Chapter 18 Flashcards

1
Q

_____ refers to having endometrial glands & stroma outside the uterus.

With repeated menstrual cycles, fibrosis, and hemmorage–chocolate cysts that are glossy brown may occur.

A

Endometriosis refers to having endometrial glands & stroma outside the uterus.

With repeated menstrual cycles, fibrosis, and hemmorage–chocolate cysts that are glossy brown may occur.

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2
Q

Women exposed to _____ may develop clear cell adenocarcinoma of the upper vagina.

clear cell adenocarcinoma refers to clear cytoplasm due to presence of glycogen

A

Women exposed to diethylstilbestrol may develop clear cell adenocarcinoma of the upper vagina.

clear cell adenocarcinoma refers to clear cytoplasm due to presence of glycogen

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3
Q

Almost all clear cell adenocarcinomas of vagina are associated with vaginal _____.

A

Almost all clear cell adenocarcinomas of vagina are associated with vaginal adenosis.

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4
Q

_____ are on the female urethral meatus and they elicit pain and bleeding. It is an exophytic ulcerated mass.

The lesion exhibits acutely and chronically inflammed granulation tissue and ulceration and hyperplasia of transitional cell or squamous cellepithelium.

A

Caruncles are on the female urethral meatus and they elicit pain and bleeding. It is an exophytic ulcerated mass.

The lesion exhibits acutely and chronically inflammed granulation tissue and ulceration and hyperplasia of transitional cell or squamous cellepithelium.

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5
Q

_____ ducts form fallopian tubes, uterus, and vagina.

A

Mullerian ducts form fallopian tubes, uterus, and vagina.

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6
Q

There are _____ tumors of the ovary that resemble epithelium of fallopian tube

A

There are serous tumors of the ovary that resemble epithelium of fallopian tube

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7
Q

There are _____ tumors of the ovary that resemble mucosa of endocervix

A

There are mucinous tumors of the ovary that resemble mucosa of endocervix

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8
Q

There are _____ tumors that resemble glands of endometrium

A

There are endometriod tumors that resemble glands of endometrium

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9
Q

There are _____ cell tumors that display glycogen rich cells that resemble endometrial glands in pregnancy

A

There are clear cell tumors that display glycogen rich cells that resemble endometrial glands in pregnancy

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10
Q

There are _____ cell tumors that resemble the mucosa of the bladder

A

There are transitional cell tumors that resemble the mucosa of the bladder

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11
Q

N. Gonorrhea can cause acute _____ & can cause a tubo-ovarian abscess. Systemic complications of Gonorrhea include septicemia and septic arthritis. Healing from infection causes sterility due to destruction of plicae of fallopian tube.

A

N. Gonorrhea can cause acute salpingitis & can cause a tubo-ovarian abscess. Systemic complications of Gonorrhea include septicemia and septic arthritis. Healing from infection causes sterility due to destruction of plicae of fallopian tube.

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12
Q

_____ cells have pale, vacuolated cytoplasm that contains glycosaminoglycans. It stains with periodic acid schiff (PAS) & carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA).

Extramammary paget disease typically occurs on labia majora. Women will compain of a pruitus (burning) sensation for many years.

A

Paget cells have pale, vacuolated cytoplasm that contains glycosaminoglycans. It stains with periodic acid schiff (PAS) & carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA).

Extramammary paget disease typically occurs on labia majora. Women will compain of a pruitus (burning) sensation for many years.

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13
Q

_____ sclerosis in an inflamatory disease of the vulva which is often associated with autoimmune disorders (vitiligo, pernecious anemia, hashimotos thyroiditis). The condition is represented by white plaques, atrophic skin, and a parchment-like or crinkled appearance. Itching is most common symptom.

On histology there is hyperkeratosis & loss of rete ridges.

A

Lichen sclerosis in an inflamatory disease of the vulva which is often associated with autoimmune disorders (vitiligo, pernecious anemia, hashimotos thyroiditis). The condition is represented by white plaques, atrophic skin, and a parchment-like or crinkled appearance. Itching is most common symptom.

On histology there is hyperkeratosis & loss of rete ridges.

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14
Q

_____ virus produces condylomata acuminatum, a benign exophytic papilomatious lesion on skin or mucous membranes of female genital tract.

HPV is a DNA virus.

A

HPV virus produces condylomata acuminatum, a benign exophytic papilomatious lesion on skin or mucous membranes of female genital tract.

HPV is a DNA virus.

