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Mid State Fall 2017 - Advance Anatomy and Physiology > Chapter 19 > Flashcards

Chapter 19 Flashcards

1
Q

One gram of fat contains more energy than 2 grams of protein.
TRUE or FALSE

A

One gram of fat contains more energy than 2 grams of protein.

TRUE

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2
Q 
The metabolic rate of an awake, relaxed person, 12 to 14 hours after eating, at a comfortable
temperature is known as the
A. average metabolic rate.
B. basal metabolic rate.
C. oxidative metabolic rate.
D. metabolic rate.
A

The metabolic rate of an awake, relaxed person, 12 to 14 hours after eating, at a comfortable
temperature is known as the

B. basal metabolic rate.

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3
Q 
The main factor determining differences in energy requirements of individuals of similar gender and
weight is the difference in
A. physical activity.
B. genetics.
C. body temperature.
D. height.
A

The main factor determining differences in energy requirements of individuals of similar gender and
weight is the difference in

A. physical activity.

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4
Q

Metabolic rate can be measured by the
A. amount of heat generated by the body.
B. heart and respiration rates.
C. amount of oxygen consumed by the body.
D. amount of heat generated and the amount of oxygen consumed by the body.

A

Metabolic rate can be measured by the

D. amount of heat generated and the amount of oxygen consumed by the body.

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5
Q

A positive energy balance occurs when
A. energy expenditures are greater than the calorie value of food.
B. energy expenditures balance the calorie value of food.
C. the calorie value of food is greater than energy expenditures.
D. you lose weight.

A

A positive energy balance occurs when

C. the calorie value of food is greater than energy expenditures.

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6
Q 
What is the average energy expenditure for an active man not engaged in heavy manual labor?
A. 2100 kcal/day
B. 2500 kcal/day
C. 2900 kcal/day
D. 3200 kcal/day
A

What is the average energy expenditure for an active man not engaged in heavy manual labor?

A. 2100 kcal/day

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7
Q 
Reactions that involve synthesis of DNA, proteins, and other molecules are considered
A. anabolic.
B. hydrolytic.
C. catabolic.
D. degradation.
A

Reactions that involve synthesis of DNA, proteins, and other molecules are considered

A. anabolic.

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8
Q

Individuals consuming diets containing omega-3 fatty acids are less likely to develop cardiovascular
disease.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Individuals consuming diets containing omega-3 fatty acids are less likely to develop cardiovascular
disease.

TRUE

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9
Q

There are nine essential amino acids and 2 essential fatty acids.
TRUE or FALSE

A

There are nine essential amino acids and 2 essential fatty acids.

TRUE

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10
Q

If an unsaturated fatty acid chain is 22 carbons long and the first of three double bonds is at the fifth
carbon from the methyl end, it would be an
A. omega-5 fatty acid.
B. omega-22 fatty acid.
C. omega-3 fatty acid.
D. omega-16 fatty acid.

A

If an unsaturated fatty acid chain is 22 carbons long and the first of three double bonds is at the fifth
carbon from the methyl end, it would be an

A. omega-5 fatty acid.

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11
Q

Fatty acids which have double bonds between the carbons are called saturated fatty acids.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Fatty acids which have double bonds between the carbons are called saturated fatty acids.

FALSE

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12
Q 
If an individual consumes excess calories in the form of carbohydrates, the excess energy is stored
as
A. glycogen.
B. structural carbohydrates.
C. fat.
D. skeletal muscle.
A

If an individual consumes excess calories in the form of carbohydrates, the excess energy is stored
as

C. fat.

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13
Q 
Which of the following is NOT an essential amino acid?
A. leucine
B. valine
C. lysine
D. proline
A

Which of the following is NOT an essential amino acid?

D. proline

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14
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a fat-soluble vitamin?
A. vitamin E
B. vitamin A
C. vitamin C
D. vitamin D
A

Which of the following is NOT a fat-soluble vitamin?

C. vitamin C

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15
Q 
The vitamin D derivative calcipotriene is used to treat the skin condition
A. pellagra.
B. beriberi.
C. scurvy.
D. psoriasis.
A

The vitamin D derivative calcipotriene is used to treat the skin condition

D. psoriasis.

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16
Q 
Wound healing would be delayed due to a lack of
A. vitamin E.
B. vitamin C.
C. potassium.
D. vitamin A.
A

Wound healing would be delayed due to a lack of

B. vitamin C.

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17
Q 
Strict vegetarians may be susceptible to
A. pernicious anemia.
B. night blindness.
C. pellagra.
D. scurvy.
A

Strict vegetarians may be susceptible to

A. pernicious anemia.

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18
Q 
Which of the following acts as an antioxidant within the body?
A. vitamin C
B. vitamin A
C. vitamin K
D. niacin
A

Which of the following acts as an antioxidant within the body?

A. vitamin C

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19
Q 
Blood clotting requires
A. vitamin C.
B. vitamin D.
C. vitamin K.
D. vitamin E.
A

Blood clotting requires

C. vitamin K.

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20
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of derivatives of water-soluble vitamins?
A. coenzymes in metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins
B. forming hydrogen carriers NAD and FAD
C. cofactors for enzymes
D. intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphate

A

Which of the following is NOT a function of derivatives of water-soluble vitamins?

D. intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphate

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21
Q 
Which vitamin and its deficiency is NOT correctly matched?
A. vitamin B1 - beriberi
B. folate - pernicious anemia
C. niacin - pellagra
D. vitamin D - rickets
A

Which vitamin and its deficiency is NOT correctly matched?

B. folate - pernicious anemia

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22
Q 
Which of the following minerals is needed only in trace amounts by the body?
A. sodium
B. potassium
C. iron
D. calcium
A

Which of the following minerals is needed only in trace amounts by the body?

C. iron

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23
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of oxidative stress?
A. protects from development of type 2 diabetes mellitus.
B. contributes to aging and degenerative diseases associated with aging.
C. promotes the malignant growth of cancers.
D. contributes to all inflammatory diseases.

A

Which of the following is NOT true of oxidative stress?

A. protects from development of type 2 diabetes mellitus.

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24
Q 
Tissue damage by free radicals is prevented to some extent by all of the following EXCEPT
A. beta-carotene.
B. vitamin C.
C. vitamin D.
D. vitamin E.
A

Tissue damage by free radicals is prevented to some extent by all of the following EXCEPT

C. vitamin D.

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25
Q 
Superoxide radicals have which of the following beneficial effects?
A. killing bacteria
B. promote proliferation of fibroblasts
C. promote proliferation of lymphocytes
D. All of the choices are correct.
A

Superoxide radicals have which of the following beneficial effects?

D. All of the choices are correct.

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26
Q 
Excessive production of free radicals that can damage lipids, proteins, and DNA is called
A. inflammation.
B. antioxidation.
C. oxidative stress.
D. quenching.
A

Excessive production of free radicals that can damage lipids, proteins, and DNA is called

C. oxidative stress.

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27
Q 
A free radical has
A. paired electrons.
B. unpaired electrons.
C. unbonded electrons.
D. bonded electrons.
A

A free radical has

B. unpaired electrons.

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28
Q

The nitric oxide radical promotes vasodilation.

TRUE or FALSE

A

The nitric oxide radical promotes vasodilation.

TRUE

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29
Q

Oxidative stress is associated with many diseases because of the buildup of free radicals in the nucleus
of aerobic cells.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Oxidative stress is associated with many diseases because of the buildup of free radicals in the nucleus
of aerobic cells.

FALSE

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30
Q 
Which of the following is NOT an enzymatic protection against oxidative stress?
A. catalase
B. superoxide dismutase
C. alpha-tocopherol
D. glutathioneperoxidase
A

Which of the following is NOT an enzymatic protection against oxidative stress?

C. alpha-tocopherol

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31
Q 
Which of the following is NOT an endogenous source of ROS (reactive oxygen species)?
A. peroxisomes
B. UV light
C. mitochondria
D. NADPH oxidase
A

Which of the following is NOT an endogenous source of ROS (reactive oxygen species)?

B. UV light

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32
Q 
Which of the following is NOT an exogenous cause of ROS (reactive oxygen species) production?
A. catalase
B. drugs
C. environmental toxins
D. ionizing radiation
A

Which of the following is NOT an exogenous cause of ROS (reactive oxygen species) production?

A. catalase

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33
Q 
What is the major nonenzymatic protective mechanism against oxidative stress?
A. ascorbic acid
B. alpha-tocopherol
C. beta-carotene
D. glutathione
A

What is the major nonenzymatic protective mechanism against oxidative stress?

D. glutathione

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34
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a nonenzymatic protection against oxidative stress?
A. hydrogen peroxide
B. glutathione
C. ascorbic acid
D. alpha-tocopherol
A

Which of the following is NOT a nonenzymatic protection against oxidative stress?

A. hydrogen peroxide

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35
Q

Primary energy reserves include glycogen and fat.

TRUE or FALSE

A

Primary energy reserves include glycogen and fat.

TRUE

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36
Q 
The preferred energy source for resting skeletal muscle is (are)
A. glucose.
B. glycogen.
C. fatty acids.
D. protein.
A

The preferred energy source for resting skeletal muscle is (are)

C. fatty acids.

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37
Q 
The only energy source for the brain is
A. glucose.
B. glycogen.
C. fatty acid.
D. protein.
A

The only energy source for the brain is

A. glucose.

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38
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a circulating energy substrate?
A. glucose
B. glycogen
C. fatty acids
D. amino acids
A

Which of the following is NOT a circulating energy substrate?

B. glycogen

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39
Q 
Where is the major site of body energy storage?
A. brown fat
B. liver
C. white fat
D. inside skeletal muscle cells
A

Where is the major site of body energy storage?

C. white fat

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40
Q

The body’s adipostat works in a negative feedback way to maintain adipose tissue to keep you from
losing weight.
TRUE or FALSE

A

The body’s adipostat works in a negative feedback way to maintain adipose tissue to keep you from
losing weight.

TRUE

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41
Q

Lipolysis is the process by which triglycerides are stored in adipocytes.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Lipolysis is the process by which triglycerides are stored in adipocytes.

FALSE

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42
Q

A very thin female would have low amounts of leptin and may enter puberty late or experience
amenorrhea.
TRUE or FALSE

A

A very thin female would have low amounts of leptin and may enter puberty late or experience
amenorrhea.

TRUE

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43
Q

Obesity in adults results primarily from adipocyte hyperplasia.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Obesity in adults results primarily from adipocyte hyperplasia.

FALSE

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44
Q 
The nuclear receptor protein required for differentiation of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is PPARγ (perioxisome
proliferator activated receptor γ).
A. erythrocytes
B. fibroblasts
C. adipocytes
D. reticulocytes
A

The nuclear receptor protein required for differentiation of ________ is PPARγ (perioxisome
proliferator activated receptor γ).

C. adipocytes

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45
Q 
Destruction of which cell type in the fetus would affect adipocyte number in the adult?
A. myoblasts
B. neuroblasts
C. epiblasts
D. fibroblasts
A

Destruction of which cell type in the fetus would affect adipocyte number in the adult?

D. fibroblasts

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46
Q

__________ is an adipose tissue hormone that stimulates glucose utilization and fatty acid oxidation
in muscle cells thereby producing an insulin-sensitizing, antidiabetic effect.
A. Leptin
B. Adiponectin
C. TNF alpha
D. Resistin

A

__________ is an adipose tissue hormone that stimulates glucose utilization and fatty acid oxidation
in muscle cells thereby producing an insulin-sensitizing, antidiabetic effect.

B. Adiponectin

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47
Q 
Insulin resistance may be stimulated by elevated concentrations of all of the following EXCEPT
A. tumor necrosis factor alpha.
B. resistin.
C. adiponectin.
D. retinol binding protein 4.
A

Insulin resistance may be stimulated by elevated concentrations of all of the following EXCEPT

C. adiponectin.

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48
Q

Low leptin levels are found in cases of starvation, anorexia, and bulimia.
TRUE of FALSE

A

Low leptin levels are found in cases of starvation, anorexia, and bulimia.

TRUE

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49
Q 
Which of the following are NOT signs of decreased leptin secretion?
A. decline in helper T abilities
B. delayed onset of puberty
C. menstrual abnormalities
D. increased hunger
A

Which of the following are NOT signs of decreased leptin secretion?

D. increased hunger

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50
Q

Exercising at low or moderate intensity promotes use of fatty acids by skeletal muscle.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Exercising at low or moderate intensity promotes use of fatty acids by skeletal muscle.

TRUE

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51
Q

The risk of cardiovascular disease is increased
A. in someone with a “pear shaped” body.
B. in someone with an “apple shaped” body.
C. in someone with a BMI less than 30.
D. in someone with little intra-abdominal fat.

A

The risk of cardiovascular disease is increased

B. in someone with an “apple shaped” body.

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52
Q 
Fat cells are less sensitive to insulin in
A. obese individuals.
B. anorexic individuals.
C. individuals who do not exercise.
D. individuals at their optimal weight.
A

Fat cells are less sensitive to insulin in

A. obese individuals.

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53
Q 
The BMI of a female weighing 130 pounds with a height of 68 inches would be closest to
A. 2.4.
B. 19.8.
C. 76.5.
D. 34.8.
A

The BMI of a female weighing 130 pounds with a height of 68 inches would be closest to

B. 19.8.

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54
Q 
A female with a BMI of 25.5 would be considered
A. obese.
B. overweight.
C. healthy.
D. too thin.
A

A female with a BMI of 25.5 would be considered

B. overweight.

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55
Q 
A BMI of over \_\_\_\_ is considered obese.
A. 20
B. 25
C. 30
D. 35
A

A BMI of over ____ is considered obese.

C. 30

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56
Q 
Which of the following is NOT true of metabolic syndrome?
A. hypotension
B. insulin resistance
C. dyslidipemia
D. central obesity
A

Which of the following is NOT true of metabolic syndrome?

A. hypotension

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57
Q

Hyperphagia is produced by destroying the ventromedial area of the hypothalamus.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Hyperphagia is produced by destroying the ventromedial area of the hypothalamus.

TRUE

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58
Q

Ghrelin is postulated to be important as a satiety factor.

TRUE or FALSE

A

Ghrelin is postulated to be important as a satiety factor.

FALSE

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59
Q

The arcuate nucleus is a region of the thalamus involved in hunger regulation.
TRUE or FALSE

A

The arcuate nucleus is a region of the thalamus involved in hunger regulation.

FALSE

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60
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a satiety factor that acts to suppress neuropeptide Y and stimulate MSH release.
A. Leptin
B. MSH
C. Glucose
D. Insulin
A

_______ is a satiety factor that acts to suppress neuropeptide Y and stimulate MSH release.

A. Leptin

61
Q 
Satiety would be induced by all of the following EXCEPT
A. cholecystokinin.
B. naloxone.
C. morphine.
D. serotonin.
A

Satiety would be induced by all of the following EXCEPT

C. morphine.

62
Q 
A tumor suppressing the activity of which brain area could induce obesity?
A. ventromedial hypothalamus
B. lateral hypothalamus
C. dorsomedial hypothalamus
D. anterior hypothalamus
A

A tumor suppressing the activity of which brain area could induce obesity?

B. lateral hypothalamus

63
Q 
Which of the following are involved in short-term regulation of hunger?
A. leptin and CCK
B. ghrelin and CCK
C. insulin and PYY
D. leptin and insulin
A

Which of the following are involved in short-term regulation of hunger?

B. ghrelin and CCK

64
Q 
Which of the following are involved in long-term regulation of hunger?
A. leptin and CCK
B. ghrelin and CCK
C. insulin and PYY
D. leptin and insulin
A

Which of the following are involved in long-term regulation of hunger?

D. leptin and insulin

65
Q 
Which hunger hormone is released in between meals?
A. CCK
B. polypeptide YY
C. MSH
D. ghrelin
A

Which hunger hormone is released in between meals?

D. ghrelin

66
Q 
To decrease hunger, MSH must bind to its receptor, \_\_\_\_\_\_ in the arcuate nucleus of the
hypothalamus.
A. neuropeptide Y
B. agouti-related protein
C. melanocortin 4
D. PYY
A

To decrease hunger, MSH must bind to its receptor, ______ in the arcuate nucleus of the
hypothalamus.

C. melanocortin 4

67
Q

Ablation of the thyroid gland would cause a drop in basal metabolic rate.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Ablation of the thyroid gland would cause a drop in basal metabolic rate.

TRUE

68
Q 
Activation of the sympathoadrenal system would cause
A. hypoglycemia.
B. diabetes insipidus.
C. hyperglycemia.
D. excessive weight gain.
A

Activation of the sympathoadrenal system would cause

C. hyperglycemia.

69
Q 
Starvation decreases metabolic rate by as much as
A. 10%.
B. 20%.
C. 40%.
D. 65%.
A

Starvation decreases metabolic rate by as much as

C. 40%.

70
Q 
Which of the following components of energy expenditure is greatest in an average, sedentary adult?
A. basal metabolic rate.
B. adaptive thermogenesis.
C. physical activity.
D. None of the choices are correct.
A

Which of the following components of energy expenditure is greatest in an average, sedentary adult?

A. basal metabolic rate.

71
Q

One of the factors that increases body heat during adaptive thermogenesis is the production of
___________ by skeletal muscle. This product causes leakage of protons from the intermembrane
space of the mitochondria.
A. uncoupling protein
B. insulin
C. glycogen
D. glucagon

A

One of the factors that increases body heat during adaptive thermogenesis is the production of
___________ by skeletal muscle. This product causes leakage of protons from the intermembrane
space of the mitochondria.

A. uncoupling protein

72
Q 
Adaptive thermogenesis is the heat energy expended by the body in response to all of the following
EXCEPT
A. increase in ambient temperature.
B. digestion of food.
C. physical activity.
D. decrease in ambient temperature.
A

Adaptive thermogenesis is the heat energy expended by the body in response to all of the following
EXCEPT

C. physical activity.

73
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a caloric energy expenditure of the body?
A. BMI
B. physical activity
C. BMR
D. adaptive thermogenesis
A

Which of the following is NOT a caloric energy expenditure of the body?

A. BMI

74
Q 
What is the major function of brown adipose tissue?
A. shivering thermogenesis
B. nonshivering thermogenesis
C. decreasing metabolic rate
D. decrease body temperature
A

What is the major function of brown adipose tissue?

B. nonshivering thermogenesis

75
Q 
What hormone is important in adaptive thermogenesis?
A. calcitonin
B. thyroxine
C. insulin
D. MSH
A

What hormone is important in adaptive thermogenesis?

B. thyroxine

76
Q

Epinephrine increases lipolysis and ketogenesis.

TRUE or FALSE

A

Epinephrine increases lipolysis and ketogenesis.

TRUE

77
Q 
Which of the following increase(s) lipogenesis?
A. insulin
B. epinephrine
C. glucagon
D. All of the choices are correct.
A

Which of the following increase(s) lipogenesis?

A. insulin

78
Q 
Lipolysis is increased by
A. epinephrine.
B. growth hormone.
C. glucagon.
D. All of the choices are correct.
A

Lipolysis is increased by

D. All of the choices are correct.

79
Q 
Which hormone has no effect on blood glucose levels?
A. insulin
B. thyroid hormone
C. growth hormone
D. epinephrine
A

Which hormone has no effect on blood glucose levels?

B. thyroid hormone

80
Q 
Elevated concentrations of glucagon would result in
A. decreased lipolysis.
B. decreased glycogen synthesis.
C. increased gluconeogenesis.
D. increased lipogenesis.
A

Elevated concentrations of glucagon would result in

B. decreased glycogen synthesis.

81
Q

Lipolysis and gluconeogenesis are stimulated when
A. insulin and glucagon are both decreasing.
B. insulin and glucagon are both increasing.
C. insulin is increasing and glucagon is decreasing.
D. insulin is decreasing and glucagon is increasing.

A

Lipolysis and gluconeogenesis are stimulated when

D. insulin is decreasing and glucagon is increasing.

82
Q 
The hormone that antagonizes the effect of growth hormone is
A. glucagon.
B. thyroxin.
C. insulin.
D. epinephrine.
A

The hormone that antagonizes the effect of growth hormone is

C. insulin.

83
Q 
The period between meals is
A. absorptive state.
B. fasting state.
C. postabsorptive state.
D. Both fasting and postabsorptive state.
A

The period between meals is

D. Both fasting and postabsorptive state.

84
Q

Destruction of the alpha cells of the pancreas would decrease glucagon secretion.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Destruction of the alpha cells of the pancreas would decrease glucagon secretion.

TRUE

85
Q

Elevated blood glucose triggers insulin secretion.

TRUE or FALSE

A

Elevated blood glucose triggers insulin secretion.

TRUE

86
Q

Stress hyperglycemia results from the effects of epinephrine and glucagon.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Stress hyperglycemia results from the effects of epinephrine and glucagon.

TRUE

87
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is made by the delta cells of the pancreas.
A. Glucose
B. Somatostatin
C. Glucagon
D. All of the choices are correct.
A

____________ is made by the delta cells of the pancreas.

B. Somatostatin

88
Q 
How much of the blood glucose does the brain use when a person is at rest?
A. 30%
B. 40%
C. 60%
D. 80%
A

How much of the blood glucose does the brain use when a person is at rest?

C. 60%

89
Q

The oral glucose test is a measure of the ability of the alpha cells to secrete insulin and of the ability of
insulin to increase blood glucose levels.
TRUE or FALSE

A

The oral glucose test is a measure of the ability of the alpha cells to secrete insulin and of the ability of
insulin to increase blood glucose levels.

FALSE

90
Q

Insulin secretion is stimulated by _____________ blood glucose concentrations.
A. increased
B. decreased
C. unchanged

A

Insulin secretion is stimulated by _____________ blood glucose concentrations.

A. increased

91
Q 
The effects of glucagon are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ by insulin.
A. enhanced
B. opposed
C. synergized
D. agonized
A

The effects of glucagon are _____________ by insulin.

B. opposed

92
Q 
Destruction of which pancreatic cells would cause hyperglycemia?
A. alpha cells
B. beta cells
C. delta cells
D. None of the choices are correct.
A

Destruction of which pancreatic cells would cause hyperglycemia?

B. beta cells

93
Q 
Insulin promotes cellular uptake of glucose by inserting these channels into plasma membranes.
A. uncoupling protein
B. glucagon
C. Glut4
D. leptin
A

Insulin promotes cellular uptake of glucose by inserting these channels into plasma membranes.

C. Glut4

94
Q

During the absorptive state, catabolic reactions are favored over anabolic reactions.
TRUE or FALSE

A

During the absorptive state, catabolic reactions are favored over anabolic reactions.

FALSE

95
Q 
The major hormone promoter of anabolism is
A. glucagon.
B. somatostatin.
C. epinephrine.
D. insulin.
A

The major hormone promoter of anabolism is

D. insulin.

96
Q 
What organ has the most insulin-stimulated glucose uptake in the absorptive state?
A. skeletal muscle
B. brain
C. liver
D. cardiac muscle
A

What organ has the most insulin-stimulated glucose uptake in the absorptive state?

A. skeletal muscle

97
Q

Once glycogen stores have been met, an excess of calories results in the production of fat.
TRUE of FALSE

A

Once glycogen stores have been met, an excess of calories results in the production of fat.

TRUE

98
Q

Skeletal muscle glycogen is the primary source of stored glucose for nervous tissue during fasting.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Skeletal muscle glycogen is the primary source of stored glucose for nervous tissue during fasting.

FALSE

99
Q 
What hormone is most important for maintaining blood glucose levels during the post-absorptive or
fasting states?
A. insulin
B. glucagon
C. somatostatin
D. thyroxine
A

What hormone is most important for maintaining blood glucose levels during the post-absorptive or
fasting states?

B. glucagon

100
Q 
Formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate molecules is called as
A. glycogenolysis.
B. glycolysis.
C. gluconeogenesis.
D. ketogenesis.
A

Formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate molecules is called as

C. gluconeogenesis.

101
Q

Insulin secretion is often normal in individuals with type I diabetes mellitus.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Insulin secretion is often normal in individuals with type I diabetes mellitus.

FALSE

102
Q

Type II diabetes mellitus
A. is characterized by destruction of the pancreatic alpha cells.
B. is characterized by destruction of the pancreatic beta cells.
C. usually occurs in children.
D. is the most common form of diabetes.

A

Type II diabetes mellitus

D. is the most common form of diabetes.

103
Q 
Uncontrolled type I diabetes mellitus
A. results in hypertension.
B. induces metabolic acidosis.
C. increases brain glucose utilization.
D. decreases hepatic ketogenesis.
A

Uncontrolled type I diabetes mellitus

B. induces metabolic acidosis.

104
Q

Which of the following is true of type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A. Lack of insulin leads to hypertension and decreased fatty acids in the blood.
B. Lack of insulin caused a decrease in glucagon production.
C. Glucagon production increases that leads to hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis.
D. Lack of insulin leads to hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis.

A

Which of the following is true of type 1 diabetes mellitus?

C. Glucagon production increases that leads to hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis.

105
Q

Type 1 diabetes mellitus is an autoimmune disease with T cell destruction of beta cells.
TRUE of FALSE

A

Type 1 diabetes mellitus is an autoimmune disease with T cell destruction of beta cells.

TRUE

106
Q

Exercise increases the amount of GLUT4 carriers in skeletal muscle.
TRUE of FALSE

A

Exercise increases the amount of GLUT4 carriers in skeletal muscle.

TRUE

107
Q 
Drugs that activate PPAR gamma receptors are useful in the treatment of what metabolic disorder?
A. type 1 diabetes
B. type 2 diabetes
C. diabetes insipidus
D. acromegaly
A

Drugs that activate PPAR gamma receptors are useful in the treatment of what metabolic disorder?

B. type 2 diabetes

108
Q 
Which of the following lifestyle changes can improve glucose intolerance and possibly prevent the
onset of type 2 diabetes?
A. increase saturated fat in the diet
B. reduce fiber in the diet
C. increase daily exercise
D. reduce stress
A

Which of the following lifestyle changes can improve glucose intolerance and possibly prevent the
onset of type 2 diabetes?

C. increase daily exercise

109
Q

Insulin resistance in type 2 diabetes mellitus can cause
A. increased hepatic secretion of glucose and decreased uptake by skeletal muscles.
B. increased hepatic secretion of glucose and increased uptake by skeletal muscles.
C. decreased hepatic secretion of glucose and decreased uptake by skeletal muscles.
D. decreased hepatic secretion of glucose and increased uptake by skeletal muscles.

A

Insulin resistance in type 2 diabetes mellitus can cause

A. increased hepatic secretion of glucose and decreased uptake by skeletal muscles.

110
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is an exaggerated response of beta cells to a rise in blood glucose usually seen in
those predisposed to type 2 diabetes.
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Reactive hypoglycemia
C. Stress hyperglycemia
D. Exercise hypoglycemia
A

______________ is an exaggerated response of beta cells to a rise in blood glucose usually seen in
those predisposed to type 2 diabetes.

B. Reactive hypoglycemia

111
Q

Glucagon and cortisol increase lipolysis.

TRUE of FALSE

A

Glucagon and cortisol increase lipolysis.

TRUE

112
Q

_________ lipolysis would result from inadequate cortisol secretion by the adrenal cortex.
A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. No change in

A

_________ lipolysis would result from inadequate cortisol secretion by the adrenal cortex.

B. Decreased

113
Q

A stressful situation would stimulate _____________ gluconeogenesis.
A. increased
B. decreased
C. no change in

A

A stressful situation would stimulate _____________ gluconeogenesis.
A. increased

114
Q 
Glucose regulation by hydrocortisone (cortisol) would be impaired by ablation of the
A. adrenal medulla.
B. thyroid gland.
C. Islets of Langerhans
D. adrenal cortex.
A

Glucose regulation by hydrocortisone (cortisol) would be impaired by ablation of the

D. adrenal cortex.

115
Q 
In brown fat, norepinephrine stimulates
A. beta1-adrenergic receptors.
B. beta2-adrenergic receptors.
C. beta3-adrenergic receptors.
D. All of the choices are correct.
A

In brown fat, norepinephrine stimulates

C. beta3-adrenergic receptors.

116
Q 
What hormone is needed to set the BMR?
A. calcitonin
B. cortisol
C. thyroxine
D. glucagon
A

What hormone is needed to set the BMR?

C. thyroxine

117
Q

The actions of thyroxine ________ the production of metabolic heat.
A. increase
B. decrease
C. have no effect on

A

The actions of thyroxine ________ the production of metabolic heat.

A. increase

118
Q

Children with kwashiorkor have low growth rates and low levels of IGF-1.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Children with kwashiorkor have low growth rates and low levels of IGF-1.

TRUE

119
Q

The actions of insulin are often mediated by insulin-like growth factors.
TRUE or FALSE

A

The actions of insulin are often mediated by insulin-like growth factors.

FALSE

120
Q 
IGF-1 and IGF-2 are known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ because they mediate the actions of growth hormone.
A. somatostatins
B. somatomedins
C. somatotropins
D. None of the choices are correct.
A

IGF-1 and IGF-2 are known as __________ because they mediate the actions of growth hormone.

B. somatomedins

121
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is caused by the oversecretion of growth hormone in adults.
A. Gigantism
B. Myxedema
C. Acromegaly
D. Osteomalacia
A

________ is caused by the oversecretion of growth hormone in adults.

C. Acromegaly

122
Q 
Growth hormone secretion is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ during sleep.
A. increased
B. decreased
C. increased, then stopped
D. decreased, then increased
A

Growth hormone secretion is _____________ during sleep.

A. increased

123
Q

Growth hormone
A. stimulates hepatic somatomedin secretion.
B. directly stimulates bone growth.
C. inhibits lipolysis.
D. stimulates tissue glucose utilization.

A

Growth hormone

A. stimulates hepatic somatomedin secretion.

124
Q

Microgravity reduces bone density that exercise machines have not been able to counter.
TRUE or FALSE

A

Microgravity reduces bone density that exercise machines have not been able to counter.

TRUE

125
Q 
Bone resorption is produced by the action of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which return bone calcium and
phosphate to the blood.
A. osteoblasts
B. osteoclasts
C. osteocytes
D. calcitonin
A

Bone resorption is produced by the action of _____________, which return bone calcium and
phosphate to the blood.

B. osteoclasts

126
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is characterized by parallel losses of mineral and organic matrix from bone.
A. Osteomalacia
B. Rickets
C. Osteoporosis
D. Osteitis deformans (Paget's disease)
A

_________ is characterized by parallel losses of mineral and organic matrix from bone.

C. Osteoporosis

127
Q 
Cells synthesizing hydroxyapatite in bones are termed as
A. osteoblasts.
B. osteoclasts.
C. osteocytes.
D. osteosarcoma cells.
A

Cells synthesizing hydroxyapatite in bones are termed as

A. osteoblasts.

128
Q 
To mobilize calcium from bone, osteoclasts bind to bone and transport \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ into the bone matrix
to dissolve calcium.
A. phosphate
B. calcitonin
C. PTH
D. H+
A

To mobilize calcium from bone, osteoclasts bind to bone and transport ________ into the bone matrix
to dissolve calcium.

D. H+

129
Q 
Osteoclast (growth or function) is inhibited by
A. calcitonin.
B. osteoprotegrin.
C. osteoblasts.
D. All of the choices are correct.
A

Osteoclast (growth or function) is inhibited by

D. All of the choices are correct.

130
Q 
Hypocalcemia enhances the excitability of nerves and muscles because of the \_\_\_\_ permeability of the
cell membrane to \_\_\_.
A. increased, K+
B. decreased, K+
C. increased, Na+
D. decreased, Na+
A

Hypocalcemia enhances the excitability of nerves and muscles because of the ____ permeability of the
cell membrane to ___.

C. increased, Na+

131
Q

Ablation of the thyroid gland would increase plasma Ca2+.

TRUE of FALSE

A

Ablation of the thyroid gland would increase plasma Ca2+.

TRUE

132
Q 
The thyroid gland secretes all of the following EXCEPT
A. thyroxin.
B. triiodothyronine.
C. calcitonin.
D. parathyroid hormone.
A

The thyroid gland secretes all of the following EXCEPT

D. parathyroid hormone.

133
Q 
The actions of parathyroid hormones are is antagonized by the actions of
A. vitamin D.
B. calcitonin.
C. estradiol.
D. insulin.
A

The actions of parathyroid hormones are is antagonized by the actions of

B. calcitonin.

134
Q

Which of the following is NOT an action of parathyroid hormone?
A. stimulates osteoclasts to resorb calcium
B. stimulated osteoblasts to deposit calcium
C. stimulates kidneys to reabsorb calcium
D. stimulates formation of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3

A

Which of the following is NOT an action of parathyroid hormone?

B. stimulated osteoblasts to deposit calcium

135
Q 
Which of the following can regulate the skeletal system?
A. estrogen
B. testosterone
C. calcitonin
D. All of the choices are correct.
A

Which of the following can regulate the skeletal system?

D. All of the choices are correct.

136
Q 
What hormone is necessary for the epiphyseal discs (growth plates) to seal and stop bone growth in
length?
A. calcitonin
B. estrogen
C. PTH
D. leptin
A

What hormone is necessary for the epiphyseal discs (growth plates) to seal and stop bone growth in
length?

B. estrogen

137
Q

Osteoporosis
A. is most common in premenopausal women.
B. does not occur in men.
C. can be treated by stimulating osteoclasts.
D. can be limited by estrogen-replacement therapy.

A

Osteoporosis

D. can be limited by estrogen-replacement therapy.

138
Q

Leptin has an indirect effect on the deposition of calcium into bone.
TRUE of FALSE

A

Osteomalacia results from excess vitamin D.

FALSE

139
Q

Osteomalacia results from excess vitamin D.

TRUE or FALSE

A

Osteomalacia results from excess vitamin D.

FALSE

140
Q

A lack of vitamin D
A. stimulates increased calcitonin secretion.
B. causes osteomalacia in children.
C. decreases absorption of dietary calcium.
D. inhibits PTH secretion.

A

A lack of vitamin D

C. decreases absorption of dietary calcium.

141
Q

People who have had their thyroid glands removed will need to take pharmacological levels of
calcitonin to maintain blood calcium balance.
TRUE or FALSE

A

People who have had their thyroid glands removed will need to take pharmacological levels of
calcitonin to maintain blood calcium balance.

FALSE

142
Q

What would happen following a complete parathyroidectomy and no post-surgical pharmacotherapy
was initiated?
A. Blood calcium levels could drop to dangerously low
levels.
B. Blood calcium levels would increase slightly, but not to dangerous levels.
C. Blood calcium levels would increase to dangerous
levels.
D. No net effect on calcium levels over time as the thyroid would enlarge and secrete additional
calcitonin to compensate.

A

What would happen following a complete parathyroidectomy and no post-surgical pharmacotherapy
was initiated?

A. Blood calcium levels could drop to dangerously low
levels.

143
Q

If a thyroid tumor were to result in hypersecretion of calcitonin, we would expect:
A. a decreased level of osteoclast activity.
B. a reduced rate of endochondral ossification.
C. a rise in blood calcium
concentration.
D. increasingly brittle bones.

A

If a thyroid tumor were to result in hypersecretion of calcitonin, we would expect:

A. a decreased level of osteoclast activity.

144
Q

Which of the following would be favorable to bone deposition?
A. increased kidney reabsorption of calcium
B. increased PTH hormone secretion
C. increased osteoblast
inhibition
D. intestinal excretion of phosphate
E. stem cell differentiation into osteoclasts

A

Which of the following would be favorable to bone deposition?

A. increased kidney reabsorption of calcium

145
Q

Which of the following contains the greatest amount of potential energy?
A. 60 Calories of lettuce
B. ½ teaspoon of peanut butter (contains 4 g fat, 3 g carbohydrate, and 2 g of
protein)
C. a portion of pasta sufficient to raise the temperature of 6 cubic centimeters from 14.5° to 15.5°C
D. a portion of fat trimmed from a steak equal to 6000 calories

A

Which of the following contains the greatest amount of potential energy?

A. 60 Calories of lettuce

146
Q

Which of the following demonstrates a situation when the metabolic rate in A is greater than in B?
A. a single person in two different thermic states; A = exercise induced hyperthermia, B = surgically
induced hypothermia
B. a single person running at different two speeds; A = 5.5 mph, and B = 7.0 mph
C. two different people running at the same speed; person A = 155 lbs, person B = 180 lbs
D. a single person in two different thyroid states; A = hypothyroidism, B = hyperthyroidism

A

Which of the following demonstrates a situation when the metabolic rate in A is greater than in B?

A. a single person in two different thermic states; A = exercise induced hyperthermia, B = surgically
induced hypothermia

147
Q

Which of the following situations would result in a chronic state of elevated glucagon,
decreased insulin, increased growth hormone, increased cortisol, and decreased sex steroids?
A. a chronic state of fasting
B. a bodybuilder immediately post-workout
C. a middle-aged male with metabolic syndrome
D. a menopausal female in the absorptive state

A

Which of the following situations would result in a chronic state of elevated glucagon,
decreased insulin, increased growth hormone, increased cortisol, and decreased sex steroids?

A. a chronic state of fasting

148
Q

Which of the following is associated with an effective treatment of type 2 diabetes?
A. exercise related adipocyte atrophy, fasting blood glucose reductions, and increased insulin
sensitivity
B. exercise related muscle hypertrophy, increased blood glucose after 2 hours of an oral-glucose
tolerance test, and increased fasting insulin levels
C. exercise dependent GLUT4 carrier translocation, increased glycosuria, increased insulin resistance

A

Which of the following is associated with an effective treatment of type 2 diabetes?

A. exercise related adipocyte atrophy, fasting blood glucose reductions, and increased insulin
sensitivity

Mid State Fall 2017 - Advance Anatomy and Physiology (20 decks)

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