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9th > Chapter 163- Exanthematous Viral Diseases > Flashcards

Chapter 163- Exanthematous Viral Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Pathognomonic for measles

A

Koplik spots

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2
Q

Severe complications of measles (2)

A

Pneumonia

Postmeasles encephalomyelitis

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3
Q

Reduce morbidity and mortality of measles

A

Vitamin A

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4
Q

Infectious droplets have been reported to remain airborne for up to ___

A

2 hours

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5
Q

Small, bright red macules that have 1-2 mm blue white speck within buccal mucosa near the second molars

A

Koplik spots

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6
Q

Koplik spots occur ___ hours prior to the onset of rash and only last ___ hours

A

48

12-72

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7
Q

The hands and feet are involved in measles.

True or False

A

True

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8
Q

Positive on the first day of the rash, remains positive for at least 30 days

A

IgM

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9
Q

Measles is contagious ___ days prior to the onset of the rash until ___ days after onset of rash

A

5 days; 4 days

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10
Q

WHO recommends that Vitamin A should be adminstered to all children with measles regardless of their country of residence.
True or False

A

True

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11
Q

Vitamin A should be administered ___ IU per day on ___ consecutive days and a reduced risk of measles mortality in children younger than ___ years old

A

100,000
2 days
2 years old

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12
Q

Individuals at risk for complications are (4)

A

Younger than 1 year old
Pregnant
Unimmunized
Immunocompromised

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13
Q

Measles immunoglobulin should be given

A

0.5ml/kg IM

400mg/kg IV

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14
Q

MMR vaccine should be given

A

12 mos
12- 15 mos
4-6 years old

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15
Q

Approximately ___% of US-born populations older than age ___ is susceptible to rubella

A

10

5

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16
Q

Infants may have more severe and persistent prodromal symptoms that make distinction from rubeola difficult.
True or False

A

False, older adults

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17
Q

Tiny red macules in soft palate and uvula of rubella

A

Forchheimer spots

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18
Q

Lymphadenopathy is most severe in (3) and noted __ days before rash

A

Posterior cervical
Suboccipital
Postauricular lymph nodes
7

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19
Q

___% of women develops arthritis of small and large joints with rubella infection

A

70

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20
Q

___% of infants exposed ti rubella within the first ___ weeks of gestation develop serious sequela

A

85%

12 weeks

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21
Q

1-3% of infants with congenital rubella excrete virus in the first month of life.
True or False

A

False, majority

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22
Q

Rarely, rubella may lead to encephalitis with mortality rate of

A

50%

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23
Q

In nonpregnant, rubella vaccine may be administered within ___ of exposure

A

3 days

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24
Q

Contact isolation is recommended for infants with congenital rubella until they are at least ___ mos old or repeated cultures are negative after ___ mos of age

A

12 mos old

3 mos of age

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25
Q

Febrile seizures may occur in children ____ when receiving first MMR vaccine

A

1-2 years old

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26
Q

Any woman receiving rubella vaccine should not be pregnant for ___ days

A

28

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27
Q

Infants may be infected with rubella via breastmilk

True or False

A

True

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28
Q

Previous infection with B19 confers lifelong immunity

True or False

A

True

29
Q

B19 is usually found in respiratory secretions or serum hence are infectious even after the onset of rash.
True or False

A

False, not found, before the rash

30
Q

The secondary attack among household contacts is approximately

A

50%

31
Q

Receptor of parvovirus responsible for infection

A

Blood group P antigen

32
Q

Most common clinical picture of parvovirus B19 in children

A

Fifth disease

33
Q

___% of children develop arthralgia or arthritis

A

10%

34
Q

Major feature of rash of erythema infectiosum in children

A

Pruritus

35
Q

Primary manifestation of B19 in adults

A

Acute arthropathy

36
Q

Syndrome of pruritic erythema and edema of hands and feet with petechia, fever, and oral erosions

