Chapter 20 Flashcards

1
Q

The human female determines the sex of her offspring.

TRUE or FALSE

A

The human female determines the sex of her offspring.

Answer:FALSE

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2
Q
How many autosomal chromosomes are present in human cells?
A. 23 pair
B. 46
C. 22 pair
D. 2 pair
A

How many autosomal chromosomes are present in human cells?

C. 22 pair

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3
Q
What type of genetic change occurs when an allele is silenced by methylation of cytosine bases?
A. genomic
B. epigenetic
C. mutation
D. None of the choices is correct.
A

What type of genetic change occurs when an allele is silenced by methylation of cytosine bases?

B. epigenetic

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4
Q
What type of genes are found on the Y chromosome?
A. X-transposed genes
B. degenerate genes
C. testis-specific genes
D. All of the choices are correct.
A

What type of genes are found on the Y chromosome?

D. All of the choices are correct.

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5
Q

Genomic imprinting allows for differing expressions of an allele.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Genomic imprinting allows for differing expressions of an allele.

TRUE

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6
Q

Epigenetic changes can not be passed on to a zygote.

TRUE or FALSE

A

Epigenetic changes can not be passed on to a zygote.

FALSE

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7
Q
Regions of DNA that read the same forward as backward are called \_\_\_\_\_\_ and include the testisspecific
genes on the Y chromosome.
A. palindromes
B. autosomes
C. haploid
D. genomic
A

Regions of DNA that read the same forward as backward are called ______ and include the testisspecific
genes on the Y chromosome.

A. palindromes

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8
Q

Barr bodies are normally only found in the cells of female mammals.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Barr bodies are normally only found in the cells of female mammals.

TRUE

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9
Q
A fertilized egg is called a/an
A. autosome.
B. zygote.
C. ovum.
D. Barr body.
A

A fertilized egg is called a/an

B. zygote.

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10
Q
Which of the following would be found in normal somatic cells of women but not men?
A. an X chromosome
B. a Y chromosome
C. a Barr body
D. 22 pairs of autosomal chromosomes
A

Which of the following would be found in normal somatic cells of women but not men?

C. a Barr body

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11
Q

Cryptorchid males do not produce testosterone.

TRUE or FALSE

A

Cryptorchid males do not produce testosterone.

FALSE

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12
Q

Deletion of the SRY gene would cause male fetuses to develop as females.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Deletion of the SRY gene would cause male fetuses to develop as females.

TRUE

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13
Q

Patients with Turner’s syndrome have 47 chromosomes and appear female.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Patients with Turner’s syndrome have 47 chromosomes and appear female.

FALSE

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14
Q

Leydig cells in the male produce Müllerian inhibition factor.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Leydig cells in the male produce Müllerian inhibition factor.

FALSE

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15
Q
What is the principle sex steroid in males?
A. estrogen
B. testosterone
C. progesterone
D. aldosterone
A

What is the principle sex steroid in males?

B. testosterone

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16
Q
How many chromosomes are found in a normal human cell?
A. 23
B. 23 pair
C. 46
D. Both 23 pair and 46 are correct.
A

How many chromosomes are found in a normal human cell?

D. Both 23 pair and 46 are correct.

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17
Q

Female accessory sex organs develop from the mesonephric ducts.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Female accessory sex organs develop from the mesonephric ducts.

FALSE

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18
Q

Treating a male fetus with antibodies to DHT would prevent development of the epididymides.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Treating a male fetus with antibodies to DHT would prevent development of the epididymides.

FALSE

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19
Q

Dihydrotestosterone is produced by the action of the enzyme 5 alpha-reductase on testosterone.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Dihydrotestosterone is produced by the action of the enzyme 5 alpha-reductase on testosterone.

TRUE

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20
Q

Female accessory organs develop because of the presence of ovaries.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Female accessory organs develop because of the presence of ovaries.

FALSE

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21
Q
A lack of testosterone in males will cause the genital tubercle to form a(n)
A. penis.
B. testis.
C. clitoris.
D. ovary.
A

A lack of testosterone in males will cause the genital tubercle to form a(n)

C. clitoris.

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22
Q

The first event to occur during development of the reproductive system would be the
A. descent of the testes into the scrotum.
B. formation of the vagina.
C. onset of testosterone production.
D. development of the Müllerian ducts.

A

The first event to occur during development of the reproductive system would be the

D. development of the Müllerian ducts.

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23
Q
Testosterone, not DHT, stimulates embryonic development of
A. seminal vesicles.
B. ductus deferens.
C. ejaculatory duct.
D. All of the choices are correct.
A

Testosterone, not DHT, stimulates embryonic development of

D. All of the choices are correct.

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24
Q

Males lacking testosterone receptors would
A. develop as genotypic females.
B. have testes and female external genitalia.
C. lack gonads.
D. have male internal genitalia.

A

Males lacking testosterone receptors would

B. have testes and female external genitalia.

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25
Q
The embryonic urethral fold becomes the female
A. labia minora.
B. labia majora.
C. glans clitoris.
D. All of these choices are correct.
A

The embryonic urethral fold becomes the female

A. labia minora.

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26
Q

The most common cause of female pseudohermaphroditism is congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
TRUE or FALSE

A

The most common cause of female pseudohermaphroditism is congenital adrenal hyperplasia.

