marrow
132
Q

How do T cells mature?

A
  • develop from pre-T cells that migrate from red bone marrow
  • migrate into the thymus where they mature
  • Thymus = T cells
133
Q

What is immunocompetence?

A

The ability to carry out adaptive immune responses

134
Q

What are antigen receptors?

A

Proteins in the plasma membranes of B cells and T cells

- molecules capable of recognizing specific antigens

135
Q

What are the two types of adaptive immunity?

A
  1. Cell-mediated immunity
  2. Antibody-mediated immunity
    - both are triggered by antigens
136
Q

What happens during cell-mediated immunity responses?

A

Cytotoxic T cells directly attack invading antigens

137
Q

What happens during antibody-mediated immunity responses?

A

B cells transform into plasma cells, which synthesize and secrete specific proteins (antibodies)

138
Q

What are antibodies?

immunoglobulins

A

Specific proteins that can bind to and inactivate a specific antigen

139
Q

What is cell-mediated immunity effective against?

A
  • INTRAcellular pathogens (viruses, bacteria, fungi)
  • some cancer cells
  • foreign tissue transplants
140
Q

What is antibody-mediated immunity effective against?

A
  • EXTRAcellular pathogens (viruses, bacteria, fungi)
141
Q

What are two important characteristics of antigens?

A
  1. Immunogenicity

2. Reactivity

142
Q

What is immunogenicity?

A

The ability to provoke an immune response by stimulating the production of specific antibodies, the proliferation of specific T cells, or both

143
Q

What is reactivity?

A

The ability of the antigen to react specifically with the antibodies or cells it provoked

144
Q

What are the substances called that exhibit both immunogenicity and reactivity?

A

Complete antigens

145
Q

What are epitopes?

A

Small parts of a large antigen molecule that act as the triggers for immune responses

146
Q

What are the three routes that antigens take to enter the body?

A
  1. Enter the bloodstream; trapped by the spleen
  2. Penetrate the skin; enter lymphatic vessels and lodge in lymphatic nodes
  3. Penetrate mucous membranes; trapped by mucosa-associated lymphatic tissues (MALT)
147
Q

What is a hapten?

A

A smaller substance that can stimulate an immune response only if it is attached to a larger carrier molecule
- has reactivity but lacks immunogenicity

148
Q

What are major histocompatibility complex (MHC) antigens?

A

“Self-antigens”

  • located in the plasma membrane of body cells
  • unique to each individual
149
Q

What is the function of major histrocompatibility complex (MHC) antigens?

A

To help T cells recognize that an antigen is foreign, not self

150
Q

When are B cells able to recognize and bind to antigens?

A

In lymph, interstitial fluid or blood plasma

151
Q

When are T cells able to recognize fragments of antigenic proteins?

A

Only when they are processed and presented in a certain way

152
Q

What are exogenous antigens?

A

Foreign antigens that are present in fluids OUTSIDE body cells
- bacteria, bacterial toxins, parasitic worms, pollen, dust, viruses that have not yet entered a cell

153
Q

What are antigen-presenting cells (APCs)?

A 
Special class of cells
- process and present exogenous antigens
154
Q

What do antigen-presenting cells (APCs) include?

A
  • dendritic cells
  • macrophages
  • B cells
155
Q

Where are APCs located?

A

Epidermis and dermis of the skin
Mucous membranes (lungs, intestines, urinary, reproductive)
Lymph nodes

156
Q

What are endogenous antigens?

A

Foreign antigens that are present INSIDE body cells

- viral proteins, toxins from intracellular bacteria, abnormal proteins from cancer

157
Q

What are cytokines?

A

Small proteins hormones that stimulate or inhibit many normal cell functions (cell growth or differentiation)

158
Q

What does a cell-mediated immune response begin with?

And what are the next steps?

A

Activation of a small number of T cells by a specific antigen

  • once a T cell is activated, it undergoes clonal selection
  • some clones become effector cells, other become memory cells
  • effector cells result in elimination of the intruder
159
Q

What is clonal selection?

