Chapter 2 biology Flashcards

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1
Q

What does diploid and haploid mean? Which type of cells are considered diploid and haploid?

A

Autosomal cells are diploid: which means that they contain 2 copies of each chromosome.

Germ cells (gamete cells) are haploid: which means that it only contains one copy of each chromosome.

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2
Q

What is meant by the Cell Cycle?

A

A series of phases during which an eukaryotic cell grows, synthesis DNA, and divides.

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3
Q

What can the dearrangment of the cell cycle leads to?

A

It can lead to unchecked cell division, which can result in the formation of cancer.

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4
Q

For actively dividing cells, what are the four stages of cell cycle?

A

G1
S
G2
M

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5
Q

What is the interphase phase? Describe its durination during the cell cycle?

A

The first three stages (G1,S,G2) are collectively known as interphase.

Interphase is considered the longest part of the cell cycle, where actively dividing cells spend about 90% of their time in interphase.

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6
Q

What is the G0 stage?

A

Cells that do not divide speed all their time in an offshoot stage of G1, known as G0; where the cell is simply living and carrying out its function but without preparation for division.

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7
Q

What is form of Chromatin in chromsome? why should the chromosome stay in that form?

A

During interphase, individual chromosomes can’t be seen under light microscope because they are in a less condensed form known as chromatin.

This is because the DNA must be available to RNA polymerase so that the genes can be transcribed (and then translated) into proteins.

–During mitosis (specifically prophase) it is preferable to condense the DNA into tightly coiled chromsomes to avoid losing any genetic material during cell division.

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8
Q

What is another name for the G1 stage? What happens during that stage?

A

Pre-synaptic gap

Cell duplicate its organelles for energy and protein production (mitochondria, ribosomes, and endoplasmic reticulum) + increase in size.

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9
Q

After completion of G1 stage, what must the cell passes through?

A

In order to pass into the S stage, the cell is governed by a checkpoint known as therestriction point, where certain criteria (such as containing the proper complement of DNA) must be met in order for the cell to pass the restriction point and enter the synthesis stage (S stage). .

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10
Q

What is another name for the S stage? What happens during that stage (include chromatids, centromere, and the ploidy of the cell)?

A

Synthesis of DNA

During S stage, the cell replicates its genetic material so that each daughter cell will have identical copies (after mitosis is done), where each chromosome consists of two identical chromatids (the father/mother chomosome + identical chromatid) bound togher at a specialized region known as the centromere.

Note that the ploidy of the cell does not change even though the number of chromatids has doubled. Meaning that the cell in this stage have 46 chromatids, even though 92 chromatids are present (basically b/c this cell has entered the division cycle and it will turn into two daughter cells with 42 chromosomes each). This means that cells entering G2 have twice the amount of DNA as cells still in G1.

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11
Q

What is another name for G2 stage? what happens during that stage?

A

Post-synaptic gap

Further cell growth and replication of organelles in preparation to enter mitosis + another quality checkpoint to check that: 1) there are enough organelles and cytoplasm for the two daughter cells 2) to check that the DNA replication proceeded without error to avoid passing on an error to the daughter cells and so on.

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12
Q

What are the four phases of M stage ?

A

Mitosis ( prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase) + cytokinesis.

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13
Q

The cell cycle is controled by two checkpoints, what are they?

A

1st checkpoint between G1 and S.
2nd checkpoint between G2 and M.

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14
Q

What is checked at the G1/S checkpoint and what protein is in main control of this checkpoint?

A

As mentioned earlier, this checkpoint is also known as the restriction point. During this checkpoint, the cell determines if the condition of the DNA is good enough for synthesis and if the DNA is damaged, then the cell cycle goes into arrest until the DNA is repaired. This checkpoint is controlled by the p53 protein.

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15
Q

What is checked at the S/G2 checkpoint and what protein is in main control of this checkpoint?