TRUE

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27
Q
Those with testicular feminization syndrome have
A. an extra X chromosome.
B. a missing X chromosome.
C. an extra chromosome 23.
D. no chromosomal number abnormalities.
A

Those with testicular feminization syndrome have

D. no chromosomal number abnormalities.

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28
Q

Testosterone levels in the male embryo and fetus are very high throughout the prenatal period.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Testosterone levels in the male embryo and fetus are very high throughout the prenatal period.
FALSE

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29
Q

A male with 5 alpha-reductase deficiency will have male internal sex organs but more female
appearing external genitals.
TRUE or FALSE

A

A male with 5 alpha-reductase deficiency will have male internal sex organs but more female
appearing external genitals.

TRUE

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30
Q

During the first trimester of pregnancy, the ovaries are active endocrine glands.
TRUE or FALSE

A

During the first trimester of pregnancy, the ovaries are active endocrine glands.

FALSE

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31
Q

Gonadotropic hormones from the anterior pituitary will affect the gonads in all of the following ways
EXCEPT
A. stimulation of spermatogenesis or oogenesis.
B. stimulation of gonadal hormone secretion.
C. development of internal genital ducts.
D. maintenance of gonad structures.

A

Gonadotropic hormones from the anterior pituitary will affect the gonads in all of the following ways
EXCEPT

C. development of internal genital ducts.

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32
Q

The rate at which GnRH is secreted from the hypothalamus determines whether LH or FSH is secreted
from the anterior pituitary.
TRUE or FALSE

A

The rate at which GnRH is secreted from the hypothalamus determines whether LH or FSH is secreted
from the anterior pituitary.

TRUE

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33
Q

Inhibin prevents release of LH from the anterior pituitary.

TRUE or FALSE

A

Inhibin prevents release of LH from the anterior pituitary.

FALSE

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34
Q

The gonads have a negative feedback effect on gonadotropins of the anterior pituitary.
TRUE or FALSE

A

The gonads have a negative feedback effect on gonadotropins of the anterior pituitary.

TRUE

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35
Q

Synthetic analogues of GnRH are useful in treating benign prostatic hyperplasia and
endometriosis.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Synthetic analogues of GnRH are useful in treating benign prostatic hyperplasia and
endometriosis.

TRUE

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36
Q

The secretion of GnRH, FSH, and LH are pulsatile instead of continuous.
TRUE or FALSE

A

The secretion of GnRH, FSH, and LH are pulsatile instead of continuous.

TRUE

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37
Q

In general, the onset of puberty occurs sooner in boys compared to girls.
TRUE or FALSE

A

In general, the onset of puberty occurs sooner in boys compared to girls.

FALSE

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38
Q
The first sign of puberty in females is
A. breast development.
B. menarche.
C. growth spurt.
D. axillary hair.
A

The first sign of puberty in females is

C. growth spurt.

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39
Q

What event(s) occur to start puberty?
A. GABA release in hypothalamus is reduced.
B. Glutamate stimulation of the hypothalamus is increased.
C. Increased secretion of GnRH to the anterior pituitary.
D. All of the choices are correct.

A

What event(s) occur to start puberty?

D. All of the choices are correct.

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40
Q

Epiphyseal growth in males is stimulated by estrogen.

TRUE or FALSE

A

Epiphyseal growth in males is stimulated by estrogen.

TRUE

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41
Q

Pubic and axillary hair growth at puberty is from increased secretion of
A. anterior pituitary gonadotropins.
B. estrogen and testosterone from the onads.
C. androgens from the adrenal cortex.
D. melatonin from the pineal gland.

A

Pubic and axillary hair growth at puberty is from increased secretion of

A. anterior pituitary gonadotropins.

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42
Q

The role of melatonin in puberty of humans is well established and critical.
TRUE or FALSE

A

The role of melatonin in puberty of humans is well established and critical.

FALSE

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43
Q

Longitudinal growth during development is dependent on estrogen stimulation of the epiphyseal
growth plates in both males and females.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Longitudinal growth during development is dependent on estrogen stimulation of the epiphyseal
growth plates in both males and females.

TRUE

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44
Q

Women who are very lean and physically active may have irregular cycles and amenorrhea.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Women who are very lean and physically active may have irregular cycles and amenorrhea.

TRUE

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45
Q

In males androgens are required for
A. initiation of spermatogenesis at puberty.
B. regression of the wolffian ducts during embryonic development.
C. maintenance of accessory sex organs.
D. development of the Müllerian ducts.

A

In males androgens are required for

C. maintenance of accessory sex organs.

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46
Q

Which of the following is a precursor to melatonin synthesis?
A. tryptophan
B. serotonin
C. tyrosine
D. Both tryptophan and serotonin are correct.

A

Which of the following is a precursor to melatonin synthesis?

A. tryptophan

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47
Q

The correct order of the four phases of sexual response in both sexes would be
A. excitation, plateau, orgasm, resolution.
B. plateau, excitation, orgasm, resolution.
C. orgasm, excitation, resolution, plateau.
D. resolution, plateau, excitation, orgasm.

A

The correct order of the four phases of sexual response in both sexes would be

A. excitation, plateau, orgasm, resolution.

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48
Q

Women do not enter a refractory period following orgasm and are capable of multiple orgasms.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Women do not enter a refractory period following orgasm and are capable of multiple orgasms.

