Chapter 2 pt. 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Justification and excuse defenses are referred to as ______ _______ because the defendant must raise them I order for the jury to consider them.

A

Affirmative defenses

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2
Q

A ________ _________ is raised when the defendant admits that he or she is responsible for the act but claims that, under the circumstances, the act was not criminal , that what he or she did was lawful.

A

Justification defense

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3
Q

What may be successfully claimed if the defendant can demonstrate that he or she used force to repel an imminent, unprovoked attack that would have caused serious injury.

A

Self-Defense

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4
Q

The Defendant cannot use excessive force.

A

True

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5
Q

Deadly Force may be used only when an attack is either in progress or “________”

A

Imminent

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6
Q

What means it will occur immediately?

A

Imminent

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7
Q

One may use deadly force if they are…..

A

faced with deadly force

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8
Q

What doctrine requires that a person must retreat rather than use deadly force if it is possible to retreat without incurring harm.

A

Retreat doctrine

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9
Q

What doctrine goes against the retreat doctrine and states that the civdim of an attack need not retreat and may use whatever Forde is necessary to repel an attack.

A

True man doctrine

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10
Q

What states that a person attacked in their home does not have to retreat even if retreat is possible?

A

Castle Doctrine

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11
Q

Self defense may also apply to the defense of others and in some circumstances defense of property.

A

True

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12
Q

______ is also a defense in certain crimes

A

Consent

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13
Q

Can someone consent after the fact to injuries already obtained?

A

No

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14
Q

What defense recognized the value society places on obeying the law and in permitting those charged with enforcing the law the authority necessary to carry out those duties.

A

Execution of public duties

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15
Q

At common law, police could use deadly force to apprehend any fleeing felon. This is known as what?

A

Fleeing Felon Rule

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16
Q

With an _______ defense the defendant admits that what he or she did was wrong but argues that, under circumstances, he or she is not responsible for the improper conduct.

A

excuse

17
Q

What may be raised as a defense in a limited number of situations.

A

Duress

18
Q

Voluntary and involuntary intoxication refers to the effect of either alcohol or drugs.

A

Yes

19
Q

________ intoxication never provides a complete defense, but it may be used to mitigate the punishment.

A

Voluntary

20
Q

_________ provides a complete defense if it can be shown that the actor was unaware that he or she was being drugged.

A

Involuntary

21
Q

Two types of mistake defenses
1.
2.

A
  1. mistake of law

2. Mistake of fact

22
Q

Lack the requisite mental capability to form mens rea or criminal intent based on age.

A

Infancy defense

23
Q

Holds that the state should act in the best interests of a child.

A

Parens patriae doctrine

24
Q

What is a legal term that refers to the lack of criminal culpability due to mental illness or defect?

A

Insanity

25
Q

If insanity is established, the defendant does not possess the requisite mens rea to have committed a crime.

A

True

26
Q

the irresistible impulse test, the Product test, and the substantial capacity test

A

M’Naghten rule

27
Q

The M’Naghten Test for insanity focuses on the defendant’s intellectual capacity to know what they are doing and to distinguish right from wrong.

A

True

28
Q

What test defines insanity as when a defendant is unable to control his or her conduct because he or she suffers from a mental disease?

A

Irrestible impulse test

29
Q

The ________ test for insanity states that the defendant is not criminally responsible if his or her act was “the product of mental disease or defect.”. Also known as

A

Product test

Product ruke

30
Q

What defines insanity as when the defendant lacks substantial capacity to either control his or her conduct or appreciate the wrongfulness of his or her conduct.

A

Substantial capacity test