A

The process where a lymphocyte divides and differentiates (forms more highly specialized cells) in response to a specific antigen

160
Q

What are T-cell receptors (TCRs)?

A

Antigen receptors on the surface of T cells recognize and bind to specific foreign antigen fragments that are presented in antigen-MHC complexes

161
Q

What is costimulation?

A

A process where a T cell only becomes activated if it binds to the foreign antigen and at the same time receives a SECOND SIGNAL

162
Q

What is interleukin-s?

A

A costimulator

- activates T cells

163
Q

What kind of cells develop into helper T cells?

A

T cells that display CD4

- also known as CD4 T cells

164
Q

What is the function of INACTIVE helper T cells?

A

Recognize exogenous antigen fragments associated with major histocompatibility complex class II (MHC-II) at the surface of an APC

165
Q

What is the function of an ACTIVE helper T cell?

A

Helper T cell undergoes clonal selection

- consists of active helper T cells and memory helper T cells

166
Q

What do ACTIVE helper T cells secrete?

A

Cytokines

- example: interleukin-2

167
Q

What is a memory helper T cell?

A

NOT an active helper T cell

- able to quickly proliferate and differentiate if the same antigen enters the body in the future

168
Q

What kinds of cells develop into cytotoxic T cells?

A

T cells that display CD8

169
Q

What is the function of CD8 T cells?

A

Recognize foreign antigens combined with MHC-I molecules on the the surface of:

  • body cells infected with microbes
  • some tumor cells
  • cells of a tissue transplant
170
Q

What are the cells that function in the elimination of invaders in cell-mediated immune responses?

A

Cytotoxic T cells

- “soliders”

171
Q

What is the major difference between cytotoxic T cells and natural killer cells?

A

Cytotoxic T cells have receptors specific to a particular microbe and thus kill only target body cells infected with ONE particular type of microbe
- natural killer cells destroy a wide variety

172
Q

What is cytolysis?

A

A cell bursting

- example: due to perforin creating channels, allowing extracellular matrix to flow in and burst the cell

173
Q

What is lymphotoxin?

A

Toxic molecule released by cytotoxic T cells to destroy target cells
- causes the target cell’s DNA to fragment and the cell dies

174
Q

What are tumor antigens?

A

Novel cell surface components that are displayed when a normal cell transforms into a cancerous cell
- rarely displayed on the surface

175
Q

What is immunological surveillance?

A

Process where the immune system recognizes a tumor antigen as nonself, it can destroy any cancer cells carrying that antigen

176
Q

What kinds of cells carry out immunological surveillance?

A
  • cytotoxic T cells
  • macrophages
  • natural killer cells
177
Q

During the activation of a B cell (during antibody-mediated immunity), what does the antigen bind to?

A

B-cell receptors

178
Q

What are B-cell receptors?

A

Integral transmembrane proteins that are chemically similar to the antibodies that are eventually secreted by plasma cells

179
Q

What are the steps in antibody-mediated immunity responses?

A
  1. In the presence of a foreign antigen, a SPECIFIC B cell in a lymph node, the spleen, or mucosa-assoicated lymphatic tissue become activated
  2. Undergoes clonal selection - forming a clone of plasma cells and memory cells
  3. Plasma cells are the effector cells of a B cell clone, secrete SPECIFIC antibodies
  4. Antibodies circulate in lymph and blood to reach the site of invasion
180
Q

What do plasma cells secrete during an antibody-mediated response?

A

Antibodies

181
Q

What is the function of memory B cells during an antibody-mediated response?

A

Quickly proliferate and differentiate into more plasma cells and more memory B cells if the same antigen reappears in the future
- does NOT secrete antibodies

182
Q

What can an antibody combine with?

A

The epitope on that antigen that triggered its production

- like a lock and key

183
Q

What are antibodies also known as?

A

Immunoglobulins

- belong to a group of glycoproteins

184
Q

What two shapes can an antibody assume?