TRUE

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49
Q

Match the event to the phase of sexual response.

  1. resolution
  2. excitation
  3. orgasm
  4. plateau

A.Erection of penis and clitoris
ejaculation in males and B.Contraction of vagina in females
C.Return to pre-excitement condition
D.Plateau engorgement of labia with blood

A

Match the event to the phase of sexual response.

  1. resolution
  2. excitation
  3. orgasm
  4. plateau

A.Erection of penis and clitoris-2
ejaculation in males and B.Contraction of vagina in females-3
C.Return to pre-excitement condition-1
D.Plateau engorgement of labia with blood-4

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50
Q
The majority of the testis is comprised of
A. Leydig cells.
B. interstitial cells.
C. Sertoli cells.
D. seminiferous tubules.
A

The majority of the testis is comprised of

D. seminiferous tubules.

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51
Q
Sertoli cells are stimulated by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, while Leydig cells are stimulated by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. FSH, LH
B. LH, FSH
C. testosterone, LH
D. FSH, testosterone
A

Sertoli cells are stimulated by __________, while Leydig cells are stimulated by ________.

A. FSH, LH

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52
Q

In males, conversion of testosterone to estrogen in the brain is essential for normal regulation of LH
secretion.
TRUE or FALSE

A

In males, conversion of testosterone to estrogen in the brain is essential for normal regulation of LH
secretion.

TRUE

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53
Q
What enzyme is needed for the conversion of testosterone into estradiol in the male brain?
A. 5-alpha reductase
B. aromatase
C. ATPase
D. cGMP phosphodiesterase
A

What enzyme is needed for the conversion of testosterone into estradiol in the male brain?

B. aromatase

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54
Q

Secretion of LH is inhibited by
A. high concentrations of inhibin.
B. rapidly rising concentrations of estradiol.
C. high concentrations of testosterone.
D. decreasing concentrations of progesterone.

A

Secretion of LH is inhibited by

C. high concentrations of testosterone.

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55
Q

In males, the levels of testosterone decline drastically with age.
TRUE or FALSE

A

In males, the levels of testosterone decline drastically with age.

FALSE

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56
Q

Developing sperm cells produce estrogen that may serve to regulate their environment.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Developing sperm cells produce estrogen that may serve to regulate their environment.

TRUE

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57
Q
Male androgens
A. stimulate protein synthesis and muscle growth.
B. stimulate bone growth.
C. stimulate erythropoiesis.
D. All of the choices are correct.
A

Male androgens

D. All of the choices are correct.

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58
Q
Estrogen may play a role in spermatogenesis as evidenced by estrogen receptors found on
developing
A. sperm cells.
B. brains.
C. uterine.
D. oocytes.
A

Estrogen may play a role in spermatogenesis as evidenced by estrogen receptors found on
developing.

A. sperm cells.

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59
Q

Damage to the Sertoli cells would result in the production of antibodies against sperm cells.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Damage to the Sertoli cells would result in the production of antibodies against sperm cells.

TRUE

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60
Q

The Leydig cells of the testes constitute a blood-testis barrier that prevents autoimmune destruction of
the sperm.
TRUE or FALSE

A

The Leydig cells of the testes constitute a blood-testis barrier that prevents autoimmune destruction of the sperm.

FALSE

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61
Q

Secretions of the Sertoli cells and cells of Leydig influence the functions of each other.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Secretions of the Sertoli cells and cells of Leydig influence the functions of each other.

TRUE

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62
Q
What occurs during spermiogenesis?
A. chromosomes are compacted by protamines
B. flagellum and acrosome form
C. cytoplasm removed by Sertoli cells
D. All of the choices are correct.
A

What occurs during spermiogenesis?

D. All of the choices are correct.

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63
Q
After meiosis I in males, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are formed.
A. primary spermatocytes
B. secondary spermatocytes
C. spermatids
D. spermatozoa
A

After meiosis I in males, ________ are formed.

B. secondary spermatocytes

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64
Q
Apoptosis of T lymphocytes requires that Sertoli cells produce
A. FAS ligand.
B. androgen-binding protein.
C. testosterone.
D. All of these choices are correct.
A

Apoptosis of T lymphocytes requires that Sertoli cells produce

A. FAS ligand.

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65
Q
Spermatogenesis is regulated by
A. FSH.
B. testosterone and its derivatives.
C. growth hormone.
D. progesterone.
A

Spermatogenesis is regulated by

B. testosterone and its derivatives.

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66
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of Sertoli cells?
A. production of androgen-binding protein
B. FSH stimulation of spermiogenesis
C. protection of developing sperm from the male’s immune system
D. production of testosterone

A

Which of the following is NOT a function of Sertoli cells?

D. production of testosterone

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67
Q

FSH is necessary for spermiogenesis to occur.

TRUE or FALSE

A

FSH is necessary for spermiogenesis to occur.

FALSE

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68
Q
Tight junctions between \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are responsible for the formation of the blood-testis barrier.
A. Leydig cells
B. Sertoli cells
C. spermatogonial cells
D. trophoblast cells
A

Tight junctions between ___________ are responsible for the formation of the blood-testis barrier.

B. Sertoli cells

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69
Q
Removal of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ would result in a lack of energy in the semen to support the sperm
cells.
A. seminal vesicles
B. prostate
C. testis
D. epididymis
A

Removal of the ___________ would result in a lack of energy in the semen to support the sperm
cells.
A. seminal vesicles

70
Q
Sperm are stored and matured in the
A. vas deferens.
B. seminal vesicles.
C. epididymis.
D. prostate gland.
A

Sperm are stored and matured in the

C. epididymis.

71
Q
About 60% of the volume of semen is produced by the
A. seminal vesicles.
B. prostate gland.
C. bulbourethral glands.
D. testes.
A

About 60% of the volume of semen is produced by the

A. seminal vesicles.

72
Q

Emission and ejaculation are under parasympathetic nerve control.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Emission and ejaculation are under parasympathetic nerve control.

FALSE

73
Q
The movement of semen into the urethra is called
A. emission.
B. erection.
C. ejaculation.
D. ovulation.
A

The movement of semen into the urethra is called

A. emission.

74
Q

Viagra works by blocking ________________ in order to raise cGMP concentration and promote
vasodilation of vascular smooth muscle of the penis to produce an erection.
A. 5-alpha reductase
B. aromatase
C. ATPase
D. cGMP phosphodiesterase

A

Viagra works by blocking ________________ in order to raise cGMP concentration and promote
vasodilation of vascular smooth muscle of the penis to produce an erection.

D. cGMP phosphodiesterase

75
Q

Nitric oxide released by endothelial cells in vascular smooth muscle is responsible for smooth muscle
relaxation and therefore responsible for which of the following?
A. reduced blood flow to bronchioles
B. increased blood flow in placenta
C. increased blood flow to the fetus
D. penile erection

A

Nitric oxide released by endothelial cells in vascular smooth muscle is responsible for smooth muscle
relaxation and therefore responsible for which of the following?

D. penile erection

76
Q
The most successful method of contraception is
A. vasectomy.
B. oral contraceptives.
C. the rhythm method.
D. condom usage.
A

The most successful method of contraception is

A. vasectomy.

77
Q
What allows the compaction of chromatin in the process of spermiogenesis?
A. histones
B. acrosome
C. protamines
D. testosterone
A

What allows the compaction of chromatin in the process of spermiogenesis?

C. protamines

78
Q
How many sperm are produced from one spermatogonium?
A. one
B. two
C. four
D. eight
A

How many sperm are produced from one spermatogonium?

C. four

79
Q

Male contraceptive drugs that would block FSH would be very effective for birth control.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Male contraceptive drugs that would block FSH would be very effective for birth control.

FALSE

80
Q

The myometrium is the inner most layer of the uterus.

TRUE or FALSE

A

The myometrium is the inner most layer of the uterus.

FALSE

81
Q
Which of the following is NOT a part of the female reproductive system?
A. ductus deferens
B. uterus
C. labia majora
D. uterine tub
A

Which of the following is NOT a part of the female reproductive system?

A. ductus deferens

82
Q
Which of the following is the essential organ of the female reproductive system?
A. uterus
B. vagina
C. ovaries
D. uterine tubes
A

Which of the following is the essential organ of the female reproductive system?

C. ovaries

83
Q

Meiosis II is not completed in the secondary oocyte until after fertilization.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Meiosis II is not completed in the secondary oocyte until after fertilization.

TRUE

84
Q
Which part of the uterine wall responds to hormone stimulation as part of female cycles?
A. stratum functionale of endometrium
B. perimetrium
C. stratum basale of endometrium
D. myometrium
A

Which part of the uterine wall responds to hormone stimulation as part of female cycles?

A. stratum functionale of endometrium

85
Q
Ovarian granulosa cells synthesize estradiol which is produced by the theca interna cells from
A. FSH.
B. progesterone.
C. testosterone.
D. LH.
A

Ovarian granulosa cells synthesize estradiol which is produced by the theca interna cells from

C. testosterone.

86
Q
Which is NOT characteristic of a graafian follicle?
A. has a fluid-filled antrum
B. granulosa cells secrete estradiol
C. contains a secondary oocyte
D. the oocyte has completed meiosis II
A

Which is NOT characteristic of a graafian follicle?

D. the oocyte has completed meiosis II

87
Q
A follicle that does not complete development as a graafian follicle will
A. rest until the next month.
B. continue meiosis.
C. become a primordial follicle.
D. undergo follicle atresia.
A

A follicle that does not complete development as a graafian follicle will

D. undergo follicle atresia.

88
Q
What structure of a mature follicle is a barrier to sperm and fertilization?
A. zona pellucida
B. corona radiata
C. antrum
D. cumulus oophorus
A

What structure of a mature follicle is a barrier to sperm and fertilization?

A. zona pellucida

89
Q

The corpus luteum secretes both estradiol and progesterone.

TRUE or FALSE

A

The corpus luteum secretes both estradiol and progesterone.

TRUE

90
Q
What is it called when a mature follicle ruptures and ejects the oocyte into the uterine tube?
A. gestation
B. menstruation
C. ovulation
D. fertilization
A

What is it called when a mature follicle ruptures and ejects the oocyte into the uterine tube?

C. ovulation

91
Q
What is formed following ovulation from the empty follicle due to LH influence?
A. macula lutea
B. corpus luteum
C. fibroids
D. Graafian follicle
A

What is formed following ovulation from the empty follicle due to LH influence?

B. corpus luteum

92
Q

The follicular phase is characterized by elevated rising concentrations of estrogen.
TRUE or FALSE

A

The follicular phase is characterized by elevated rising concentrations of estrogen.

TRUE

93
Q

Luteal regression may be inhibited by
A. inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins.
B. stimulating the synthesis of progesterone.
C. stimulating the synthesis of LH.
D. inhibiting the synthesis of FSH.

A

Luteal regression may be inhibited by

A. inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins.

94
Q
What hormone triggers ovulation?
A. LH
B. FSHC
C. progesterone
D. hCG
A

What hormone triggers ovulation?

A. LH

95
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ phase of the endometrium is supported when the ovary is in the luteal phase.
A. proliferative
B. secretory
C. menstrual
D. ovulatory
A

The ___________ phase of the endometrium is supported when the ovary is in the luteal phase.

B. secretory

96
Q
Estradiol amounts rise during the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ phase of the endometrial menstrual cycle.
A. proliferative
B. menstrual
C. secretory
D. follicular
A

Estradiol amounts rise during the ___________ phase of the endometrial menstrual cycle.

A. proliferative

97
Q

In the female menstrual cycle
A. ovulation is stimulated by decreasing concentrations of progesterone.
B. menstruation occurs during the last four days of the cycle.
C. progesterone secretion is stimulated by LH.
D. the luteal phase is characterized by high circulating concentrations of estrogens.

A

In the female menstrual cycle

C. progesterone secretion is stimulated by LH.

98
Q
Spotting between menstrual cycles is termed
A. amenorrhea.
B. dysmenorrhea.
C. menorrhagia.
D. metrorrhagia.
A

Spotting between menstrual cycles is termed

D. metrorrhagia.

99
Q
The secretory phase of the endometrium occurs when the ovary is in the
A. follicular phase.
B. luteal phase.
C. menstrual phase.
D. ovulatory phase.
A

The secretory phase of the endometrium occurs when the ovary is in the

B. luteal phase.

100
Q

Women who are thin, athletic, and under prolonged stress which leads to inadequate GnRH release
may experience cessation of menstruation or
A. dysmenorrhea.
B. menorrhea.
C. metrorrhea.
D. functional amenorrhea.

A

Women who are thin, athletic, and under prolonged stress which leads to inadequate GnRH release
may experience cessation of menstruation or

D. functional amenorrhea.

101
Q

An oocyte is contained in a membrane sac called a follicle.

TRUE or FALSE

A

An oocyte is contained in a membrane sac called a follicle.

TRUE

102
Q
How many ova are produced by oogenesis of one oogonia?
A. one
B. two
C. four
D. eight
A

How many ova are produced by oogenesis of one oogonia?

A. one

103
Q
What are the small cells produced by the uneven cytoplasmic divisions or oogenesis?
A. thecal cells
B. follicles
C. antrum
D. polar bodies
A

What are the small cells produced by the uneven cytoplasmic divisions or oogenesis?

D. polar bodies

104
Q

Ovulation occurs around day 14 of the ovarian cycle.

TRUE or FALSE

A

Ovulation occurs around day 14 of the ovarian cycle.

TRUE

105
Q
Day 1 of the menstrual cycle is
A. the day ovulation occurs.
B. the first day of the menses.
C. the last day of the menses.
D. the first day of the proliferative phase.
A

Day 1 of the menstrual cycle is

B. the first day of the menses.

106
Q
What is the major hormone produced during the luteal phase?
A. progesterone
B. estrogen
C. androgen
D. hCG
A

What is the major hormone produced during the luteal phase?

A. progesterone

107
Q

The LH surge is caused by a ______ feedback effect of increased estradiol.
A. positive
B. negative

A

The LH surge is caused by a ______ feedback effect of increased estradiol.

A. positive

108
Q

The LH surge is caused by
A. estradiol increasing frequency of GnRH pulses.
B. more FSH receptors placed in granulosa cells.
C. a quick drop in FSH.
D. rapid increase in progesterone.

A

The LH surge is caused by

A. estradiol increasing frequency of GnRH pulses.

109
Q
The LH surge causes
A. menses.
B. ovulation.
C. endometrium build-up.
D. All of the choices are correct.
A

The LH surge causes

B. ovulation.

110
Q
High progesterone levels during the luteal phase
A. causes cervical mucus to thicken.
B. suppresses FSH and LH.
C. causes thickening of the endometrium.
D. All of the choices are correct.
A

High progesterone levels during the luteal phase

D. All of the choices are correct.

111
Q

Pheromones are responsible for the dormitory effect of synchronized menstrual cycles of females
living together.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Pheromones are responsible for the dormitory effect of synchronized menstrual cycles of females
living together.

TRUE

112
Q
The Contraceptive Pill contains
A. FSH.
B. estrogen.
C. progesterone.
D. estrogen and progesterone.
A

The Contraceptive Pill contains

D. estrogen and progesterone.

113
Q

For the rhythm method to be successful, coitus (sexual intercourse) must not happen
A. during the first 10 days of the menstrual cycle.
B. 6 days prior to ovulation through 2 days after ovulation.
C. during the last 10 days of the menstrual cycle.
D. Both during the first 10 days of the menstrual cycle and during the last 10 days of the menstrual
cycle.

A

For the rhythm method to be successful, coitus (sexual intercourse) must not happen

B. 6 days prior to ovulation through 2 days after ovulation.

114
Q

The secretion of gonadotropins (FSH and LH) will ___________ during menopause.
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain the same

A

The secretion of gonadotropins (FSH and LH) will ___________ during menopause.
A. increase

115
Q
The weak form of estrogen found in the blood of postmenopausal women is termed as
A. estrogen.
B. progesterone.
C. estrone.
D. menopausal estrogen.
A

The weak form of estrogen found in the blood of postmenopausal women is termed as

C. estrone.

116
Q

Having a greater amount of fat tissue after menopause may reduce the occurance of osteoporosis.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Having a greater amount of fat tissue after menopause may reduce the occurance of osteoporosis.

TRUE

117
Q
The process of sperm gaining the ability to fertilize an ovum as they pass through the female
reproductive tract is called
A. capacitation.
B. receptiveness.
C. spermatogenesis.
D. spermiogenesis.
A

The process of sperm gaining the ability to fertilize an ovum as they pass through the female
reproductive tract is called

A. capacitation.

118
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ provides enzymes that allows the sperm to digest a pathway through the zona
pellucida to the oocyte.
A. chorion
B. zygote
C. acrosome
D. blastocyst
A

The __________ provides enzymes that allows the sperm to digest a pathway through the zona
pellucida to the oocyte.

C. acrosome

119
Q
What ion is released by the fertilized egg that prevents polyspermy?
A. Na+
B. K+
C. Cl--
D. Ca2+
A

What ion is released by the fertilized egg that prevents polyspermy?

D. Ca2+

120
Q
Besides chromosomes, what else does the sperm provide to the zygote that is necessary for cell
division to occur?
A. mitochondria
B. centrosome
C. enzymes
D. All of the choices are correct.
A

Besides chromosomes, what else does the sperm provide to the zygote that is necessary for cell
division to occur?

B. centrosome

121
Q

The calcium wave that prevents polyspermy also causes
A. the sperm to lose its tail.
B. the secondary oocyte to finish meiosis II.
C. mitosis to occur.
D. All of these choices are correct.

A

The calcium wave that prevents polyspermy also causes

B. the secondary oocyte to finish meiosis II.

122
Q
The trophoblast cells of the chorion secrete \_\_\_\_\_ which maintains the corpus luteum thereby
preventing menstruation.
A. GnRH
B. ACTH
C. hCG
D. FSH
A

The trophoblast cells of the chorion secrete _____ which maintains the corpus luteum thereby
preventing menstruation.

C. hCG

123
Q
The progressive fusion of the acrosomal membrane with the plasma membrane of the sperm is called
the
A. spermatogenesis.
B. acrosomal reaction.
C. spermiogenesis.
D. capacitation.
A

The progressive fusion of the acrosomal membrane with the plasma membrane of the sperm is called
the

B. acrosomal reaction.

124
Q
Ova are fertilized in the
A. cervix.
B. fallopian tubes.
C. uterus.
D. vagina.
A

Ova are fertilized in the

B. fallopian tubes.

125
Q
A fertilized egg is called a(n)
A. zygote.
B. blastocyst.
C. morula.
D. embryo.
A

A fertilized egg is called a(n)

A. zygote.

126
Q
What process occurs as the zygote travels towards the uterus in the fallopian tubes?
A. cleavage
B. fertilization
C. capacitation
D. polyspermy
A

What process occurs as the zygote travels towards the uterus in the fallopian tubes?

A. cleavage

127
Q
In vitro fertilization involves a technique called
A. implantation.
B. cleavage.
C. ICSI.
D. acrosomal reaction.
A

In vitro fertilization involves a technique called

C. ICSI.

128
Q
A ball of about eight cells formed about 50 to 60 hours after fertilization is called a
A. zygote.
B. morula.
C. blastocyst.
D. embryo.
A

A ball of about eight cells formed about 50 to 60 hours after fertilization is called a

B. morula.

129
Q
Nidation is the process of the blastocyst implanting itself into the thick
A. myometrium.
B. fallopian tubes.
C. endometrium.
D. epimetrium.
A

Nidation is the process of the blastocyst implanting itself into the thick

C. endometrium.

130
Q
A stem cell that can give rise to all tissues except the trophoblast cells of the placenta is called
A. totipotent.
B. retropotent.
C. multipotent.
D. pluripotent.
A

A stem cell that can give rise to all tissues except the trophoblast cells of the placenta is called

D. pluripotent.

131
Q
The blastocyst consists of the
A. blastocyst and amnion.
B. morula and placenta.
C. chorion and inner cell mass.
D. embryo and chorion.
A

The blastocyst consists of the

C. chorion and inner cell mass.

132
Q
The possibility that nuclear transplantation from one cell to another could produce stem cells is
referred to as
A. totipotent cloning.
B. reproductive cloning.
C. therapeutic cloning.
D. multipotent cloning.
A

The possibility that nuclear transplantation from one cell to another could produce stem cells is
referred to as

C. therapeutic cloning.

133
Q
The ability of a cell to give rise to an entire organism if implanted in a uterus is termed as
A. totipotent.
B. multipotent.
C. pluripotent.
D. reproductive cloning.
A

The ability of a cell to give rise to an entire organism if implanted in a uterus is termed as

A. totipotent.

134
Q

Inhibition of the decidual reaction would prevent placental formation.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Inhibition of the decidual reaction would prevent placental formation.

