Chapter 2: Preparticipation Physical Activity Screening Guidelines Flashcards

1
Q

List some of the reasons why it is important to screen clients prior to physical activity/engagement.

A

To identify those:
- w/ medical contradictions for performing PA & other health/medical concerns (i.e. orthopedic injuries, etc.)
-who should receive a medical or physical examination/exam & clearance prior to performing a PA program.
-who should participate in a medically supervised PA program

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2
Q

What does a preparticipation physical activity screening involve?

A

a) gathering & analyzing demographic and health-related information on a client
b) some medical/health assessments (i.e. assessing the presence of signs/symptoms) to aid in the decision making of a clients PA future.

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3
Q

In order to reduce the likelihood of occurrence of any unwanted event(s) during a PA program, it is important to conduct what?

A

A preparticipation PA screening

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4
Q

What items do you need to gather from a preparticipation activity screening? And why?

A

Informed consent (1st, prior to the collection of any other information), then Patient demographics + an assessment of a clients general health, medical Hx, and PA Hx, all of which will help you determine a clients current PA status and future programming needs.

(For example, the presence of CMR disease or signs/symptoms suggestive of CMR disease)

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5
Q

Why might it be important to screen clients prior to participation in a PA program?

A

To identify those:
1) with medical contradictions for performing PA (i.e. ACSM exclusion criteria)
2) who should receive a medical or physical exam and/or clearance prior to performing a PA program.
3) who should participate in a medically supervised PA program
4) with other health & medical concerns (i.e. orthopedic injuries or other “red flags”)

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6
Q

Whats the difference between an ACSM-EP & an ACSM-CEP?

A

An EP will be involved in professional screening at the lower levels of risk (i.e. nonclinical patients who do not meet any of the ASCM risk factor thresholds), while the CEP will more likely be involved w/ individuals at higher risk levels who meet more than 1 ACSM risk factor.

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7
Q

What does an informed consent do?

A

tell the client of any personal & confidential info that will be collected and how it will be stored + the risk & benefits involved with the participation of any exercise testing and programming, so they can make an informed decision.

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8
Q

Is a consent form a legal document?

A

yes

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9
Q

Any questions asked BY THE participant & the response provided by the ACSM-EP should be included on the signed informed consent document. True or False.

A

true.

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10
Q

For the Preparticipation Physical Activity Screening Process, what 3 items need to be considered?

A

A) a client’s PA Hx (i.e. do they currently engage in exercise, Y/N)

B) any known CMR disease

C) any signs & symptoms suggestive of CMR disease

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11
Q

Review and Practice Figure 2.7
Pg. 43 & 44

A

The Preparticipation PA screening quest. For Exercise Professionals

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12
Q

An individual is considered to be currently engaged in PA if he or she has been performing planned, structured PA of at least 30 mins at a moderate intensity, at least 3 day/wk, for the last 3 months. True or False

A

True.

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13
Q

What are the 9 signs & symptoms suggestive of CMR disease? (See 47 & 48 for further descriptive details)

A

1) Pain or discomfort in the chest, neck, jaw, arms, or other areas that may be due to ischemia

2) Dyspnea (medical term for shortness of breath)

3) Syncope, or fainting, and dizziness during exercise

4) Orthopnea (trouble breathing while lying down) or Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (difficulty breathing while asleep)

5) Ankle edema or swelling that IS NOT due to injury

6) Palpitations & tachycardia

7) Intermittent claudication (severe calf pain when walking)

8) Heart murmurs

9) Unusual fatigue or shortness of breath that occurs using light exertion or normal activity & not during strenuous activity.

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14
Q

Vigorous exercise is often defined as what?

A

Activity greater than or equal to 60% of your clients functional capacity.

In METS this is 6 or greater & on a BORG’S 6-20 RPE scale, this is 14 or greater.

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15
Q

MIPA is defined as what in %, METS, & RPE?

A

MIPA is 40-59% of an individual’s HR or VO2 max (maximal oxygen uptake reserve) OR 3 - 5.9 METS & AN RPE of 12-13 on the BORG’S 6-20 scale.

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16
Q

The ACSM CVD risk assessment is no longer a mandatory component for determining if medical clearance is warranted before an individual begins an exercise program.

True or False

A

True.

It is not mandatory but it is encouraged.

17
Q

List ACSM’s atherosclerotic CVD risk factors & defining criteria. (9 total)

A

1) client = 45+ for males and 55+ for females

2) (1st degree) family Hx of specific CV events (including attack, surgery, or death)

3) smokes or quit w/n past 6 months, or heavily exposed to 2nd hand smoke

4) sedentary lifestyle (meaning not meeting min. exercise criteria for at least 3 months)

5) obesity (i.e. BMI of 30 or > or waist of 40in or > men/35in or > women)

6) diagnosed hypertension OR resting BP of 130/80 or greater

7) dyslipidemia

8) diabetes

9) HDL-C of 60 mg ‘ dL or greater

Although the ACSM CVD risk assessment is not a mandate, it helps the EP explain to the client their current health risk & evaluate the effectiveness of the exercise protocol at managing and reducing the risk of CVD.