chapter-18 Flashcards
How do physical fitness and an active lifestyle supportthe Air Force mission? (425)
They increase productivity, optimize health and decreaseabsenteeism while maintaining a higher level of readiness.
What five elements should your year-round totalfitness conditioning program consider? (425)
1) Cardiorespiratory fitness; 2) strength and endurance; 3)flexibility conditioning; 4) body composition; and 5) healthyeating habits.
Why must commanders and supervisors incorporatefitness into the Air Force culture? (425)
To establish an environment where members maintain physicalfitness and health to meet expeditionary mission requirementsand deliver a fit-and-ready force.
What tool helps commanders determine the overallfitness of their personnel? (425)
The annual Fitness Assessment (FA).
hy is being physically fit more than just passingthe Air Force Fitness Assessment (FA)? (425)
Being physically fit ensures every Airman can properly supportthe Air Force mission while performing at optimal capacity.
The fitness program’s goal is to motivate year-roundphysical conditioning. What does the program emphasize?(425)
Total fitness. (This includes proper aerobic conditioning,muscular fitness training and healthy eating.)
What are the five major components of fitness? (425)
1) Cardiorespiratory endurance; 2) body composition; 3)muscular strength; 4) muscular endurance; and 5) flexibility.(Warm-up and cool-down are also essential components of acomplete physical fitness program.)
What is cardiorespiratory endurance? (425)
Sometimes called aerobic fitness, it is the ability to performlarge muscle, dynamic, moderate-to-high intensity exercisefor prolonged periods.
Body __ measures your relative amounts of fatand fat-free tissue. (425)
Composition.
What is muscular strength? (425)
The maximum force generated by a specific muscle or musclegroup.
What is muscular endurance? (425)
A muscle group’s ability to contract repeatedly over a periodof time to cause muscular fatigue.
__ is the maximum ability to move a joint freely,without pain, through a range of motion. (425)
Flexibility.
What four principles should a successful cardiovascularexercise program employ? (425)
The principles of 1) frequency; 2) intensity; 3) duration; and4) mode.
Effective cardiorespiratory conditioning is best accomplishedwith __ to __ adequately intenseworkouts per week. (425)
Three to five.
Fitness leaders must be aware of the dangers of__ since the risk of injury increases with increasingworkout duration and intensity. (425)
Overtraining.
Improvements in cardiovascular fitness are directlyrelated to the __ of the exercise performed. (425)
Intensity
What is the minimum training intensity required inan exercise session? (425)
50% of Volume of Oxygen (V02) max, sometimes referredto as the “training threshold.”
The Target Heart Rate (THR) corresponds to anintensity sufficient to achieve cardiorespiratory improvement.T/F (425-426)
True.
In cardiovascular training, how do you calculateyour Target Heart Rate (THR)? (426-Fig)
Subtract your age from 220. Then multiply by .7 to find thebottom THR and by .9 to find the top THR.
A Target Heart Rate (THR) of 70 to 90% of one’stheoretical Maximum Heart Rate (MHR) is equivalent to__ to __ % of one’s Volume of Oxygen (V02) max.(426)
50 to 85%.
__ is the time spent exercising with the most benefitoccurring in the Target Heart Rate (THR) zone. (426)
Duration. (The more intense the activity, the shorter the timeneeded to produce or maintain the training effect.)
Only sustained activities requiring a large amount ofexercise using large muscle groups will improve cardiovascularfitness. Give several examples. (426)
Running, rowing, jogging, vigorous walking, jumping rope,stationary cycling, swimming and stair climbing.
Successful muscular strength and endurance programsemploy what five principles? (426)
he principles of I) specificity; 2) regularity; 3) recovery; 4)balance; and 5) variety.
The principle of ___ dictates you provide resistanceto the muscle groups that need to be strengthened.(426)
Specificity. (Strengthening muscles used m work-relatedmovements can improve job performance.)
The principle of specificity states: if an Airman wishesto improve performance for a work-related task, thenstrengthening the identified muscles will ensure maximumcarryover value for his or her __ tasks. (426)
Warrior tasks.
Exercise must be done regularly to produce a trainingeffect. How many workouts per week produce optimalgains in strength? (426)
Three workouts per week.