TRUE

135
Q
What is the procedure in which some amnionic fluid is aspired in order to obtain sloughed off fetal
cells for examination?
A. placentocentesis
B. amniocentesis
C. chorioncentesis
D. uterocentesis
A

What is the procedure in which some amnionic fluid is aspired in order to obtain sloughed off fetal
cells for examination?

B. amniocentesis

136
Q
The chorion frondosum develops from the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ layer of the chorion.
A. cytotrophoblast
B. yolk sac
C. syncytiotrophoblast
D. amnion
A

The chorion frondosum develops from the ___________ layer of the chorion.

A. cytotrophoblast

137
Q
What is a noninvasive method of determining structural abnormalities in the fetus called?
A. ultrasound
B. chorionic villi biopsy
C. X-ray
D. amniocentesis
A

What is a noninvasive method of determining structural abnormalities in the fetus called?

A. ultrasound

138
Q

Induced pluripotent stem cells are useful for all of the following EXCEPT
A. to test drugs for treatments of diseases.
B. to generate cells with genetic diseases for study.
C. to produce stem cells to treat diseases.
D. to cause cancer.

A

Induced pluripotent stem cells are useful for all of the following EXCEPT

D. to cause cancer.

139
Q
Gonadotropic hormones include all of the following EXCEPT
A. adrenocorticotropin.
B. follicle-stimulating hormone.
C. luteinizing hormone.
D. human chorionic gonadotropin.
A

Gonadotropic hormones include all of the following EXCEPT

A. adrenocorticotropin.

140
Q
The last embryonic tissue layer to form is the
A. trophoblast.
B. endoderm.
C. ectoderm.
D. mesoderm.
A

The last embryonic tissue layer to form is the

D. mesoderm.

141
Q
Genetic disorders can be detected earliest by
A. amniocentesis.
B. chorionic villus biopsy.
C. newborn screening.
D. ultrasound.
A

Genetic disorders can be detected earliest by

B. chorionic villus biopsy.

142
Q
What hormone is secreted by the trophoblast cells of the chorion that is used in a pregnancy test to
determine if a woman is pregnant?
A. LH
B. hCG
C. estrogen
D. oxytocin
A

What hormone is secreted by the trophoblast cells of the chorion that is used in a pregnancy test to
determine if a woman is pregnant?

B. hCG

143
Q

The chorionic membrane of the zygote has genes from the father and is therefore foreign to the
mother’s immune system.
TRUE or FALSE

A

The chorionic membrane of the zygote has genes from the father and is therefore foreign to the
mother’s immune system.

TRUE

144
Q

The placenta has surface FAS ligand receptors that causes apoptosis of T lymphocytes and thus
prevents immune system attack.
TRUE or FALSE

A

The placenta has surface FAS ligand receptors that causes apoptosis of T lymphocytes and thus
prevents immune system attack.

TRUE

145
Q
The maternal contribution to the placenta is the
A. decidua basalis.
B. chorion frondosum.
C. chorionic villi.
D. yolk sac.
A

The maternal contribution to the placenta is the

A. decidua basalis.

146
Q

Blood within the umbilical ___________ contain(s) high concentrations of fetal waste products.
A. arteries
B. veins
C. capillaries

A

Blood within the umbilical ___________ contain(s) high concentrations of fetal waste products.

A. arteries

147
Q

The placenta is unable to synthesize estrogens from cholesterol.
TRUE or FALSE

A

The placenta is unable to synthesize estrogens from cholesterol.

TRUE

148
Q

The __________ is an “incomplete endocrine gland” because it cannot produce estrogen and
progesterone without the aid of precursors supplied to it by both the mother and the fetus.
A. ovary
B. uterus
C. placenta
D. uterine tube

A

The __________ is an “incomplete endocrine gland” because it cannot produce estrogen and
progesterone without the aid of precursors supplied to it by both the mother and the fetus.

C. placenta

149
Q
Increased maternal lipolysis is stimulated by the secretion of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ by the placenta.
A. human chorionic gonadotropin
B. chorionic somatomammotropin
C. progesterone
D. estrogen
A

Increased maternal lipolysis is stimulated by the secretion of ___________ by the placenta.

B. chorionic somatomammotropin

150
Q
The placental hormone which stimulates glucose sparing by maternal tissues is
A. chorionic somatomammotropin.
B. chorionic gonadotropin.
C. progesterone.
D. estrogen.
A

The placental hormone which stimulates glucose sparing by maternal tissues is

A. chorionic somatomammotropin.

151
Q

Initiation of labor involves all of the following EXCEPT
A. corticotropin-releasing hormone from the placenta.
B. DHEAS from the fetal adrenal gland.
C. cortisol from the mother and fetus.
D. human chorionic gonadotropin from the placenta.

A

Initiation of labor involves all of the following EXCEPT

D. human chorionic gonadotropin from the placenta.

152
Q

Cortisol from the fetal adrenal gland will stimulate maturation of the lungs and production of surfactant.
TRUE of FALSE

A

Cortisol from the fetal adrenal gland will stimulate maturation of the lungs and production of surfactant.

