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Hazmat Operations > Chapter 2 > Flashcards

Chapter 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of Physical Changes?

A

A transformation in which a material changes its state of matter (ex. from a liquid to a solid)

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2
Q

(CHIEF CONCEPT) What is an important first step in understanding that hazards associated with any chemical?

A

Identifying the State of Matter, defining whether the substance is a solid, liquid or a gas

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3
Q

The State of Matter is

A

The physical state of the substance. A solid, liquid or a gas.

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4
Q

What is a critical step in comprehending the nature of a release?

A

Identifying the reason(s) why the container failed

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5
Q

What does BLEVE stand for?

A

Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion

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6
Q

What is a BLEVE

A

Occurs when a pressurized liquefied materials inside a closed vessel are exposed to a source of high heat. Occurs if relief valve can’t contain the increased pressure.

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7
Q

What is expansion ratio?

A

The volume increase that occurs when a compressed liquefied gas material changes to a gas

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8
Q

What is chemical reactivity (chemical change)?

A

The ability of a substance to undergo a transformation at the molecular level, usually with a release of some form of energy

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9
Q

(CHIEF CONCEPTS) What are the critical characteristics of flammable liquids?

A
  1. Flash Point
  2. Ignition Temperature
  3. Flammable Range
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10
Q

What is flash point?

A

The minimum temperature at which a liquid or a solid releases sufficient vapor to form an ignitable mixture with air.

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11
Q

What is ignition temperature (autoignition)?

A

The minimum temperature at which a fuel, when heated, will ignite in the presence of air and continue to burn. The ignition temperature for gasoline is 475 Fahrenheit.

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12
Q

True or False: When a liquid fuel is heated beyond it’s initial ignition temperature, it will ignite without an external ignition source

A

True (ex. a pan full of cooking oil)

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13
Q

What is flammable range?

A

A fuel/air mixture, defined by upper and lower limits that reflects an amount of flammable vapor mixed with a given volume of air.

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14
Q

What is the flammable range of gasoline vapors?

A

1.4% to 7.6%

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15
Q

(TEST) What is a lower explosive limit (LEL)?

A

The minimum amount of gaseous fuel that must be present for the air/fuel mixture to be flammable/explosive

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16
Q

(TEST) What is an upper explosive limit (UEL)?

A

The maximum amount of gaseous fuel that can be present for the fuel/air mixture to be flammable/explosive

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17
Q

True or False: If a fuel/air mixture falls between the UEL and LEL, an ignition source is still needed for a flash fire to occur

A

True

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18
Q

True or False: The wider the flammable range, the more dangerous the material

A

True. Hydrogen is 4.0% to 75%, natural gas is 5% to 15%, and propane is 2.5% to 9.0%

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19
Q

What is vapor pressure?

A

The pressure associated with liquids held inside any type of closed container

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20
Q

What is the key point to understanding vapor pressure?

A

The vapor pressure released from the surface of any liquid needs to be contained in order to exert pressure

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21
Q

How is vapor pressure expressed?

A

In PSI, atmospheres (atm), torr, millimeters of mercury (mm Hg), or bar

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22
Q

What is boiling point?

A

Temperature at which a liquid will continually give off vapors and if boiling long enough, will turn completely into gas.

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23
Q

What is the boiling point of water?

A

212 F

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24
Q

What is fire point?

A

The temperature at which sustained combustion will occur.

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25
Q

How does fire point compare to flash point?

A

Fire point is usually only slightly higher than the flash point.

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26
Q

True or False: Solids and liquids do not burn

A

True, the gas or vapor they give off is what’s ignited

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27
Q

Will flammable liquids readily burn?

A

Yes

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28
Q

Are many flammable liquids toxic?

A

Yes

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29
Q

Do most flammable liquids give off vapors that are heavier or lighter than air?

A

Vapors that are heavier than air

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30
Q

Can flammable liquids mix with or be carried with air?

A

Yes

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31
Q

What is vapor density?

A

The weight of an airborne concentration of a vapor or gas as compared to an equal volume of dry air

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32
Q

What is the vapor density of air?

A

1.0

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33
Q

A substance that is heavier than air has a vapor density…

A

Greater than 1.0

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34
Q

A substance that is lighter than air has a vapor density….

A

Lower than 1.0

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35
Q

What is an example of a substance that is heavier than air?

A

Propane (1.51) or chlorine

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36
Q

What’s an example of a substance that is lighter than air

A

Hydrogen, acetylene, or natural gas

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37
Q

What does 4H MEDIC ANNA tell you?

A

What some of the lighter than air gases are

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38
Q

In the mnemonic device 4H MEDIC ANNA, what are the 4H’s?

A
  1. Hydrogen
  2. Helium
  3. Hydrogen Cyanide
  4. Hydrogen Fluoride
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39
Q

In the mnemonic device 4H MEDIC ANNA, what does MEDIC stand for?

A 
M - Methane
E- Ethylene
D - Diborane
I - Illuminating gas (methane/ethane mixture)
C - Carbon monoxide (CO)
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40
Q

In the mnemonic device 4H MEDIC ANNA, What does ANNA stand for?

A

A - Ammonia
N - Neon
N - Nitrogen
A - Acetylene

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41
Q

What is specific gravity?

A

The weight of a liquid as compared to water

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42
Q

What is the specific gravity of water?

A

1.0

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43
Q

Most of what kind of liquids will float on water?

A

Flammable liquids

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44
Q

A specific gravity of less than 1 will….

A

Float on water

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45
Q

A specific gravity of greater than 1 will….

A

Sink in water

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46
Q

What is water solubility?

A

The ability of a substance to dissolve in water

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47
Q

What is the predominant agent used to extinguish a fire?

A

Water

48
Q

Why is water not always the best and safest choice in a chemical emergency?

A

Because it is a very aggressive solvent and may react violently with certain substances

49
Q

What may knock down vapor clowds?

A

Fog streams

50
Q

What is Corrosivity (pH)

A

The ability of a material to cause damage (on contact) to skin, eyes, or other body parts

51
Q

What 2 classes are corrosives put into?

A

Acids and bases

52
Q

What is the range of the pH scale?

A

0-14

53
Q

What is pH?

A

An expression of the amount of dissolved hydrogen ions (H+) in a solution

54
Q

What is an acid?

A

A material with a pH of less than 7

55
Q

What is a base?

A

A material with a pH greater than 7

56
Q

When is a chemical considered neutral?

A

When it has a pH equal to 7

57
Q

What pH values are considered to be strong?

A

2.5 or less and 12.5 or greater

58
Q

Strong pH values will react more aggressively with…

A

Metallic substances

59
Q

What are toxic products of combustion?

A

The hazardous chemical compounds released when a material decomposes under heat.

60
Q

What does combustion generate?

A

Chemical by-products

61
Q

What are some notable substances found in most fire smoke?

A
  1. Soot
  2. Carbon monoxide
  3. Carbon dioxide
  4. Water vapor
  5. Formaldehyde
  6. Cyanide compounds
  7. Oxides of nitrogen
62
Q

The oxides of nitrogen causes a pulmonary edema, which is….

A

Fluid build of in the lungs

63
Q

What is radiation?

A

Energy transmitted through space in the form of electromagnetic waves or energetic particles

64
Q

The health hazards that radiation causes are dependent on what 2 factors?

A
  1. Amount of radiation your body absorbs

2. The exposure time

65
Q

What is an alpha particle?

A

A type of radiation that quickly loses energy and can not travel far, 1 or 2 inches. Can’t pass through fabric.

66
Q

What is a beta particle?

A

Type of radiation that can travel farther than alpha, 10 to 15 feet. Heavier materials can stop this, such as metal and glass.

67
Q

What is gamma radiation?

A

Type of radiation that can travel significant distances. can penetrate most materials and go through the body

68
Q

What is the most destructive type of radiation?

A

Gamma radiation

69
Q

What is ionizing radiation?

A

Radiation with capability to cause changes in human cells, which may lead to mutation of the cell, and cancer.

70
Q

What is a hazard?

A

A material capable of causing harm. Could be to health, safety, or the environment

71
Q

What is an exposure?

A

Process by which something is subjected to or come into contact with a hazardous material.

72
Q

What is contamination?

A

The process of transferring a hazardous material from its source to people, animals, environment or equipment, all of which may act as carriers.

73
Q

What is decontamination?

A

The physical and/or chemical process of reducing and preventing the spread of contaminants from who/what’s involved at hazmat/wmd incidents

74
Q

What is secondary comtamination(AKA cross contamination)?

A

When a person or object transfers the contaminant to another person or object by direct contact

75
Q

True or False: PPE is worn to enable you to contact the contaminated product

A

False, this is a common misconception

76
Q

What is the true purpose of PPE?

A

To protect you in the event that you cannot avoid contact with the contaminated product

77
Q

What is the mnemonic device to remember the 7 types of damage that can be caused by WMD’s?

A

TRACEMP

78
Q

What does TRACEMP stand for?

A 
T - Thermal
R - Radiological
A - Asphyxiation
C - Chemical
E - Etiological
M - Mechanical
P - Psychogenic
79
Q

What is the thermal part of TRACEMP?

A

Heat created from intentional explosions or fires, or cold generated by cryogenic liquids

80
Q

What is the radiological part of TRACEMP?

A

Radioactive contamination from dirty bombs

81
Q

What is the asphyxiation part of TRACEMP?