Can an Airman maintain a moderate level ofstrength by doing proper strength workouts only once aweek? (426)
Yes, for a short period of time, if he or she has already establisheda strong baseline level of muscular fitness.
An Airman who exercises three times per weekachieves optimal muscle strength gains when exercising different muscle groups at each workout. T/F (426)
False. (Gains will be minimal as the principle ofregularity is violated.)
How many times a week should an Airman exercisethe same muscle group? (426)
A minimum of two times a week.
Why should there be at least a 48-hour recovery periodbetween working the same muscle groups? (426)
So the muscles have time to adapt.
Consecutive days of hard resistance training for thesame muscle group can be __ . (426)
Detrimental. (Strength training can be done every day, butonly if muscle groups are rotated so the same muscles are nottrained consecutively.)
Normally, the recovery time between sets in muscularstrength training should be between __ to __seconds. (427)
30 to 180.
The principle of __ states that a strength-trainingprogram should work all major muscle groups in boththe upper and lower body. (427)
Balance.
The principle of balance indicates that you shouldwork opposing muscle groups during strength training.Why? (427)
It ensures good muscle strength balance and may reduce therisk of injury. (For example, follow an overhead press with alat pull down exercise.)
In a strength-training program, exercises shouldtarget larger muscle groups first. T/F (427)
True. (If smaller muscle groups are worked first, they will beexhausted and too weak to handle the resistance needed tooverload the larger muscle groups.)
What is the principle of variety in strength and enduranceprograms? (427)
Enhance results by using different types of equipment andexercises and altering volume and intensity.
To enhance variety, change your muscular conditioningto __ -resisted exercises or another form ofresistance training. (427)
Partner-resisted.
While adding variety to a strength-training programcan be beneficial, why should Airmen avoid frequentwholesale changes? (427)
They may become frustrated if they do not have enough time to adapt or see improvements in strength.
Prevent injury and muscle soreness with a good__ at the beginning and __ at the end of exercise.(427)
Warm-up and cool down.
During the warm-up, perform slow joint rotationexercises. This will help increase the joint’s __ of__ .(427)
Range of motion. (Work each major joint for 5 to 10 seconds.)
The preferred time for flexibility stretching is beforethe exercise session. T/F (427)
False. (Overstretching prior to the session can compromisejoint integrity.)
When is the best time to improve your flexibility bystretching? (427)
After exercising, when your muscles are warmest.
Hold stretching positions forconds during cool-down. (427)
10 to 15 seconds. (Relax the stretch, then repeat for maximumbenefit.)
What are the two most important factors in maintaininga positive body composition and losing excessivebody fat? (427)
Exercise and diet.
A realistic weight loss goal is one to two pounds aweek. How is this best accomplished? (427)
By reducing caloric intake and increasing energy expenditure.
Why is dieting without exercise an ineffective way tolose weight? (427)
Your body may believe it is being starved and attempt toconserve its fat reserves by slowing its metabolism.
Airmen should minimize their daily caloric intakeyet consume all major food groups. What is the minimumcaloric intake for Airmen not under medical supervision?(428)
At least 1,500 calories for men or 1,200 for women.
Why don’t fad diets and devices or skipping mealsproduce long-term fat loss? (428)
Most weight lost is water and lean muscle tissue, not fat.(Safely losing fat takes time and patience.)
In addition to burning calories, exercise helps thebody maintain muscle mass. T/F (428)
True. (It may also keep the body’s metabolic rate high.)
__ exercise, which uses lots of oxygen, is the bestto burn fat. (428)
Aerobic. (Anaerobic act1v1t1es like sprinting and liftingheavy weights bum little, if any, fat.)
Why is exercise alone ineffective for losing weight?(428)
Exercise does not bum enough fat on its own to cause significantweight loss.
What activities are included in a good dynamicwarm-up before vigorous exercise? (428)
Airmen should take five to seven minutes slowly 1) joggingor walking; 2) rotating joints; and 3) mimicking the activitiesto be performed.
Why is it important to slowly return the body to itsresting state after exercise? (428)
Stopping suddenly after vigorous exercise can potentiallylead to health complications.
How should you cool-down after exercising? (428)
1) Repeat the dynamic warm-up activities; 2) be careful notto overstretch; and 3) hold stretches for 15-30 seconds ormore to improve flexibility.
Do not limit __ training to cool-down periodsonly. (428)
Flexibility. (Stretching takes very little time relative to thebenefits gained and can easily be done at home or work.)
A job that requires repetitive movements, or is moresedentary, decreases tension in specific muscle groups.T/F (428)
False. (Tension increases in the specific muscle groups andmild stretching throughout the day can help.)
Commander-driven physical fitness training is thebackbone of the Air Force physical fitness program.What does it promote? (429)
1) Aerobic and muscular fitness; 2) flexibility; and 3) optimalbody composition.
__ is crucial during PT and testing. (429)
Safety.
A PT program must exceed members’ current fitnesslevel to encourage and promote progress to a higher one. T/F (429)
False. (The PT program must meet members’ current fitnesslevel.)
How is the PT program’s effectiveness measured?(429)
With the 1) 1.5-mile timed run; 2) I-mile walk; 3) AbdominalCircumference (AC); 4) pushup and situp tests. (Donot limit training to these tests.)
The unit fitness program develops general fitness,prevents __ and decreases repetitive strain injuries.(429)
Boredom.
How can the unit PT program ensure a safe trainingenvironment? (429)
By assessing I) traffic patterns; 2) temperature; 3) wateravailability; 4) first aid availability; 5) awareness of emergencyprocedures; 6) individual medical limitations and abilitylevels; and 7) use of headphones or other personal equipment.
What are the three components of the compositefitness score, used to determine overall fitness based on?(429)
1) Aerobic fitness; 2) muscular strength/endurance; and 3)body composition using Abdominal Circumference (AC)measurements.
A composite fitness score of __ , in addition tomeeting the minimum component scores, represents theminimum acceptable health, fitness and readiness levels.(429)
75 or greater. (Though health and readiness benefits continueto accrue with increasing fitness levels.)
__ - and gender-specific fitness score charts areprovided in AFI 36-2905, Fitness Program. (429)
Age.
Scoring the minimum component values in all componentswill generate enough points to earn a compositescore of 75 or greater. T/F (429-Note)
False. (The minimum components are established to ensuremembers avoid “asymmetrical fitness.”)
The fitness composite score (ranging from 0 to 100)is calculated from what four component scores? (429)
1) Aerobic Fitness Assessment (FA) (60 points maximum);2) body composition (20 points maximum); 3) pushups (10points maximum); and 4) situps (I 0 points maximum).
How do you calculate a member’s fitness compositescore when their medical profile prohibits them fromcompleting one or more of the fitness test components?(429)
Based on the remaining components. (Multiply total componentpoints by 100, then divide by total possible points.)
Members complete a composite Fitness Assessment(FA) every three months. T/F (429)
False. (They must complete it biannually.)
__ to the composite Fitness Assessment (FA)temporarily categorize members as unable or unavailableto train or test for reasons beyond their or their commander’scontrol. (429)
Exemptions.
Who grants PT component exemptions based onmedical recommendations? (429)
The commander, in consultation with the Exercise Physiologist/Fitness Program Managers (EP/FPM).
How do increased fitness levels optimize performancein the deployed environment? (429)
They allow Airmen to tolerate extremes in temperature, fatigueand stress.
Identify the four fitness levels and the score rangefor each. ( 430-Tbl)
I) Excellent (all four components) - composite score equalsor exceeds 90; 2) Excellent (three or less components) -composite score equals or exceeds 90; 3) Satisfactory- compositescore between 75 and 89.99; and 4) Unsatisfactory -composite score below 75 and/or one component minimumnot met.
- When do Airmen who receive an excellent in all fourcomponents retest? (430-Tbl)
Within 12 months.
When do Airmen with unsatisfactory fitness levelsretest? (430-Tbl)
Within 90 days of their initial assessment.
Members must have a current fitness score on filebefore deployment. T/F (429)
True.
When is the only time “exempt” should be markedon an Airman’s Fitness Assessment (FA)? (429)
The Airman’s current FA expires while deployed where testingis not possible or did not volunteer to test at a locationwhere F As are available.
Any Fitness Assessment (FA) __ is annotated inthe Air Force Fitness Management System (AFFMS) andconsidered against the Airman. (429)
Failure.
Airmen who reach days after rece1vmg anUnsatisfactory Fitness Assessment (FA) score, but beforethe evaluation closes out, will no longer have a currentevaluation and will be marked “exempt.” (429)
91 days.
What is marked on the Fitness Assessment (FA) if anAirman has a current/passing score before deploying andhis or her evaluation closes out after the deploymentstarts? (429-430)
Meets Standards.
Deployed Airmen with Satisfactory or Excellentscores become “exempt” when they reach the __ dayof the month, seven/thirteen calendar months followingthe previous official Fitness Assessment (FA) rating. (430)
First.
Who appoints PT Leaders (PTL) to augment theFitness Assessment Cell (F AC)? (430)
Unit Commanders. (Installations develop a local Fitness Assessment(FA) plan that is signed by the installation commander.)
Fitness Assessment Cell (FAC) augmentees conductthe Fitness Assessments (FA), but do not test membersfrom their own unit. T/F (430)
True.
The Fitness Assessment Cell (F AC) will conduct theFitness Assessment (FA) for all Airmen. If no FAC exists,who should conduct the FA? (430, 430-Note)
A certified PT Leader (PTL) from another unit.
The Fitness Screening Questionnaire (FSQ) shouldbe completed no earlier than __ calendar days, or__ days for Air Reserve Component (ARC), but nolater than 7 days prior to Fitness Assessment (FA). (430,430-Note)
30; 90.
Failure to complete the Fitness Screening Questionnaire(FSQ) invalidates the Fitness Assessment (FA). T/F(430-Note)
False.
Medical providers may recommend __ exemptionsfrom specific physical conditioning programs or acomponent of the Fitness Assessment (FA). (430)
Temporary.
Pregnant members will engage in PT and receivenutrition counseling throughout the pregnancy and postpartum period. However, they are exempt from fitnesstesting during pregnancy and for __ days after delivery.(430)
180 days.
All Fitness Assessment (FA) test components must becompleted within a 3-hour window on the same day orwithin __ duty days in extenuating circumstances.(430)
Five duty days.
Assess muscular fitness after the 1-mile walk, restingat least __ minutes between components. (430)
Three minutes. (The 1.5-mile run can be done before or afterthe muscular fitness components.)
Schedule Fitness Assessment (FA) components toallow adequate __ for members with irregular or shiftwork hours. (430)
Rest.
Which component of the Fitness Assessment (FA)must be assessed first? (430)
The body composition component.
What does the body composition assessment measure?(430)
Your height, weight and Abdominal Circumference (AC).
Where will Fitness Assessment Cell (F AC) membersor trained augmentees take the Abdominal Circumference(AC) measurement? (430)
In a private room or partitioned area.
The __ assessment is a 1.5-mile timed run or, ifmedically exempt, 1-mile walk. (430-431)
Aerobic. ( 1-mile walk is the only authorized alternate assessmentfor Regular Air Force or Air Reserve Component(ARC) members.)
How are upper body and abdominal muscularstrength/endurance measured? (431)
With a one-minute timed pushup test for the upper body anda one-minute timed sit-up test for the abdominals.
Physical fitness education will be incorporated intotraining programs and unit PT. T/F (431)
True.
Ongoing __ emphasis and a supportive environmentare essential to maintaining force health and fitness. (431)
Commander.
What program is managed by the Health and WellnessCenter (HA WC) and is mandatory for all Air Forcemembers with an unsatisfactory score? (431)
The Balanced Eating, Work Out Effectively, Living Longer(BE WELL) Program.
The installation must promote a healthy lifestyleand optimal nutrition, body composition and fitnessfor all members. (431)
Environment.
Who makes the unit PT program a success? (431)
The unit commander, Unit Fitness Program Manager(UFPM), PT Leader (PTL), immediate supervisor and eachindividual.
What is the unit commander’s role in the PT program?(431)
He or she 1) promotes, supports and ensures the integrity ofthe fitness program; and 2) provides an environment conduciveto healthy lifestyle choices; 3) encourages participationin physical fitness during the duty day; and 4) implementsand maintains the PT program.
What is the Unit Fitness Program Manager’s(UFPM) role in the PT program? (431)
To 1) oversee the administration of the unit fitness program;2) notify the unit commander of members who fail to attendscheduled fitness appointments; and 3) provide monthly fitnessmetrics and unit status reports to the unit commander.
How frequently does the PT Leader (PTL) attend aPTL refresher course? (431)
Annually, or upon change in duty station.
Air Reserve Component (ARC) PT Leaders (PTL)receive initial and refresher training from Regular AirForce Exercise Physiologist/Fitness Program Managers(EP/FPM) at co-located bases. How do ARC PTLs completetraining when in-person training is not feasible?(431)
They complete distance learning training, coordinatedthrough the Air Force Medical Operations Agency and thesupporting base EP/FPM.
The PT Leader (PTL) must complete Basic LifeSupport (BLS) and Automated External Defibrillator(AED) training prior to attending the PTL certificationcourse. T IF ( 431)
True. (They must maintain currency while serving as PTLs.)
What is each individual’s role in the PT program?(432)
Each Air Force member must 1) maintain year-round physicalfitness through self-directed and unit-based fitness programsand proper nutrition standards according to AFI 36-2905; 2) meet minimum Air Force fitness standards; and 3)attend all required fitness program appointments.
What are the three main types of macronutrients?(432)
The essential calorie-containing nutrients are 1) carbohydrates;2) protein; and 3) fats.
__ are also known as the “energy powerhouse”because they fuel our bodies, especially the brain andmuscles. (432)
Carbohydrates.
Simple carbohydrates take longer to convert to glucose,keeping blood sugar levels consistent and preventingan energy crash during a workout. T/F (432)
False. (Complex carbohydrates take longer to convert toglucose.)
Most sports nutritionists recommend that carbohydratesmake up __ to __ of the calories in a diet.(432)
One-half to two-thirds.
What are the building blocks of protein, necessary tobuild and repair muscle tissue, grow hair and fingernails,produce hormones, boost your immune system and replacered blood cells? (432)
Amino acids.
rotein is needed for the development of muscles,but “more” protein will not build bigger muscles. T/F(432)
True.
General nutrition guidelines for healthy individualsare between __ and __ grams of protein per poundof body weight, depending on activity level. (432)
0.5 and 0.8 grams. (Airmen should consult with the installation’sregistered dietitian or diet technician.)
What can excessive intake of the macronutrient, fat,lead to? (432)
I) Weight gain; 2) heart disease; and 3) cancer.
What foods contain less healthy fats, such as transfats and saturated fats? (432)
Commercially baked foods and animal products.
Healthier fats are __ and __ unsaturated fats, found mostly in plant foods, nuts and fatty fish. (432)
Mono- and poly-unsaturated fats.
Fats are recommended as part of a pre-exercisesnack. T/F (432)
False. (Fats digest slowly and may cause digestive distress.)
What percentage of water is the human body madeup of? (432)
Over 50 percent.
Why is proper hydration critical before, during andafter intense workouts? (433)
Exercise places great demands on fluid replacement.
The simplest way to tell if you’re adequately hydratedis the __ test (433)
Urine test. (Drink enough water so that your urine is consistentlypale yellow or clear, and weakly scented.)
What information does the US Department of Agricultureprovide at http://www.choosemyplate.gov? (433)
A food guidance system that offers many options to helpmake healthy food and activity choices every day.
For -based advice on healthy food and physicalactivity choices, read the Dietary Guidelines for Americansat the US Department of Agriculture’s website. (433)
Science-based. (http://www.choosemyplate.gov)
With regard to nutrition, maintaining a healthy__ is one of the keys to a long, successful career. (433)
Weight. (Start by making small and gradual changes in eatingbehavior and physical activity.)
What risks increase when overweight or obese? (433)
Increased risk of high blood pressure, high blood cholesterol,heart disease, stroke, diabetes, arthritis, breathing problemsand certain types of cancers.