A

Papular purpuric gloves and socks syndrome

37
Q

IgM can be identified by 7th day of illness and lasts for years.
True or False

A

False, IgG

38
Q

Test of choice in an immunocompromised patient and to confirm fetal infection

A

PCR

39
Q

Chronic anemia of B19 is treated with

A

Gamma globulin

40
Q

Most common cause of transient aplastic crisis in patients with chronic hemolytic anemia

A

Parvovirus B19

41
Q

In aplastic crisis, Hgb may fall below

A

4ug/dl

42
Q

Most common intrauterune infection with B19

A

Nonimmune fetal hydrops

43
Q

Approximately __% of women of childbearing age are immune to parvovirus infection because of prior infection

A

50

44
Q

Treatment for transient aplastic crisis

A

Oxygen therapy

Blood transfusion

45
Q

Infectious mononucleosis is vcaracterized by triad of (3)

A

Fever
Lymphadenopathy
Pharyngitis

46
Q

Morbiliform exanthem with primary infection of EBV is due to

A

Ampicillin

Amoxicillin

47
Q

In Us, ___% are of 6 to 8 year olds are seropositive for EBV; __% by 18-19 years olds

A

50%

89%

48
Q

Risk factors for early seropositivity of EBV

A

Lower household income
Parental education level
Uninsured status
Mexican American or Black

49
Q

EBV infects B lymphocytes bia binding of EBV gp 350 with __ on surface of B cells

A

CD21

50
Q

Inherited immunodeficiencies particularly associated with impaired immune responses to EBV infection

A

X linked lymphoproliferative disease

GATA2 deficiency

51
Q

MC manifestation of EBV infection in adolescents and adults

A

Infectious mononucleosis

52
Q

Complications of EBV (5)

A 
Airway obstruction
AHA/thrombocytopenia
Neutropenia
Myocarditis
Hepatitis
53
Q

Splenomegaly occurs in ___% of patients and resolves by 4th-6th week of illness

A

50

54
Q

EBv infection during pregnancy is teratogenic

True or False

A

False, not teratogenic

55
Q

Painful multiple ulcers with red-purple ragged edges on medial or outer surface of labia minora that resolves in 2-6 weeks

A

Lipschutz ulcers

56
Q

Hallmarks of ENK/T (nasal type extranodal NK/T cell lymphoma)

A

NK cell phenotype
CD2,CD56 (+)
Angioinvasion
Necrosis

57
Q

Ulcerated midfacial tumor common among males around 50 years of age leading to nasal obstruction, facial swelling, sinusitis, destruction of underlying sinuses and palate

A

Nasal type extranodal NK/T cell lymphoma

58
Q

Difference of HVLL disease from hydroa vacciniforme (5)

A 
Systemic symptoms
Extensive facial edema
Ulceration
Scarring
Lesions are on photoprotected sites
59
Q

___ deficiency has been implicated in HVLL

A

GATA2 deficiency

60
Q

Angioinvasive proliferation of EBV infected cells with reactive polyclonal T cells population

A

Lymphomatoid granulomatosis

61
Q

Suggestive features of primary EBV infection

A

Splenomegaly
Posterior cervical lymphadenopathy
Lymphocytosis with predominance of atypical lymphocytes

62
Q

Used to confirm an EBV infection (2)

A

Heterophile antibody

EBV- specific antibody

63
Q

Used to confirm infectious mononucleosis in adolescents and adults due to its high specificity and rapid turnaround time

A

Monospot test

64
Q

Monospot test is most sensitive for children younger than 4 years old.
True or False

A

False, not

65
Q

IgM VCA (+) and IgG EBNA (+) means an acute infection

A

(-) IgG EBNA

66
Q

Marker for impending post transplantation lymphoproliferative disease

A

EBV serum PCR

67
Q

Anti-R antibodies occur during recent infection and resolve with recovery.
True or False

A

False, anti-D

68
Q

Used to reduce duration if fever or pharyngeal symptoms in infectious mononucleosis

A

Systemic corticosteroids

9th (7 decks)

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