A

Oxygen deprivation caused by materials such as nitrogen; tissue asphyxiation from blood agents

82
Q

What is the chemical part of TRACEMP?

A

Injury and death caused by intentional release of toxic industrial chemicals, nerve agents, vesicants, poisons or other chemicals

83
Q

What is the etiological part of TRACEMP?

A

Illness and death resulting from biohazards such as anthrax, plague and smallpox; hazards posed by bloodborne pathogens

84
Q

What is the mechanical part of TRACEMP?

A

Property damage and injury caused by explosions, debris, shrapnel, firearms, and slips trips and falls

85
Q

What is the psychogenic part of TRACEMP?

A

Mental harm from being exposed to, contaminated by, and even being in close proximity to an incident

86
Q

What is a nerve agent?

A

A toxic substance that attacks the central nervous system,

87
Q

What is the main threat of a nerve agent?

A

Its ability to enter the body through the lungs or skin and then systematically affect the functions of the body

88
Q

What does the mneumonic device, SLUDGEM, summarize?

A

SOme off the common signs and symptoms of exposure to nerve agents

89
Q

What does SLUDGEM stand for?

A 
S - Salivation
L - Lacrimation (tearing)
U - Urination
D - Defecation
G - Gastric disturbance
E - Emesis (vomiting)
M - Miosis (constriction of pupil)
90
Q

What are blister agents (AKA vesicants)?

A

Agents that can cause blistering of the skin

91
Q

What are some examples of blister agents?

A

Sulfur mustard and lewisite

92
Q

What are blood agents?

A

Chemicals that interfere with the transfer of oxygen from the blood to the cells

93
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of cyanide exposure (blood agent)?

A

Vomiting, dizziness, watery eyes, and deep and rapid breathing. In high concentrations: convulsions inability to breathe, loss of consciousness, and death

94
Q

What are choking agents?

A

Chemical designed to inhibit breathing and typically intended to incapacitate rather than to kill

95
Q

What are irritants (riot control agents)?

A

Substances, such as mace, that can be dispersed to briefly incapacitate a person

96
Q

What are convulsants?

A

Chemicals capable of causing convulsions or seizures when absorbed by the body

97
Q

(IMPORTANT FOR TEST) What are the 4 routes of entry?

A
  1. Inhalation
  2. Ingestion
  3. Absorption
  4. Injection
98
Q

What is inhalation?

A

Brought into the body through the respiratory system

99
Q

To fight inhalation, what is the most important piece of PPE a firefighter has?

A

A positive pressure, open circuit SCBA

100
Q

Why are air puryifying respirators (APRs) not a viable option when oxygen content is low?

A

APRs do not provide oxygen

101
Q

According to OSHA, when is an area considered oxygen deficient, requiring an SCBA?

A

When there is less than 19.5% oxygen in the area

102
Q

What is the difference between infectious and contagious?

A

Infectious is capable of causing an illness, contagious is the capability to transmit a disease

103
Q

Is anthrax infectious and/or contagious?

A

Anthrax is infectious but not contagious, because it can’t be passed to someone else.

104
Q

What is absorption?

A

Permeating the skin

105
Q

What is ingestion?

A

Brought into the body through the gastrointestinal tract

106
Q

What is injection?

A

Brought into the body through open cuts and abrasions

107
Q

What is a chronic health hazard?

A

An adverse health effect that occurs gradually over time after long term exposure

108
Q

What is an acute health effects?

A

Health effects caused by short exposure periods to a harmful substance, produces observable conditions such as eye irritation, coughing, dizziness, and skin burns.

109
Q

What is toxicity?

A

Measure of the degree to which something is toxic or poisonous

110
Q

(CHIEF CONCEPTS) What is the most fundamental of all actions?

A

The ability to observe the scene and understand the problem

111
Q

(CHIEF CONCEPTS) What is a critical step in comprehending the nature of a release?

A

Understanding why the vessel failed

112
Q

(CHIEF CONCEPTS) What is the difference between a chemical change and a physical change?

A

A physical change is a change in state which a chemical change is a transformation at the molecular level

113
Q

(CHIEF CONCEPTS) Nerve agents, blister agents, blood agents, choking agents, irritants, and convulsants are examples of what?

A

Hazardous materials that may be used as WMDs

114
Q

(CHIEF CONCEPTS) Irritants, such as mace, can cause….

A

Immediate irritation of the skin, eyes and mucous membranes

115
Q

(CHIEF CONCEPTS) What can APRs and SCBAs protect lungs from?

A

Select particulates such as smoke, dust and fumes

116
Q

(CHIEF CONCEPTS) When may chronic health effects occur?

A

After years of exposure

Hazmat Operations (7 decks)

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