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15
Q

_____ trachomatis causes lymphogranuloma venereum which are enlarged inguinal lymph nodes that may even rupture & rectal stricures. C trachomatis is a gram negative obligate intracellular rickettsia.

A

Chlamydia trachomatis causes lymphogranuloma venereum which are enlarged inguinal lymph nodes that may even rupture & rectal stricures. C trachomatis is a gram negative obligate intracellular rickettsia.

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16
Q

_____ also called a soft chancere is caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, a gram negative bacillus. Disease is rare in USA but common in underdeveloped countries. Granulomatous inflammation is present.

Vesiculopustular lesions appear on cervix, vagina, vulva, or perianal region 3 - 5 days after _____ congress with an infected partner.

A major complication is scar formation during the healing phase which causes urethral stenosis.

A

Chancroid also called a soft chancere is caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, a gram negative bacillus. Disease is rare in USA but common in underdeveloped countries. Granulomatous inflammation is present.

Vesiculopustular lesions appear on cervix, vagina, vulva, or perianal region 3 - 5 days after sexual congress with an infected partner.

A major complication is scar formation during the healing phase which causes urethral stenosis.

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17
Q

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is _____ of the cervix.

Severe dysplasia is CIN 3

CIN 2 = moderate dysplasia–most of the cellular abnormalities are in the _____ and middle thirds (⅔) of the epithelium

CIN 1 = mild dysplasia and carcinoma in situ.

A

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is dysplasia of the cervix.

Severe dysplasia is CIN 3

CIN 2 = moderate dysplasia–most of the cellular abnormalities are in the lower and middle thirds (⅔) of the epithelium

CIN 1 = mild dysplasia and carcinoma in situ.

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18
Q

Invasive carcinoma = neoplastic cells break through _____ membrane.

A

Invasive carcinoma = neoplastic cells break through basal membrane.

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19
Q

Endocervical _____ is themost common cervical benign growth. It manifests as vaginal bleeding or discharge.

A

Endocervical polyp is themost common cervical benign growth. It manifests as vaginal bleeding or discharge.

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20
Q

_____ cell carcinoma is the most common type of cervical cancer. The clinical stage of the cancer is the best prognostic index of survival.

Cervical cancer spreads by direct extension and through lymphatic vessels. Local extension can cause ureteral compression and give hydroureter, hydronephrosis, and _____ failiure.

A

Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of cervical cancer. The clinical stage of the cancer is the best prognostic index of survival.

Cervical cancer spreads by direct extension and through lymphatic vessels. Local extension can cause ureteral compression and give hydroureter, hydronephrosis, and renal failiure.

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21
Q

The risk of developing endometrial cancer _____ with progressivley higher degrees of endometrial hyperplasia.

Atypical hyperplasia takes a _____ time to develop cancer than complex hyperplasia.

A

The risk of developing endometrial cancer increases with progressivley higher degrees of endometrial hyperplasia.

Atypical hyperplasia takes a shorter time to develop cancer than complex hyperplasia.

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22
Q

The _____ tumor supressor gene which is hormonally regulated in normal endometrium is an informative biomarker for endometrial carcinogensis.

Loss of PTEN function occurs in ⅔ of endometrial carcinomas.

A

The PTEN tumor supressor gene which is hormonally regulated in normal endometrium is an informative biomarker for endometrial carcinogensis.

Loss of PTEN function occurs in ⅔ of endometrial carcinomas.

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23
Q

_____ causes loss of function in p53 & Rb due to binding of E6 to p53 & of E7 to Rb. HPV causes cervical cancer.

A

HPV causes loss of function in p53 & Rb due to binding of E6 to p53 & of E7 to Rb. HPV causes cervical cancer.

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24
Q

Endometrial hyperplasia and adenocarcinoma are frequently associated with endogenous or exogenous estrogen _____.

Some causes of estrogen _____ are anovulatory cycles, polycystic ovarian syndrome, an estrogen producting tomor, or obesity.

Estrogenic stimulation beyond 2 week interval of normal menstrual cycle causes changes associated with a 2-10 increased risk in endometrial cancer.

Endometrial hyperplasia is recognized as monoclonal neoplastic growth of genetically altered cells.

A

Endometrial hyperplasia and adenocarcinoma are frequently associated with endogenous or exogenous estrogen excess.

Some causes of estrogen excess are anovulatory cycles, polycystic ovarian syndrome, an estrogen producting tomor, or obesity.

Estrogenic stimulation beyond 2 week interval of normal menstrual cycle causes changes associated with a 2-10 increased risk in endometrial cancer.

Endometrial hyperplasia is recognized as monoclonal neoplastic growth of genetically altered cells.

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25
Q

_____ is a benign tumor of smooth muscle origin also known as a uterine fibroid.

Estrogen promotes growth of leiomyomas.

A

Leiomyoma is a benign tumor of smooth muscle origin also known as a uterine fibroid.

Estrogen promotes growth of leiomyomas.

26
Q

_____ is the presence of benign endometrial glands and stroma in the myometrium.

_____ is mostly asymptomatic but it can cause pelvic pain, uterine bleeding, dysmenorrhea, and dyspareuria.

A

Adenomyosis is the presence of benign endometrial glands and stroma in the myometrium.

Adenomyosis is mostly asymptomatic but it can cause pelvic pain, uterine bleeding, dysmenorrhea, and dyspareuria.

27
Q

_____ is a malignant tumor of smooth muscle origin. It should be suspected if a suspected leiomyoma is soft, shows areas of necrosis, has irregular borders, or does not bulge above the surface when cut.

Evidence for diagnosis of _____ include 10 or more mitosis per high powered field, 5 or more mitosis per 10 high powered field with nuclear atypia and necrosis, and myxoid and epithelioid smooth muscle tumors with 5 or more mitosis per 10 high powered field.

A

Leiomyosarcoma is a malignant tumor of smooth muscle origin. It should be suspected if a suspected leiomyoma is soft, shows areas of necrosis, has irregular borders, or does not bulge above the surface when cut.

Evidence for diagnosis of Leiomyosarcoma include 10 or more mitosis per high powered field, 5 or more mitosis per 10 high powered field with nuclear atypia and necrosis, and myxoid and epithelioid smooth muscle tumors with 5 or more mitosis per 10 high powered field.

28
Q

_____ is a mixed tumor with malignant epithelial and stromal components.

A

Carcinosarcoma is a mixed tumor with malignant epithelial and stromal components.

29
Q

Endometrial stromal sarcomas show a _____ supporting framework with neoplstic cells concentrically arranged around blood vessel.

A

Endometrial stromal sarcomas show a vascular supporting framework with neoplstic cells concentrically arranged around blood vessel.

30
Q

Endometrial _____ are thought to arise from endometrial foci that are hypersensitive to estrogenic stimulation or unresponsive to progesterone. The foci do not slough out during menstruation and continue to grow.

The core of a _____ has endometrial glands, coiled dilated blood vessels, and fibrous stroma.

A

Endometrial polyps are thought to arise from endometrial foci that are hypersensitive to estrogenic stimulation or unresponsive to progesterone. The foci do not slough out during menstruation and continue to grow.

The core of a polyp has endometrial glands, coiled dilated blood vessels, and fibrous stroma.

31
Q

_____ ovarian syndrome also known as Stein-Leventhal syndrome describes clinical manifestations related to the secretion of excess androgenic hormones, persistent anovulation, and ovaries containing many subcapsular cysts.

Women may display obeisity and _____ (male pattern of body hair).

Polycystic ovarian syndrome’s hyperandrogenism is due to increased _____ levels.

A

Polycystic ovarian syndrome also known as Stein-Leventhal syndrome describes clinical manifestations related to the secretion of excess androgenic hormones, persistent anovulation, and ovaries containing many subcapsular cysts.

Women may display obeisity and hirsutism (male pattern of body hair).

Polycystic ovarian syndrome’s hyperandrogenism is due to increased leurinizing hormone (LH) levels.

32
Q

Malignant papillary structures and psammoma bodies (laminated calcified concretions) in a patient with ascites is most compatible with _____ serous cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary.

The most commonly encountered ovarian tumors arise from the surace _____ of the ovary and are called common epithelial tumors. Common epithelial neoplasms are due to repeated disruption and repair of the epithalial surface during normal ovulation. Thus these tumors afflict women who are nulliparious and occur least in women whos ovulation has been supressed by pregnancy or contraception.

Ovarian tumors from surface epithelium are hormonally _____.

The _____ gene implicated in hereditary breast cancer also causes this familial ovarian cancer.

A

Malignant papillary structures and psammoma bodies (laminated calcified concretions) in a patient with ascites is most compatible with papillary serous cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary.

The most commonly encountered ovarian tumors arise from the surace epithelium of the ovary and are called common epithelial tumors. Common epithelial neoplasms are due to repeated disruption and repair of the epithalial surface during normal ovulation. Thus these tumors afflict women who are nulliparious and occur least in women whos ovulation has been supressed by pregnancy or contraception.

Ovarian tumors from surface epithelium are hormonally inactive.

The BRCA1 gene implicated in hereditary breast cancer also causes this familial ovarian cancer.

33
Q

Germ cells give rise to _____, which are tumors that differentiate toward somatic structures like skin, sebaceous glands, and hair.

Haploid germ cells auto fertilize yeilding a diploid tumor of cells that are genetically femaile 46 XX.

A

Germ cells give rise to teratomas, which are tumors that differentiate toward somatic structures like skin, sebaceous glands, and hair.

Haploid germ cells auto fertilize yeilding a diploid tumor of cells that are genetically femaile 46 XX.

34
Q

Granulosa, sertoli-leydig cells, and theca cells give rise to cord/ stromal _____.

A

Granulosa, sertoli-leydig cells, and theca cells give rise to cord/ stromal tumors.

35
Q

Granulosa cell tumor is a neoplasm of the ovary associated with _____ secretion. The tumor is derived from sex cord stromal cells.

Granulosa cell tumors occur after the menopause.

Granulosa cell tumors display call-_____ bodies that show haphazard orientation of the nuclei about a central degenerative space, which give a follicular histologic pattern.

Since estrogen is secreted, endometrial _____ is a presenting sign. Hyperplasia may progress to endometrial adenocarcinoma if the Granulosa cell tumor remains undetected.

A

Granulosa cell tumor is a neoplasm of the ovary associated with estrogen secretion. The tumor is derived from sex cord stromal cells.

Granulosa cell tumors occur after the menopause.

Granulosa cell tumors display call-exner bodies that show haphazard orientation of the nuclei about a central degenerative space, which give a follicular histologic pattern.

Since estrogen is secreted, endometrial hyperplasia is a presenting sign. Hyperplasia may progress to endometrial adenocarcinoma if the Granulosa cell tumor remains undetected.

36
Q

Krukenberg tumors are ovarian _____ where the tumor appears as nests of mucin-filled signet ring cells within a cellular stroma derived from the ovary.

The _____ (75%) is the primary site of metastesis followed by the colon. This causes gastric adenocarcinoma.

A

Krukenberg tumors are ovarian metastases where the tumor appears as nests of mucin-filled signet ring cells within a cellular stroma derived from the ovary.

The stomach (75%) is the primary site of metastesis followed by the colon. This causes gastric adenocarcinoma.

37
Q

Choriocarcinoma of the _____ is a tumor that mimics the epithelial covering of the placental villi. It occurs in young girls with precocious sexual development, menstrual irregularities, and rapid breast enlargement.

In women of reproductive age, ovarian choriocarcinoma may be metastasis from an intrauterine gestational tumor.

It displays an admixture of malignant cytotrophoblasts and syctytiotrophoblast. The synctitial cells secrete _____, which accounts for the positive pregnancy test result.

A

Choriocarcinoma of the ovary is a tumor that mimics the epithelial covering of the placental villi. It occurs in young girls with precocious sexual development, menstrual irregularities, and rapid breast enlargement.

In women of reproductive age, ovarian choriocarcinoma may be metastasis from an intrauterine gestational tumor.

It displays an admixture of malignant cytotrophoblasts and syctytiotrophoblast. The synctitial cells secrete hCG, which accounts for the positive pregnancy test result.

38
Q

Hydritaform mole secretes _____ but it is a gestational trophoblastic disease.

A

Hydritaform mole secretes hCG but it is a gestational trophoblastic disease.

39
Q

Ovarian _____ is counterpart of male seminoma and is comprised of activated germ cells.

The neoplasm shoes nests of uniform cells with flat central nuclei. Fibrous septa containing lymphocytes traverse the tumor.

A

Ovarian dysgerminoma is counterpart of male seminoma and is comprised of activated germ cells.

The neoplasm shoes nests of uniform cells with flat central nuclei. Fibrous septa containing lymphocytes traverse the tumor.

40
Q

Vulvar squamous cell carcinoma have _____ pearls on histology, they express cytokeratin tumor marker, and they are the most commont malignant neoplasm of the vulva.

Vulvar squamous cell carcinoma is due to vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia. ⅔ of the tumors are exophytic and the other are ulcerative & endophytic.