Why?

A

T shape or a Y shape

  • made of 4 polypeptide chains, 2 heavy, 2 light
  • disulfide bond holds it all together, creates a “hinge”
185
Q

Where is the antigen-binding site on an antibody?

A

The tips of the H and L chains; the variable (V) regions

186
Q

How many binding sites does an antibody typically have?

A

2

- why they are called bivalent

187
Q

List the five actions of antibodies.

A
  1. Neutralizing antigen
  2. Immobilizing bacteria
  3. Agglutinating and precipitating antigen
  4. Activating complement
  5. Enhancing phagocytosis
188
Q

What does it mean to neutralize an antigen?

A

Reaction of an antibody with an antigen blocks or neutralizes some bacterial toxins and prevents attachment of some viruses to body cells

189
Q

What does it mean to immobile bacteria?

A

When antibodies form against antigens on the cilia or flagella of motile bacteria, they lose their mobility

190
Q

What does it mean to agglutinate and precipitate an antigen?

A

Since antibodies have two binding sites, the antigent-antibody reaction may cause agglutination (clumping together)
- may be more easilty phagocytized when antigens come out of a solution (precipitate)

191
Q

What does it mean to activate a complement?

A

Antigen-antibody complexes initiate the classical pathway of the complement system

192
Q

What does it mean to enhance phagocytosis?

A

Stem region of an antibody acts as a flag that attracts phagocytes, once antigens have bound to the antibody’s variable region

193
Q

What is the role of the complement system in immunity?

A

Defensive system

- complement proteins destroy microbes by causing phagocytosis, cytolysis and inflammation

194
Q

What are the three ways that C3 (part of complement system) can be activated?

A
  1. Classical pathway - antibodies bind to antigens
  2. Alternative pathway - does not involve antibodies
    - interaction between lipid-carbohydrate complex on the surface of the microbes
  3. Lectin pathway - lectins bind to carbohydrates on the surface of microbes, ultimately causing the activation of C3
195
Q

What is the primary immune response?

A

Following the first exposure to a foreign antigen, a lag phase occurs in which no antibody is produced, but activated B cells are differentiating into plasma cells

196
Q

What is the secondary immune response?

A

Immunological memory has been established and the immune system can start making antibodies immediately
- usually before we are even aware that we were attacked

197
Q

In order to function properly, T cells must exhibit these two traits.

A
  1. Self-recognition

2. Self-tolerence

198
Q

What is self-recognition?

A

Able to recognize your own MHC-complex proteins

199
Q

What is self-tolerence?

A

Lack reactivity to peptide fragments from your own proteins

200
Q

Which hormone, secreted by the adrenal cortex inhibits the immune system?

A

Cortisol - in associated with the stress response

201
Q

What is AIDS?

A

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

  • the progressive destruction of the immune system by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
  • end stage of HIV
202
Q

What does it mean to be allergic?

A

Overly reactive to a substance that is tolerated by most other people

203
Q

What are the 4 types of allergic reaction?

A
  1. Anaphylactic reactions -constricted airway
  2. Cytotoxic
  3. Immune-complex
  4. Cell-mediated
204
Q

What is an auto-immune disease?

A

Immune system fails to display self-tolerance and attacks the person’s own tissues

205
Q

What is infectious mononucleosis?

A

Contiguous disease caused by EBV (epstein-barr virus)

  • characterized by swelling of the lymph glands and prolonged lassitude
  • “mono”
206
Q

What is systemic lupus erythematosus?

“Lupus”

A

Chronic autoimmune, inflammatory disease that affects multiple body systems
- marked by inflammation of the skin

207
Q

What is chronic fatigue syndrome?

A
  • extreme fatigue that impairs normal activities

- absence of any other disease that might cause the symptoms

208
Q

What is a gamma globulin?

A

Suspension of immunoglobulins from blood

  • consisting of anitbodies that react with a specific pathogen
  • provides short-term immunity

Biology - Chapter 19-29 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions