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Bradley Leaders Course > Chapter 2 Review Questions > Flashcards

Chapter 2 Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What does the acronym FART stand for?

A

Fuselage
Armament
Rotor
Tail

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2
Q

What does the acronym WHAT stand for?

A

Wheels/Track
Hull
Armament
Turret

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3
Q

What are three mandatory parts of a fire command?

A

Description
Execution
Termination

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4
Q

How many elements of a fire command are there, and what are they?

A

There are seven elements of a fire command.

Alert, Ammunition or Weapon, Description, Direction, Range/Elevation, Execution, Termination

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5
Q

What are the two termination commands?

A

Cease Fire

Cease Tracking

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6
Q

How many weapon control statuses are there?

A

Four

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7
Q

What are the names of the four weapon control statuses?

A

Weapons Hold
Weapons Tight
Weapons Free
Cease Fire

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8
Q

What are the definitions of the following four fire control statuses: Weapons Hold, Weapons Tight, Weapons Free, and Cease Fire?

A

Weapons Hold - Engage only if engaged or ordered to engage.
Weapons Tight - Engage only targets that are positively identified as enemy.
Weapons Free - Engage any targets that are not positively identified as friendly.
Cease Fire - All firing stops immediately.

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9
Q

What is the last verbal response announced by the firer before firing the weapon system?

A

On The Way

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10
Q

Who can give the command of fire?

A

The vehicle commander is the only authorized crewman to issue the command of fire.

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11
Q

What does the acronym DIDEA stand for?

A

Detect, Identify, Decide, Engage, Assess

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12
Q

What are seven Soldier signatures?

A

Foxholes, trash, small arms fire, sounds (voices/equipment/movement), dismounted movement (visual), footprints, broken vegetation, animal disturbances, flashlights/illumination tape.

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13
Q

What are five target direction techniques?

A 
Clock
Sector
Traverse
Reference Point
Grid
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14
Q

What are the five thermal signatures detected by thermal sights?

A 
Solar Heat
Fuel Combustion
Friction
Thermal Reflections
Body Heat
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15
Q

What are three Joint Combat Identification Marking Systems (JCIMS)?

A

Combat Identification Panels (CIP)
Thermal Identification Panels (TIP)
Phoenix Beacons

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16
Q

What are the target threat levels and their definitions?

A

Most Dangerous - Target with armor-defeating capabilities that appears to be preparing to engage.
Dangerous - Target with armor-defeating capabilities that is not preparing to engage.
Least Dangerous - Target that does not have an armor-defeating weapon system. Although these targets do not have the means to destroy your vehicle, they may still have the ability to call in other equipment that can.

17
Q

What is the operational range of the Laser Range Finder (LRF)?

A

190m - 9995m

18
Q

What is the engagement range (without ballistic solutions or kinematic lead) of a vehicle with a 1,200 meter battle sight?

A

0m - 1600m

19
Q

What is the standard battle sight range for AP?

A

1200m

20
Q

Name and describe the direct fire engagement assessment kill standards?

A

Mobility Kill - Degrades a vehicle’s ability to move under its own power but still maintains the ability to use its weapon systems.
Firepower Kill - Prevents a vehicle’s ability to use its weapon systems.
Mobility and Firepower Kill will make the vehicle combat ineffective.
Catastrophic Kill - Total loss of weapon systems, vehicle mobility, and all on board equipment.

21
Q

What two reports can be sent to higher headquarters to outline their engagement, current situation, and enemy battle damage assessment?

A

BLUE- 2 (SITREP)
Battle Damage Assessment (BDA)

These reports should include at a minimum:
Friendly action taken/situation.
Estimated location of destroyed enemy vehicle(s).
Number of vehicles engaged or destroyed.
Time of situation.
Vehicular position/posture.
Tactical intentions.

22
Q

What are the Fire Control Components?

A 
The Gunner's Sight Control Panel (GSCP)
Combat Override Switch (COS)
Remote Bi-ocular Display (RBD)
Commander's Tactical Display (CTD)
Gunner's Hand Station (GHS)
System Control Box (SCB)
Commander's Sight Control Panel (CSCP)
Commander's Data Entry Tool (CDET)
Commander's Hand Station (CHS)
Power Interface Box (PIB)
Turret Processing Unit (TPU)
Inertial Navigation Unit (INU)
Missile Control Subsystem (MCS)
Gun Control Unit (GCU)
23
Q

Describe the Target Designate process.

A

Gunner: “CANNOT IDENTIFY”

Commander: “DESIGNATE”

Gunner: Gunner selects proper weapon, ammunition, with NO ZOOM induced (Ensure Handstation returns to the neutral position)

Commander: Engages palm grip, presses target designate button, keeping the palm grip engaged.

Gunner: Upon acquiring the target announces “IDENTIFIED”.

Commander: Releases the palm grip. Continues scanning whole sector using Commander’s Independent Viewer (CIV).

24
Q

What component controls the selecting and firing of the 25mm and the Coax?

A

Gun Control Unit (GCU)

25
Q

What does the Inertial Navigation Unit monitor?

A

Roll - Rotation around an axis drawn through the body of the vehicle from tail to nose in the normal direction of travel.
Pitch - Rotation around an axis running from the driver’s left to right in a vehicle.
Yaw - Rotation around an axis drawn from top to bottom, and perpendicular to the other two axes.

26
Q

What is required for Kinematic Lead?

A

Target, Range, Ammo, and constant input on the hand station.

27
Q

What monitors the position of the hull in relation to the turret?

A

Position Interface Box (PIB)

28
Q

Name 5 Line Replaceable Units effected by silent watch.

A 
Bradley Eyesafe Laser Rangefinder (ELRF) Standby
Gun Control Unit (GCU) (Standby)
Turret Drive Control Unit (TDCU) Standby
IBAS Defogger (Standby)
TDS Drive power (Standby)
29
Q

What does selecting degraded gun mode do?

A

Automatically selects the 25mm gun at a HI rate of fire and the ammo feed defaults to the large ready box with the AP ballistic solution.

30
Q

What does a steady SEAR light indicate?

A

Bolt is in SEAR.

31
Q

When the combat override switch is engaged what function is deactivated?

A

Target designate does not function when the combat override switch is activated.
NOTE: Combat override will override the hatch switches allowing the turret to traverse through this area. This may be useful if you are trying to extract someone from the driver’s compartment because the turret may provide lift or leverage.

32
Q

For the gunner to re-establish control of the turret and weapon system after target designate, does the Commander have to release his Palm Switch on the commander’s hand station?

A

Yes

33
Q

How does the Remote Bi-ocular Display affect the Fire Control System?

A

The Remote Bi-ocular Display (RBD) allows the commander to view the Improved Bradley Acquisition System and Commander’s Independent Viewer. When IBAS is selected the RBD will take control of the Fire Control System when the palm switches are engaged.

34
Q

What system controls the TOW missile on the Bradley Fighting Vehicle (BFV) from launch to impact?

A

Missile Control Subsystem

35
Q

What two components enable the crew to conduct Dual Target Tracking (auto track, auto point)?

A

Gunner’s Hand Station and Commander’s Sight Control Panel

36
Q

When you press the gate size switch what is the default target tracking box size?

A

The default target tracking box size is a tank at 1500m.

Bradley Leaders Course (5 decks)

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