What is the essence of nutritional fitness? (433)
What nutrition you put into your body impacts what physicalabilities come out of your body.
What is nutritional fitness? (433)
Having a safe and appropriate quantity, quality, choice andtiming of fuels, nutrients and fluids to sustain and optimizephysical and cognitive performance, wellness and health,support environmental adaptations, accelerate healing andprotect against disease.
What helps promote nutritional fitness and a resilientand fit force? (433)
Performance-based nutrition education and an eating environmentthat makes healthy choices the easy choice.
What is the purpose of a pre-exercise meal or snack?(434)
To provide enough carbohydrates to maintain proper bloodsugar levels and enough fluid to maintain hydration duringthe activity.
Eat a pre-exercise meal __ to __ hours beforethe activity starts. ( 434)
3 to 4 hours. (Meal should include carbohydrates, fats andprotein.)
Eat a pre-exercise snack that contains mostly __30 to 60 minutes before activity. (434)
Carbohydrates. (They are digested quickly and tum into energy-giving glucose.)
Depending on the time and intensity of the workout,a post-activity snack or light meal will help with recovery.When should you eat a recovery snack? (434)
When an exercise routine is rigorous and lasts more than 45minutes.
In regard to nutrition, avoid __ diet changes beforea fitness test. (434)
Drastic. (Experiment with new food during training.)
Supplements are regulated by the Food and DrugAdministration (FDA). T/F (434)
False. (This lack of oversight means there is no guaranteethat what you purchase is what you get.)
Who created the Human Performance ResourceCenter website that has updates on supplements and performancenutrition? (434)
TheDoD.
Who must an Airman consult if he or she wantsclearance to take a dietary supplement? (434)
His or her primary care physician or flight surgeon.
Which treatment programs include substance abuseprevention, education, treatment and urinalysis testing?(434)
The Air Force Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention andTreatment (ADAPT) and Demand Reduction (DR) programs.
What assistance will individuals with substanceabuse problems receive? (434)
Counseling and treatment, as needed.
Air Force members are not responsible for unacceptablebehavior resulting from substance abuse. T/F(434)
False.
What are the four objectives of the Alcohol and DrugAbuse Prevention and Treatment (ADAPT) program?(434)
To 1) promote readiness, health and wellness by preventingand treating substance abuse; 2) minimize the negative consequencesof substance abuse; 3) provide comprehensivesubstance abuse education and treatment; and 4) return identifiedsubstance abusers to unrestricted duty status or assistthem in their transition to civilian life.
What is the DoD policy on drug abuse? (434)
To prevent and eliminate drug and alcohol abuse and dependencefrom the DoD.
Drug and alcohol abuse and dependence are incompatiblewith __ , high performance standards and militarydiscipline. ( 434)
Readiness.
Define drug abuse. (434)
The wrongful, illegal or improper use, possession, sale,transfer or introduction onto a military installation of anydrug as defined in AFI 44-121, Alcohol and Drug AbusePrevention and Treatment (ADAPT) Program.
__ use of substances is use without legal justificationor excuse. (434)
Wrongful.
To ensure military readiness, Air Force policy prohibitsingestion of products containing or derived fromhemp seed or hemp seed oil. Why? (435)
These products may contain THC, the active ingredient ofmarijuana.
Products made with hemp seed or hemp seed oil maycontain THC, the active ingredient of marijuana, andtherefore their ingestion is prohibited. Failure to complyviolates Article 92, UCMJ. T/F (435)
True
Other than the lawful use of alcohol or tobacco, the__ use of any intoxicating substance that is inhaled,injected, consumed or introduced into the body in anymanner that alters mood or function is prohibited. (435)
Knowing. (Failure to comply by military personnel violatesArticle 92, UCMJ.)
Knowing. (Failure to comply by military personnel violatesArticle 92, UCMJ.)
Worldwide.
Air Force policy recognizes that __ negativelyaffects public behavior, duty performance, and/or physicaland mental health. (435)
Alcohol abuse.
AFI __ provides guidance for the identification,treatment and management of personnel with substanceabuse problems and describes Air Force policy regardingalcohol and drug abuse. (435)
AFI 44-12 I.
AFMAN 31-116, Air Force Motor Vehicle TrafficSupervision, establishes guidance on court hearing procedures,convictions, nonjudicial punishment (NJP), civilianadministrative action or appropriate punishment forviolation of __ and intoxicated driving policies. (435)
Impaired.
Military members are presumed to be impaired withwhat blood-alcohol percentage? (435)
At least 0.05 but less than 0. 10.
Intoxicated driving is operating a motor vehicle underalcohol intoxication only. T/F (435)
False. (Drugs also qualify.)
Driving or being in physical control of a motor vehiclewith a blood alcohol percentage __ or greater resultsin a one-year driving privilege suspension. (435)
- I 0. (If more stringent, the state limit applies.)
What is the blood alcohol limit for intoxicated drivingoverseas? (435)
0.10. (The SecDefmay set a lower limit.)
Under what circumstances does the Air Force reviewmembers’ drinking habits? (435)
When they affect public behavior, duty performance or physicaland mental health.
What is the supervisor’s role in assessing potentialdrug- and alcohol-related problems? (435)
To identify subordinates with problems early and motivatethem to seek and accept help.
Name at least five of the 15 signs and symptoms of substance abuse. (436-Fig)
Any five of the following: 1) deteriorating duty performance;2) unexplained or frequent absences; 3) frequent errors injudgment; 4) financial irresponsibility; 5) arrests or legalproblems; 6) increased alcohol use; 7) memory loss; 8)morning drinking and hangovers; 9) health problems relatedto drinking; 10) violent behavior; 11) suicidal thoughts orbehaviors; 12) dramatic mood swings; 13) denial or dishonestyabout use; 14) failed attempts to stop or cut down; and15) concerns expressed by family or friends.
The presence of the signs and symptoms of substanceabuse substantiates a substance abuse problem. T/F (435)
False. (Although they are common indicators, do not usethem to make a conclusive diagnosis.)
What should you do if you are concerned that an AirForce member has a substance abuse problem? (435)
Talk with him or her and explain your concern. Also documentand discuss specific instances of unusual behavior withthe supervisor, first sergeant or unit commander. Do nothesitate to document and refer troubled subordinates to theAlcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and Treatment(ADAPT) program.
Help must be offered to every individual with substanceabuse problems. T/F (435-436-Note)
True.
What are the five basic substance abuse identificationmethods? (436-437)
1) Medical care referrals; 2) commander’s identification; 3)drug testing; 4) results of a medical examination; and 5) selfidentification.
When must medical personnel notify the unit commanderand the Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention andTreatment Program Manager (ADAPTPM) about suspectedsubstance abuse? (436)
When a member 1) is observed, identified or suspected to beunder the influence of alcohol or drugs while seeking medicalcare; 2) receives treatment for an injury or illness thatmay be the result of substance abuse; 3) is suspected of abusingsubstances; or 4) is admitted as a patient for alcohol ordrug detoxification.
List some examples of incidents that require unitcommanders to refer servicemembers for assessmentbecause substance use is suspected to be a contributingfactor. (436)
1) DUI; 2) public intoxication; 3) drunk and disorderly; 4)spouse and/or child abuse and maltreatment; 5) underagedrinking; 6) positive drug test; and 7) when notified by medicalpersonnel.
Why must commanders and supervisors refer memberswith suspected or identified substance abuse prollems for treatment? 436)
Failure to refer increases the risk for developing more severesubstance abuse problems and may jeopardize others’ safetyand, ultimately, mission accomplishment.
What AFI governs Air Force drug testing of personnel?(436)
AFI 44-120, Military Drug Demand Reduction Program.
Military personnel are subject to drug testing dependingon their grade, status and position. T/F (436)
False. (All personnel are subject to testing.)
__ testing is the best deterrent against drug abusepresently available. (436)
Inspection.
Military members may be ordered or voluntarilyconsent to provide urine samples at any time. What happensto members who fail to comply? (436)
They are subject to punitive action under the UCMJ.
Commander-directed drug testing should only beused as a last resort. Why? (436)
The results cannot be used in actions under the UCMJ or tocharacterize a member’s service as either general or underother than honorable conditions if they are separated.