Chapter 17- Male Pathology (Red Terms from Review Videos) Flashcards

1
Q

abnormal urethral orifice on the ventral side of the penis (MC)

A

hypospadias

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2
Q

abnormal urethral orifice on the dorsal side of the penis (rare)

A

epispadias

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3
Q

95% of penile neoplasms are…

A

squamous cell carcinomas (SCC)

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4
Q

Risks for Penile Squamous Cell Carcinomas

A

uncircumcised, >40 years old, poor hygiene, developing countries, HPV-16 or -18, smoking

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5
Q

Signs/Symptoms of Penile Squamous Cell Carcinomas

A

abnormal texture, failure to heal

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6
Q

Increase in serous fluid in tunica vaginalis

A

hydrocele

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7
Q

_____ will result in elephantiasis

A

Filariasis

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8
Q

What percent of newborn males have cryptorchidism?

A

1%

10% are bilateral

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9
Q

Cryptorchidism can lead to _____ _____ by age 5-6 years; this will lead to sterility

A

testicular atrophy

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10
Q

Cryptorchidism will cause a 3-5x increase risk of ____ ____

A

testicular cancer

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11
Q

Inflammation of the epididymis is called…

A

epididymitis

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12
Q

Inflammation of the testis is called….

A

orchitis

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13
Q

Inflammation of the epididymis or testis commonly begin as…

A

UTI

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14
Q

These infections may cause testicular inflammation:

_____ (20%) or _____ (caseous granulomas)

A

Mumps (20% Orchitis in adult males)

TB

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15
Q

Signs/Symptoms of testicular torsion = spermatic cord twisting

A

severe engorgement, acute pain

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16
Q

Testicular torsion occurring in utero or perinatal

A

Neonatal torsion

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17
Q

MC Testicular torsion occurring between age 12-18

A

Adult torsion

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18
Q

Deformity leading to adult torsion

A

bell-clapper deformity

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19
Q

Testicular neoplasia MC between ages…

A

15-34 years old

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20
Q

Risks for testicular neoplasia

A

History of cryptorchidism in 10% of cases
Family history: brother (8-10x)
Caucasians, CA in contralateral testicle
Gonadal dysgenesis, androgen insensitivity

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21
Q

Malignant form of testicular neoplasia

A

Germ Cell Tumors (GCTs)

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22
Q

Types of germ cell tumors

A
  1. Seminoma

2. Nonseminomatous GCTs

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23
Q

Seminomas occur in the age range….

A

40-50 years

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24
Q

Seminomas are identifiable by…

A

lesions: well-demarcated
cells: uniform, round nuclei

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25
Q

Embryonal carcinoma (a type of Nonseminomatous GCTs) occur in the age range…

A

20-30 years

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26
Q

Yolk sac tumor (a type of nonseminomatous GCTs) occur at age…

A

3 years

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27
Q

Choriocarcinoma (a type of nonseminomatous CGTs) is identifiable by…

A

increase hCG

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28
Q

Teratoma (a type of nonseminomatous GCTs) occurs in the age range…

A

all ages

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29
Q

Embryonal carcinoma (a type of nonseminomatous GCTs) are identifiable by…

A

undifferentiated, indistinct borders

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30
Q

Features of testicular cancers are…

A

MC a painless testicular mass

Non-translucent

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31
Q

____ tend to be well-contained, possibly very large, and radiosensitive

A

Seminomas

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32
Q

_____ has earlier metastasis (via lymph and heme to liver and lungs), and is less likely palpable

A

Nonseminomatous GCTs

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33
Q

Carcinomas of the prostate are most likely to develop in the….

A

peripheral zone

34
Q

Hyperplasia of the prostate is most likely to occur in the…

A

transitional zone

35
Q

4-10% of prostatitis are…

or 2-5% each

A

bacterial
(Acute bacterial 2-5%)
(Chronic bacterial 2-5%)

36
Q

What percent of prostatitis are chronic non-bacterial?

A

90-95%

37
Q

Benign hyperplasia of stroma & epithelia of prostate

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

38
Q

Benign prostatic hyperplasia will occur in the…

will appear as….