TRUE

153
Q

DHEAS travels from the fetal adrenal cortex to the placenta where it is converted into oxytocin.
TURE or FALSE

A

DHEAS travels from the fetal adrenal cortex to the placenta where it is converted into oxytocin.

FALSE

154
Q

Which of the following is NOT a role of estriol in parturition?
A. produces more receptors for oxytocin
B. produces the hormone relaxin
C. produces more receptors for prostaglandins
D. produces more gap junctions between myometrial cells

A

Which of the following is NOT a role of estriol in parturition?

B. produces the hormone relaxin

155
Q
What hormone may play a role in reducing the size of the uterus following delivery?
A. progesterone
B. prostaglandin
C. oxytocin
D. prolactin
A

What hormone may play a role in reducing the size of the uterus following delivery?

C. oxytocin

156
Q
The sensitivity of the uterus to oxytocin is increased by
A. prostaglandin.
B. progesterone.
C. testosterone.
D. estrogen.
A

The sensitivity of the uterus to oxytocin is increased by

D. estrogen.

157
Q

In humans parturition can be blocked by
A. inhibiting the actions of progesterone.
B. stimulating the actions of estrogen.
C. inhibiting the actions of oxytocin.
D. stimulating the actions of chorionic gonadotropin.

A

In humans parturition can be blocked by

C. inhibiting the actions of oxytocin.

158
Q
Genetic screening of newborns using only a drop of blood can determine which of the following
genetic disorders?
A. hypothyroidism
B. cystic fibrosis
C. sickle cell anemia
D. All of the choices are correct.
A

Genetic screening of newborns using only a drop of blood can determine which of the following
genetic disorders?

D. All of the choices are correct.

159
Q

Dopamine may function as a prolactin-inhibiting hormone.

TRUE or FALSE

A

Dopamine may function as a prolactin-inhibiting hormone.

TRUE

160
Q
What hormone is secreted by the anterior pituitary that stimulates production of milk proteins?
A. oxytocin
B. growth hormone
C. MSH
D. prolactin
A

What hormone is secreted by the anterior pituitary that stimulates production of milk proteins?

D. prolactin

161
Q
Milk let-down
A. is stimulated by epinephrine.
B. relies only on autonomic nerves.
C. is inhibited by oxytocin.
D. may occur in response to auditory cues.
A

Milk let-down

D. may occur in response to auditory cues.

162
Q

Development of the mammary gland during gestation
A. is inhibited by estrogens.
B. is stimulated by estrogens.
C. is elevated when dopamine is given to pregnant women.
D. requires the permissive effects of insulin, testosterone, and cortisol.

A

Development of the mammary gland during gestation

B. is stimulated by estrogens.

163
Q
Infants that are breastfed receive which of the following from the mother?
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgF
D. IgE
A

Infants that are breastfed receive which of the following from the mother?
A. IgA

164
Q

The stimulus of sucking causes release of prolactin-releasing hormone via a neuroendocrine
reflex.
TRUE or FALSE

A

The stimulus of sucking causes release of prolactin-releasing hormone via a neuroendocrine
reflex.

TRUE

165
Q

Breastfeeding is an excellent contraceptive for women in developed countries.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Breastfeeding is an excellent contraceptive for women in developed countries.

FALSE

166
Q
If a male has his testes removed following testicular cancer, which of the following is likely to occur:
A. decreased FSH/LH secretion.
B. increased testosterone production.
C. increased inhibin production.
D. increased levels of GnRH.
A

If a male has his testes removed following testicular cancer, which of the following is likely to occur:

D. increased levels of GnRH.

167
Q

Lack of adequate progesterone post ovulation can lead to a miscarriage. Which of the following could
cause the decreased progesterone levels?
A. increased estrogen production from the ovaries
B. increased FSH from the anterior pituitary gland
C. lack of human chorionic gonadotropin hormone production
D. lack of estradiol from the corpus albicans

A

Lack of adequate progesterone post ovulation can lead to a miscarriage. Which of the following could
cause the decreased progesterone levels?

C. lack of human chorionic gonadotropin hormone production

168
Q
Lack of cGMP can lead to which of the following conditions:
A. infertility.
B. nondisjunction.
C. endometriosis.
D. erectile dysfunction.
E. ammenorrhea.
A

Lack of cGMP can lead to which of the following conditions:

D. erectile dysfunction.

169
Q

Which of the following is a result of increased testosterone levels?
A. The increased conversion of testosterone to estrogen in the red bone marrow.
B. The increased cytokine activity within the blood vessels.
C. Higher levels of hepcidin in the blood.
D. Increased erythropoietin release in the blood.

A

Which of the following is a result of increased testosterone levels?

D. Increased erythropoietin release in the blood.

170
Q
Which of the following would increase GnRH levels?
A. decreased estrogen
B. increased progesterone
C. increased hCG
D. increased FSH
E. increased inhibin
A

Which of the following would increase GnRH levels?

A. decreased estrogen

171
Q
What effect would the changing estrogen and progesterone levels during parturition have on lactation?
A. decreased OT
B. increased PRL
C. increased dopamine
D. decreased TRH
A

What effect would the changing estrogen and progesterone levels during parturition have on lactation?

B. increased PRL