Chapter 2 Review Questions

Question 1

What does the acronym FART stand for?

Answer 1

Fuselage
Armament
Rotor
Tail

Question 2

What does the acronym WHAT stand for?

Answer 2

Wheels/Track
Hull
Armament
Turret

Question 3

What are three mandatory parts of a fire command?

Answer 3

Description
Execution
Termination

Question 4

How many elements of a fire command are there, and what are they?

Answer 4

There are seven elements of a fire command.

Alert, Ammunition or Weapon, Description, Direction, Range/Elevation, Execution, Termination

Question 5

What are the two termination commands?

Answer 5

Cease Fire

Cease Tracking

Question 6

How many weapon control statuses are there?

Answer 6

Four

Question 7

What are the names of the four weapon control statuses?

Answer 7

Weapons Hold
Weapons Tight
Weapons Free
Cease Fire

Question 8

What are the definitions of the following four fire control statuses: Weapons Hold, Weapons Tight, Weapons Free, and Cease Fire?

Answer 8

Weapons Hold - Engage only if engaged or ordered to engage.
Weapons Tight - Engage only targets that are positively identified as enemy.
Weapons Free - Engage any targets that are not positively identified as friendly.
Cease Fire - All firing stops immediately.

Question 9

What is the last verbal response announced by the firer before firing the weapon system?

Answer 9

On The Way

Question 10

Who can give the command of fire?

Answer 10

The vehicle commander is the only authorized crewman to issue the command of fire.

Question 11

What does the acronym DIDEA stand for?

Answer 11

Detect, Identify, Decide, Engage, Assess

Question 12

What are seven Soldier signatures?

Answer 12

Foxholes, trash, small arms fire, sounds (voices/equipment/movement), dismounted movement (visual), footprints, broken vegetation, animal disturbances, flashlights/illumination tape.

Question 13

What are five target direction techniques?

Answer 13

Clock
Sector
Traverse
Reference Point
Grid

Question 14

What are the five thermal signatures detected by thermal sights?

Answer 14

Solar Heat
Fuel Combustion
Friction
Thermal Reflections
Body Heat

Question 15

What are three Joint Combat Identification Marking Systems (JCIMS)?

Answer 15

Combat Identification Panels (CIP)
Thermal Identification Panels (TIP)
Phoenix Beacons

Question 16

What are the target threat levels and their definitions?

Answer 16

Most Dangerous - Target with armor-defeating capabilities that appears to be preparing to engage.
Dangerous - Target with armor-defeating capabilities that is not preparing to engage.
Least Dangerous - Target that does not have an armor-defeating weapon system. Although these targets do not have the means to destroy your vehicle, they may still have the ability to call in other equipment that can.

Question 17

What is the operational range of the Laser Range Finder (LRF)?

Answer 17

190m - 9995m

Question 18

What is the engagement range (without ballistic solutions or kinematic lead) of a vehicle with a 1,200 meter battle sight?

Answer 18

0m - 1600m

Question 19

What is the standard battle sight range for AP?

Answer 19

1200m

Question 20

Name and describe the direct fire engagement assessment kill standards?

Answer 20

Mobility Kill - Degrades a vehicle’s ability to move under its own power but still maintains the ability to use its weapon systems.
Firepower Kill - Prevents a vehicle’s ability to use its weapon systems.
Mobility and Firepower Kill will make the vehicle combat ineffective.
Catastrophic Kill - Total loss of weapon systems, vehicle mobility, and all on board equipment.

Question 21

What two reports can be sent to higher headquarters to outline their engagement, current situation, and enemy battle damage assessment?

Answer 21

BLUE- 2 (SITREP)
Battle Damage Assessment (BDA)

These reports should include at a minimum:
Friendly action taken/situation.
Estimated location of destroyed enemy vehicle(s).
Number of vehicles engaged or destroyed.
Time of situation.
Vehicular position/posture.
Tactical intentions.

Question 22

What are the Fire Control Components?

Answer 22

The Gunner's Sight Control Panel (GSCP)
Combat Override Switch (COS)
Remote Bi-ocular Display (RBD)
Commander's Tactical Display (CTD)
Gunner's Hand Station (GHS)
System Control Box (SCB)
Commander's Sight Control Panel (CSCP)
Commander's Data Entry Tool (CDET)
Commander's Hand Station (CHS)
Power Interface Box (PIB)
Turret Processing Unit (TPU)
Inertial Navigation Unit (INU)
Missile Control Subsystem (MCS)
Gun Control Unit (GCU)

Question 23

Describe the Target Designate process.

Answer 23

Gunner: “CANNOT IDENTIFY”

Commander: “DESIGNATE”

Gunner: Gunner selects proper weapon, ammunition, with NO ZOOM induced (Ensure Handstation returns to the neutral position)

Commander: Engages palm grip, presses target designate button, keeping the palm grip engaged.

Gunner: Upon acquiring the target announces “IDENTIFIED”.

Commander: Releases the palm grip. Continues scanning whole sector using Commander’s Independent Viewer (CIV).

Question 24

What component controls the selecting and firing of the 25mm and the Coax?

Answer 24

Gun Control Unit (GCU)

Question 25

What does the Inertial Navigation Unit monitor?

Answer 25

Roll - Rotation around an axis drawn through the body of the vehicle from tail to nose in the normal direction of travel. Pitch - Rotation around an axis running from the driver's left to right in a vehicle. Yaw - Rotation around an axis drawn from top to bottom, and perpendicular to the other two axes.

Question 26

What is required for Kinematic Lead?

Answer 26

Target, Range, Ammo, and constant input on the hand station.

Question 27

What monitors the position of the hull in relation to the turret?

Answer 27

Position Interface Box (PIB)

Question 28

Name 5 Line Replaceable Units effected by silent watch.

Answer 28

``` Bradley Eyesafe Laser Rangefinder (ELRF) Standby Gun Control Unit (GCU) (Standby) Turret Drive Control Unit (TDCU) Standby IBAS Defogger (Standby) TDS Drive power (Standby) ```

Question 29

What does selecting degraded gun mode do?

Answer 29

Automatically selects the 25mm gun at a HI rate of fire and the ammo feed defaults to the large ready box with the AP ballistic solution.

Question 30

What does a steady SEAR light indicate?

Answer 30

Bolt is in SEAR.

Question 31

When the combat override switch is engaged what function is deactivated?

Answer 31

Target designate does not function when the combat override switch is activated. NOTE: Combat override will override the hatch switches allowing the turret to traverse through this area. This may be useful if you are trying to extract someone from the driver's compartment because the turret may provide lift or leverage.

Question 32

For the gunner to re-establish control of the turret and weapon system after target designate, does the Commander have to release his Palm Switch on the commander's hand station?

Answer 32

Yes

Question 33

How does the Remote Bi-ocular Display affect the Fire Control System?

Answer 33

The Remote Bi-ocular Display (RBD) allows the commander to view the Improved Bradley Acquisition System and Commander's Independent Viewer. When IBAS is selected the RBD will take control of the Fire Control System when the palm switches are engaged.

Question 34

What system controls the TOW missile on the Bradley Fighting Vehicle (BFV) from launch to impact?

Answer 34

Missile Control Subsystem

Question 35

What two components enable the crew to conduct Dual Target Tracking (auto track, auto point)?

Answer 35

Gunner's Hand Station and Commander's Sight Control Panel

Question 36

When you press the gate size switch what is the default target tracking box size?

Answer 36

The default target tracking box size is a tank at 1500m.