A

transitional zone (periurethral): large nodules

39
Q

Benign prostatic hyperplasia will occur in what demographic and age range?

A

90% of males at or older than 70 years

40
Q

What percentage of benign prostatic hyperplasia patients are symptomatic?

A

10%

41
Q

Prostate cancer occurs in what percentage of US males?

A

25%

42
Q

Age range of prostate cancer

A

65-75 years old

43
Q

Virtually all prostate cancers are…

A

adenocarcinomas

44
Q

Metastasis of prostate cancer occurs ____ and spreads to _____: _____

A

occurs late

spreads to axial skeleton: osteoblastic

45
Q

Hydronephrosis is an….

A

obstruction of the ureteropelvic jxn

46
Q

Hydronephrosis occurs in

A

infants & young children, boys

47
Q

A _____ will cause severe ureter pain; severe, intermittent flank pain, and pass within 4 weeks

A

Renal calculus (stone)

48
Q

_____ is acquired from urethral obstruction. MC small & asymptomatic

A

Diverticula

49
Q

_____ is urinary bladder inflammation

A

Cystitis

50
Q

7% of cancer diagnoses and 3% of cancer-related deaths are from….

A

bladder cancer

51
Q

90% of bladder cancers are…

A

urothelial carcinomas

52
Q

Risks for bladder cancer are…

A

males, industrialized nations, urban environments, age 50-80 years, chronic bladder irritation, smoking, occupational carcinogens

53
Q

Features of bladder cancer…

A

painless hematuria

54
Q

Treatment of bladder cancer..

A

radical cystectomy, chemotherapy

55
Q

What disease does Treponema pallidium cause?

A

Syphilis

56
Q

What significant shape does Treponema pallidium have?

A

spirochete

57
Q

How does transmission of syphilis occur?

A

mucosal contact

58
Q

Risks for syphilis

A

African americans (30x)

59
Q

What is the microorganism causes gonorrhea?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

60
Q

What diagnostic feature does gonorrhea have?

A

purulent urethral discharge

61
Q

What does gonorrhea cause in males?

A

urethritis, epidiymitis, orchitis, protatitis

62
Q

What does gonorrhea cause in females?

A

lower pelvic pain, vaginal discharge, salpingitis

more serious that males

63
Q

Additional features of gonorrhea

A

dysuria, urinary frequency, mucopurulent urethral exudate (2-7 days)

64
Q

What demographic is LESS likely to have obvious signs/symptoms of gonorrhea?

A

females

65
Q

_____ can occur in ~3% of females infected with gonorrhea

A

Disseminated infection

66
Q

What microorganism causes chlamydia?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

67
Q

This is the MC bacterial STD and reportable to CDC

A

Chlamydia

68
Q

What STD has features similar to gonorrhea?

A

Chlamydia

69
Q

How is chlamydia diagnosed?

A

Genital swab, urine sample

70
Q

+HLA-B27 and reactive arthritis are features of what STD?

A

Chlamydia

71
Q

What microorganism causes Trichomoniasis?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

“Trich”, flagellated protozoan

72
Q

Features of Trichomoniasis

A

Vaginitis, urethritis, balanitis

73
Q

Signs and symptoms of trichomoniasis…

who is MC symptomatic

A

discharge: yellow/green, purulent, malodorous
females: MC symptomatic

74
Q

Certain serotypes of Chlamydia trachomatis may cause…

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum

75
Q

Features of lymphogranulmoa venerum (LGV) are….

A
regional lymphadenopathy (1st month)
chronic urethritis, granuloma
76
Q

Haemophilus ducreyi causes…

A

Chancroid

77
Q

Features of chancroid are..

A

soft, painful lesions; genital ulcerations

78
Q

Klebsiella graulomatis causes..

A

Granuloma inguinale

79
Q

Features of granuloma inguinale…

A

chronic inflammatory/ulcerative lesions

80
Q

Pre-cancerous lesions due to squamous cell proliferations are a feature of…

A

Human papillomavirus

81
Q

Which strains of Human papillomavirus are MC…

A

HPV-6 and HPV-11