A

Vulvar squamous cell carcinoma have keratin pearls on histology, they express cytokeratin tumor marker, and they are the most commont malignant neoplasm of the vulva.

Vulvar squamous cell carcinoma is due to vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia. ⅔ of the tumors are exophytic and the other are ulcerative & endophytic.

41
Q

95% of ectopic pregnancies occur in the _____ tube. It may be secondary to endometriosis. Tubual _____ is a serious life threatening emergency that can result in rapid exsanguination.

A

95% of ectopic pregnancies occur in the fallopian tube. It may be secondary to endometriosis. Tubual rupture is a serious life threatening emergency that can result in rapid exsanguination.

42
Q

_____ beings in the 20th week of pregnancy with excessive weight gain due to fluid retention, increased maternal blood pressure, and proteinuria. Renal function can decline with severe preeclampsia.

The most dangerous complication of preeclampsia is disseminated intravascular _____ manifested as fibrin thrombi in the liver, brain, and kidneys. Therapy is removal of placenta, hopefully by normal delivery.

A

Preeclampsia beings in the 20th week of pregnancy with excessive weight gain due to fluid retention, increased maternal blood pressure, and proteinuria. Renal function can decline with severe preeclampsia.

The most dangerous complication of preeclampsia is disseminated intravascular coagulation manifested as fibrin thrombi in the liver, brain, and kidneys. Therapy is removal of placenta, hopefully by normal delivery.

43
Q

_____ hydritaform mole is a placenta that has grossly swollen chorionic villi that look like grapes. Fetal parts & tissues are _____ in complete hydritaform.

Complete mole results from fertilization of an empty ovum without DNA. The mole is _____ loid and the genotype is homozygous 46 XX & all of the chromosomes are of paternal origin.

A

Complete hydritaform mole is a placenta that has grossly swollen chorionic villi that look like grapes. Fetal parts & tissues are absent in complete hydritaform.

Complete mole results from fertilization of an empty ovum without DNA. The mole is diploid and the genotype is homozygous 46 XX & all of the chromosomes are of paternal origin.

44
Q

Choriocarcinoma is highly prevalent in _____. Choriocarcinoma develops in 2% of patients after a complete hydritaform _____ is evacuated. There is metastasis to the lungs or brain.

An indicator of Choriocarcinoma is that serum _____ levels are much higher than expected for a patient’s due date.

A

Choriocarcinoma is highly prevalent in asia. Choriocarcinoma develops in 2% of patients after a complete hydritaform mole is evacuated. There is metastasis to the lungs or brain.

An indicator of Choriocarcinoma is that serum hCG levels are much higher than expected for a patient’s due date.

45
Q

Placenta _____ is attatchent of the villi to the myometrium with no further invasion. Prego women.

Most patients with Placenta _____ have a normal pregnancy and delivery. Bleeding in the 3rd trimester is common sign presenting before delivery.

A

Placenta accreta is attatchent of the villi to the myometrium with no further invasion. Prego women.

Most patients with Placenta accreta have a normal pregnancy and delivery. Bleeding in the 3rd trimester is common sign presenting before delivery.

46
Q

Placenta _____ is villi invading* the underlying myometrium.

Postpartum hemmorhage may occur.

A

Placenta increta is villi invading* the underlying myometrium.

Postpartum hemmorhage may occur.

47
Q

Placenta _____ describes villi penetrating the full thickness of the uterine wall.

Postpartum hemmorhage may occur.

A

Placenta percreta describes villi penetrating the full thickness of the uterine wall.

Postpartum hemmorhage may occur.

48
Q

Abrupito placentae is retroplacental _____ in the absence of clinical hemorrhage.

A

Abrupito placentae is retroplacental hemorrhage in the absence of clinical hemorrhage.

49
Q

Placenta previa refers to implantation of the placenta close to or over the _____.

A

Placenta previa refers to implantation of the placenta close to or over the cervix.

50
Q

Mullerian tubes will form along female lines unless specifically impeded by embryonic _____ factor. In males, sertoli cells in the developing testes produce mullerian-_____ substance, a protein that causes the mullerian ducts to regress. These ducts are the precursors of the fallopian tubes, uterus, and upper third of the vagina.

A

Mullerian tubes will form along female lines unless specifically impeded by embryonic testicular factor. In males, sertoli cells in the developing testes produce mullerian-inhibiting substance, a protein that causes the mullerian ducts to regress. These ducts are the precursors of the fallopian tubes, uterus, and upper third of the vagina.

51
Q

The bartholin glands produce a clear mucous secretion that _____ the vestibular surface. The ducts are prone to _____ and cyst formation called a bartholin gland cyst or abcess.

A

The bartholin glands produce a clear mucous secretion that lubricates the vestibular surface. The ducts are prone to obstruction and cyst formation called a bartholin gland cyst or abcess.

52
Q

Toxic shock syndrome is an acute emergency that includes fever, shock, and a desquamitive erythematous rash. it is typically due to _____ being in for too long and growing staph _____.

Staph. _____ releases an endotoxin called toxic shock syndrome toxin-1. Disseminated intravascular coagulationt is prominent.

A

Toxic shock syndrome is an acute emergency that includes fever, shock, and a desquamitive erythematous rash. it is typically due to tampons being in for too long and growing staph aureus.

Staph. aureus releases an endotoxin called toxic shock syndrome toxin-1. Disseminated intravascular coagulationt is prominent.

53
Q

Sexual transmission of Gardnerella vaginallis, a gram negative, coccobacillus is a cause for cases of _____ vaginitis. They are best seen with pap smear. Vag produces a fishy odor with 10% potassium hydroxide.

“_____ cells” are pathognomonic and show squamous cells covered by coccobacilli.

A

Sexual transmission of Gardnerella vaginallis, a gram negative, coccobacillus is a cause for cases of nonspecific vaginitis. They are best seen with pap smear. Vag produces a fishy odor with 10% potassium hydroxide.

“Clue cells” are pathognomonic and show squamous cells covered by coccobacilli.

54
Q

Most of the tumors of cervical adenocarcinoma are of the endocervical _____ cell type. They are associated with adenocarcinoma in situ and are frequently infected with HPV 16 & 18.

A

Most of the tumors of cervical adenocarcinoma are of the endocervical mucinous cell type. They are associated with adenocarcinoma in situ and are frequently infected with HPV 16 & 18.

55
Q

Teratocarcinoma features immature embryonic tissues and malignant _____ cells.

A

Teratocarcinoma features immature embryonic tissues and malignant stem cells.

56
Q

_____ are the most common ovarial stromal tumors & occur at all ages. The tumors are solid, firm, and white.

50% of _____ present with ascities.

A

Fibromas are the most common ovarial stromal tumors & occur at all ages. The tumors are solid, firm, and white.

50% of fibromas present with ascities.

57
Q

_____-_____ cell tumor is a rare low malignant mesenchymal neoplasm of the ovary that resembles the embryonic testis. It has androgen secretion, which causes masculinization of the woman & defeminization (breast atrophy, amenorrhea, & loss of hip fat).

When the tumor is removed, the masculine signs diminish.

A

Sertoli-leydig cell tumor is a rare low malignant mesenchymal neoplasm of the ovary that resembles the embryonic testis. It has androgen secretion, which causes masculinization of the woman & defeminization (breast atrophy, amenorrhea, & loss of hip fat).

When the tumor is removed, the masculine signs diminish.

58
Q

Thecomas are _____ producing tumors that arise in postmenopausal women. When cut in section they are yellow due to lipid laden theca cells.

A

Thecomas are estrogen producing tumors that arise in postmenopausal women. When cut in section they are yellow due to lipid laden theca cells.

59
Q

The tumor marker of yolk sac carcinoma is _____. When the tumor is removed, AFP levels _____.

A

The tumor marker of yolk sac carcinoma is alpha fetoprotein. When the tumor is removed, AFP levels drop.

60
Q

Patial hydritaform moles contain fetal parts and are _____ loid. This is due to fetilization of a normal ovum by 2 spermatozoa or a single sperm that has not undergone meiotic reduction.

A

Patial hydritaform moles contain fetal parts and are triploid. This is due to fetilization of a normal ovum by 2 spermatozoa or a single sperm that has not undergone meiotic reduction.

61
Q

Endometriod adenocarcimoma is linked to prolonged _____ stimulation of the endometrium. Risk factors include exogenous estrogens, obesity, diabetes, nulliparity, early menarche & late menopause (all cause _____ estrogen exposure).

Obesity is involved because of the enhanced aromatization of androstenedione to estrong in fat.

A

Endometriod adenocarcimoma is linked to prolonged estrogenic stimulation of the endometrium. Risk factors include exogenous estrogens, obesity, diabetes, nulliparity, early menarche & late menopause (all cause more estrogen exposure).

Obesity is involved because of the enhanced aromatization of androstenedione to estrong in fat.