A

During this checkpoint, the cell is ensure that the cell achieved adequate size and the oragnelles have been replicated correctly to support the two new daughter cells. This checkpoint is also controlled by the p53 protein.

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16
Q

What is cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CDK)? How do they become actived? How do they form CDK-cyclin complex?

A

Both of these molecules are responsible for driving the cell cycle phases (do not get confused with the p53 protein, which is responsible for the 2 checkpoints only).

In order to be actived, CDK require the presence of the right type of cyclins, as the during the cell cycle the concentration of the various cyclins increases and decreases during specific stages. The cyclins bind to CDKs and create an activated CDK-cyclin complex, which can also phosphraylate the transcription factors.

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17
Q

Cell cycle control is essential to ensure that cells that damaged or inadequantly sized do not divide. But what happens when the cell cycle control becomes deranged and damaged cells are allowed to undergo mitosis?

A

It results in cancerous cells.

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18
Q

How are tumors created?

A

When cancer cells undergo rapid cell division leading to the creation of tumors.

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19
Q

If the cell begins to produce right factors (such as proteases that can digest the basement membranes or factors that encourage blood vessel formation), then the damaged cells are then able to reach other tissues. What does metastasis mean?

A

Both local invasion and distant spread of cancerous cells throughout the bloodstream or lymphatic systems. This senario is called metastasis.

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20
Q

What is a common mutation related to cancer?

A

Mutation of the gene that produces the P53 protein, known as the TP53.

When that gene is mutated it produces malfunctioned p53 proteins and the cell cycle is unable to repair damaged DNA during the G1/S phase. Accordingly, this allows mutations to occur and the cancerous cells to keep dividing withough regard to the quality or quantity of the cells produced.

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21
Q

What is end result of the mitosis process? Can occur in which type of cells and not in which type of cells?

A

2 identical deploid daughter cells created from a single cell.

Can occur in somatic cells and not in gamete cells (IE: any cells that are not involved in sexual reproduction).

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22
Q

What are 4 things that happen during prophase?

A

1) Condensation of chromatin into chromsomes.
2) Nuclear envelop dissolves.
3) Nucleoli become less distinct and may dissappear completly.
4) Centriole pairs separate and move towards the opposite poles of the cell and form spindle apparatus

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23
Q

The centrioles pairs (cyclinderical organelles) are located where? and responsible for what?

A

Outside the nucleus in a region called the centrosome and responsible for the correct divsion of the DNA (chromosomes)

24
Q

Once the centrosome pairs move to opposite poles, what do they being to form? the formation of this establishes what?

A

Spindle fibers, which are made of microtubules.

This establishes the centrosome as one of the two microtubulin organizing centers of the cell (the other being the basal body of the flagellum or the cillium.

25
Q

What are the two types of fibers that form in spindle fibers?

A

Each of the fibers radiate outward from the centrioles. Some microtubules form asters that anchor the centioles to the cell membrane and other extend to the nuclues (after the nuclear envelop dissappear), allows the fibers to contract the chromosome at the kinetochores (attachment points for specific fibers), allowing the formation of spindle apparatus.

26
Q

What happens during the metaphase?

A

With the centrioles being at opposite ends of the cell, the kinetochore fibers interact with the spindle apparatus fibers to align the chromosomes at the metaphase plate (equatorial plate), which is equatorial from the two poles of the cell.

27
Q

What 2 things happens during Anaphase?

A

1) The centromere of the chromosome splits, so that sister chromatids (in one chromosome) can separate and each chromatid to has its own distinct centromere.
2) The kinetochore fibers begins shortening and thus pulling each sister chromatid to opposite poles of the cell.

28
Q

What is telophase considered the reverse of? Explain what 4 things happen during telophase?

A

Telophase is considered the reverse of prophase.

