Chapter 18 - Intraoperative Care Flashcards

1
Q

OR

A

operating room

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2
Q

3 Zones in Surgery Department

A
1 unrestricted (street clothes interact w scrubs)
2 semirestricted (clean surgical attire, authorized staff)
3 restricted (w/in semirestricted area - surgical suite + sterile core)
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3
Q

scrub nurse vs circulating nurse

A

scrub is sterile;

circ clean unsterile field

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4
Q

Anesthesiology

A
medical specialty that focuses on clinical mgmt of patients in perioperative period: 
pain mgmt, 
critical care, 
trauma, 
airway mgmt, 
\+ cardiopulmo resuscitation
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5
Q

anesthesia care provider [ACP]

A

person responsible for admin of anesthetic agents + managing vital life functions
-ultimate responsibility for CHOICE of anesthesia

-can be anesthesiologist, nurse anesthetist, anesthesiologist assistant [AA}

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6
Q

one the patient is on the OR bed ensure that there is always _______

A

someone on both sides of the patient until safety strap is secured to prevent falls

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7
Q

anesthesia preparation

A

always understand the effect of the drugs + location of all emergency drugs + equipment

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8
Q

Hypovolemia + cardiovasc disease can worsen effects of improper positioning in patients. Improper positioning can cause…

A

-muscle strain
-joint damage
-pressure injuries
-nerve damage
-pooling of blood away from parts of bodies
+++hypovolemia + cardiovasc disease can worsen effects of improper pooling

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9
Q

[SCIP]

A

Surgical Care Improvement Project

-focused on improving surgical care + reducing number of complications

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10
Q

SCIP measures

A

1 prophylactic antibiotic started 30-60 min before incision
2 apply warming blanket (prevent hypothermia)
3 intermittent pneumatic compression device [ICPs] (prevent DVT)

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11
Q

NPSG requires PREprocedure verification process. Their universal protocol is followed to prevent____

A
  • wrong site
  • wrong procedure
  • wrong surgery
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12
Q

ACP must be present for….

A
  • MAC (monitored anesthesia care)

- general anesthesia

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13
Q

ACP does not have to be present for ____

A

moderate to deep sedation

  • procedures done outside of OR
  • –ex) reduction of dislocated joints in emergency dept
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14
Q

what is mod to deep sedation used for?

A

procedures outside of OR

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15
Q

MAC

A

for procedures done in or outside of OR

-used for diagnostic + therapeutic procedures

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16
Q

general anesthesia are for___

A

patients having surgical procedures w long duration

  • unsconsious
  • needs for skeletal muscle relaxation
  • require uncomfortable operating positions
  • require control of ventilation
17
Q

___ is preferred during the initial portion of anesthesia c it induces sleep w rapid onset

A

IV induction agents.

  • single dose last few minutes - long enough for placement of laryngeal mask airway or endotracheal tube.
  • once done, ACP give inhalation + IV agents
18
Q

complications/side effects of inhalation agents

A
  • irritates resp tract
  • coughing
  • laryngospasm
  • incr secretion
19
Q

inhalation of agents is usually through what devices?

A

LMA (laryngeal mask airway)

ET (endotracheal tube)

20
Q

ET vs LMA

A

ET- allows control of ventilation
—protects airway fr aspiration

LMA- option for patients w difficult airways
—does not provide access to trachea, does not protect airway

21
Q

adjuncts

A

drugs added to an inhalation anesthetic (other than IV induction

include opioids, benzo, neuromusc blocking agents (muscle relaxant), antiemetics

22
Q

general vs local anesthesia

A
general = unconscious, inhale/IV
local/regional = numbs the pain, conscious
23
Q

opiods

A

fentanyl, morphine

-cause resp depress, bradycardia

24
Q

opiod antagonist

A

naloxone

25
Q

dissociative anesthesia

A

interrupts associative brain pathways while blocking sensory pathway
-ketamine

26
Q

malignant hyperthermia

A
  • genetic
  • common s/s high temp (w no infections/complications) + muscle spasms
  • cool them down
  • administer dantrolene
27
Q

ketamine in surgery

A
  • given to asthma patients (promotes bronchodilation)

- incr heart rate to maintain CO

28
Q

midazolam (Versed) for ketamine

A

reduces hallucination + nightmares

29
Q

incentive spirometer

A

10x w/in 1 hour

-inhale

30
Q

malignant hyperthermia is commonly induced by _____

A

succinylcholine

31
Q

patient controlled analgesia [PCA]

A

self admin of predetermined doses of analgesia by patient

  • goal is immediate analgesia and acceptable level of pain control
  • IV, oral, epidural, transdermal
32
Q

opiod tolerant patients may need ____

A

patient administered boluses

33
Q

which PCA is for short term pain mgmt

A

transdermal

34
Q

benefits of transdermal

A
  • needle-less
  • low infection risk
  • decr drug error assoc w pump malfunction or inaccurate programming
35
Q

PCA may lead to _____

hint: positive outcomes

A
  • early ambulation
  • better pain mgmt
  • greater patient satisfaction
36
Q

hemorrhage is seen as

A

fluid loss