1) The spindle appartus dissappears
2) Nuclear membrane reforms around each set of chromosomes in the 2 new cells
3) Nucleoli reappear
4) The chromosome returns into its uncondensed form (chromatin form)

– Now each of the two nuclei recieves a complete copy of the genome identical to the parent original genome and to each other.

29
Q

When does cytoskinesis occurs? What happens during cytokinesis?

A

At the end of telophase

Formation of cleavage forrow that split the parent cell into two, and thus separating the cytoplasm and organelles between the two new cells.

30
Q

VIP NOTE

A

Each cell undergoes a finite number of divisions before programmed cell death; for humans somatic cells divide between 20 and 50. After that, the cell can no longer divide continuously.

31
Q

What are the end product of mitosis and meiosis? occurs in what cells?

A

Mitosis: occurs in autosomal cells; two identical diploid daughter cells
Meiosis: occurs in gametocytes (germ cells/sex cells); four unidentical haploid daughter sex cells (gametes).

32
Q

What are the 3 similarities between mitosis and meiosis?

A

1) Genetic material must be duplicated
2) chromatin is condensed to form chromosomes
3) Microtubules from centrioles are involving in dividing the genetic material.

33
Q

What is a main difference between mitosis and meiosis?

A

Mitosis consists of 1 round of replication and division, whereas meiosis consists of 1 round of replication and 2 rounds of division.

34
Q

What is reductional division and equatorial division?

A

Meosis I results in homologous chromsomes being separated and producing 2 haploid daughter cells, this is known as reductional division.

Meosis II results in separation of sister chromatids without change of ploidy (similar to mitosis), this is known as equatorial division.

35
Q

What is chromosomal sex determined by?

A

By the 23rd pair of chromosomes with XX being female and XY being male.

This shows that sperm (gamete) can carry either an X or Y chromosome, whereas ova (gamete) can carry only X chromosome.

36
Q

What are sex-linked disorders? are these disorders usually recessively or dominanly inherited?

A

The x-chromosome carries a sizeable amount of genetic information, where mutations in these genes can cause sex-linked (x-linked) disorders.

Most X-linked disorders are recessively inherited.

37
Q

What is meant when we say males are hemizygous? and females are carriers?

A

It means that males will express sex-linked disorders, even if they have only one recessive disease-carrying disease.

Females can either be homozygous or heterzygous. Where if she is heterzygous then carrying a diseased allele on any of the 2 X chromosome will not express the disease, but in this case the female is a carrier.

38
Q

VIP NOTE:

A

X chromosome carries a sizeable amount of genetic material.

Y chromosome carries a little amount of genetic material.

39
Q

What is a notable gene on the Y chromosome?

A

The SRY gene ( Sex-determining region Y), which codes for a transcription factor that initiates testis formation (male gonads)

Therefore, in the absence of Y chromosome all zygotes are considered females and with the presence of Y chromosome a zygote is considered a male.

40
Q

In males, the primitive gonads develops into what?

A

testes

41
Q

What is the mnenomic for the pathway of sperm through the male reproductinve system?

A

SEVEN UP:

1) Seminiferous tubules
2) Epididymis
3) Vas deferens
4) Ejaculatory duct
5) Nothing: seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and bulbourethal gland that collectively produce the seminal fluid
6) Urethra
7) Penis

42
Q

What are the 2 functional components of the testes? state the functional of each and also state what are the sertoili cells?

A

Seminiferous Tubules + Interstitial Cells of Leydig

Seminiferous Tubules: sperm are produced in these highly coiled seminiferous tubules, where they are also noutrished by the sertoili cells.
Interstitial Cells of Leydig: secrete testosterone and other male sex hormones (androgens).

43
Q

Where is the testes located? why is this location is particularly important?

A

Testes are located in the scrotum, which is an external pouch that hangs below the penis.

Because it allows to maintain a temperature of 2 to 4 celcius lower than the body temperature, which is important for sperm development.

In fact, there is a layer of muscle around the vas deferens that can raise or lower the testis to maintain the proper temperature for sperm development.

44
Q

What is the epididymis?

A

A structure that store the sperm after they are developed until ejaculation.

45
Q

Explain the pathway during ejaculation?

A

During ejaculation, the sperm travel through the vas deferens and enter the ejaculatory duct at the posterior edge of the prostate gland. The two ejactulatory ducts then fuse to form the urethra that carries the sperm through the penis and then exit the body.

46
Q

What is semen?

A

The combination of sperm and seminal fluid.

As the sperm passes through the reproductive tract they are mixed with the seminal fluid, which is produced by a combined effort by the seminal vesicles, prostate glands, and bulbourethral gland.

47
Q

Explain what does each of three vesicles produce in the seminal fluid and why this is needed?

A

Seminal vesicles: fructose to noutrish sperm
Seminal vesicles + prostate gland: midkly alkaline properties to survive in the acidic environment of the female reproductive system.
Bulbourethral glands: clear viscous fluid to clean out any remnant of urine and lubricate the urethra.

48
Q

What is spermatogenesis? Where does spermatogenesis takes place? What is the end product of spermatogenesis?

A

Spermatogenesis is the formation of haploid sperm cells through meiosis.

It takes place in the seminiferous tubules.

Spermatogenesis results in four functional and unidentical haploid sperm cells.

49
Q

What is spermatogonia?

A

The diploid stem cells are known as spermatogonia.

50
Q

Explain what is primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, spermatids, and spermatozoa?

A

After the diploid stem cells (spermatogonia) replicate their genetic material (during S stage), they develop into diploid primary spermatocyte.

The first meiotic division result in haploid secondary spermatocyte.

After meiosis II, it generate haploid spermatids.

Finally, the speramtids undergo maturation to become mature haploid spermatozoa; IE: it is the haploid sperm cell.

51
Q

Mature sperm are very compact. What are the three structural components of sperm?

A

Head: containing genetic material
midpiece: generates ATP from fructose
flagellum: for motility.

52
Q

Describe the structure of midpiece and the head?

A

The midpiece is filled with mitochondria, which generate the energy needed for the flagellum to swim through the female reproductive tract in order to reach the ovum and fertilize it in the fallopian tubes.

Each sperm head is covered by a cap known as the acrosome, which is derived from the golgi apparatus and is necessary to penetrate the ovum during fertilization.

53
Q

VIP NOTE

A

Once a male reaches sexual maturity during puberity, approximately 3 million sperm are produced per day, which typically continues throughout the course of that individual’s lifespan.

54
Q

Female reporductive organs are primarily internal. Explain what are ovaries? what do they produce? where they are located? what are follicles?

A

The gonads, known as ovaries, produce estrogen and progesterone.

The ovaries are located in the pelvic cavity, each consists of thousands of follices, which are multi-layered sacs that contain, noutrish, and protect the immature ova (eggs).

55
Q

Explain what happens between puberty and menopause? Include the full pathway.

A

Between puberty and menopause, one egg per month is ovulated into the peritoneal sac, which lines the abdominal cavity.

  • The egg is then drawn into the fallopian tube (oviduct), which is lined with cilia to propel the egg forward.
  • The fallopian tubes are connected to the muscular uterus, which is the site of fetal development.
  • The lower end of the uterus, known as the cervix, connects to the vaginal canal, which the sperm are desposited into it during the intercourse.
56
Q

What is vulva?

A

External parts of the female genital organs are collectively known as the vulva.

57
Q

The ability to reproduce is under hormonal control. Explain the parts and what hormones involved for sexual reproduction?

A

Prior to puberty, the hypothalamus restrict production of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH).

At the start of puberty, this restriction is lifted as the hypothalamus starts releasing pulses of GnRH, which triggers the anterior pituatory gland to synthesize and release follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH). These hormones trigger the production of other sex hormones to develop and maintain the reproductive system.