Chapter 15 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a highly ordered sequence of events through which a cell progresses?

A

cell cycle

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2
Q

Where is the gap or growth phases in most cells?

A

between S and M phase

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3
Q

In what phases are tremendous amount of growth occur?

A

G1 and G2

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4
Q

Other than growth, what does G1 and G2 ensure?

A

ensure that each of the major cell cycle events is competed properly before the next is begun

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5
Q

Cells are sensitive to their surroundings such as what 2?

A

a. resource availability for unicellular organisms
b. neighbor constraints for multicellular organisms

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6
Q

An elaborate cell cycle control system is sensitive to what?

A

checkpoints

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7
Q

Checkpoints serve to do what 2?

A

a. ensure that a cell cycle event does not start before the previous one has been successfully completed
b. impose independence of the initiation of the cell cycle on the cell’s surroundings

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8
Q

What 3 cell populations are inherently synchronous?

A

sea urchin, frog, and clam oocytes

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9
Q

When group of cells that are inherently synchronous are induced to undergomeiotic maturation synchronously by treatment with appropriate hormones, they go from what state to what state?

A

interphase-arrested state to a metaphase-arrested state

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10
Q

Interphase-arrested state

A

immature oocyte

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11
Q

metaphase-arrested state

A

awaiting fertilization

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12
Q

Other than meiotic maturation, what is also synchronous?

A

early embryonic cell divisions of oocytes

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13
Q

The synchronous of early embryonic cell division of oocytes allows study of what behavior?

A

The behavior of a large population of cells all in the same point of the CDC

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14
Q

Why does the size of the oocytes or eggs make them amenable to study?

A

because they can be micro-injeted with biomolecules

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15
Q

Budding yeast

A

Saccharomyces cerevisiae

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16
Q

Fission yeast

A

Schizosaccharomyces pombe

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17
Q

What are single-celled eukaryotes that are easy and fast to grow, well-characterized genetically, and synchronized fairly readily?

A

Yeast cells

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18
Q

What cells can be grown as haploid cells?

A

yeast cells

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19
Q

What mutants can be isolated in yeast cells?

A

conditional loss-of-function

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20
Q

Temperature-sensitive lethal mutations grow normally at _____ growth conditions and arrest when at _______ growth conditions.

A

permissive; restrictive

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21
Q

For S. cerevisiae, what is an indicator of the stage of the CDC that the cell is in?

A

bud size

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22
Q

For S. pombe, what is the good indicator of the CDC stage?

A

length of the cell

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23
Q

What are 3 experimental organism systems given?

A

Aspergillus nidulans, Drosophilia melanogaster, and mammalian tissue

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24
Q

Why is the study potential of normal primary cells for mammalian cells limited?

A

because they will stop dividing in culture after 25-40 cell divisions.

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25
Q

What cells are immortalized?

A

cancerous cells

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26
Q

What can be formed between normal and cancerous cells and is immortalized?

A

hybrid cells

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27
Q

Fusion of what cells accelerates the G1 phase nucleus into DNA replication?

A

S-phase cell with G1 cell

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28
Q

Fusion of what cause their chromosomes to prematurely condense?

A

mitotic cells with interphase cells

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29
Q

Fusion of G2 cell with an S phase cell results in what?

A

S-phase cell continue to replicate
G2 cell did NOT begin to re-replicate its DNA

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30
Q

CDKs

A

Cyclin-depedent protein kinases

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31
Q

What is the key components of the central cell cycle control system?

A

Cyclin-dependent protein kinases

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32
Q

Structure of cyclin-dependent kinase (what it binds to)

A

two polypeptides, bound to ATP, has an active site

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33
Q

When is the cyclin-dependent protein kinase active?

A

when bound to a second polypeptide, a cyclin

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34
Q

What 3 things do active CDK need?

A
  1. a cyclin bound
  2. any inhibitory P removed by cdc25 phosphatase
  3. active P by CAK to them
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35
Q

What protein was first identified as proteins whose [ ] in the cell rose and fell coincidental to the onset of mitosis?

A

cyclin proteins

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36
Q

What promotes mitosis by phosphorylating the lamin proteins so the nuclear envelope can break down?

A

Cdk1

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37
Q

Cdk1 also phosphorylates other proteins to regulate what?

A

assembly of the mitotic spindle

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38
Q

How many cyclins does baker’s yeast and humans have?

A

baker’s yeast - 9
humans - at least 12

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39
Q

Metazoan cells have cyclins that have a similar region that enables them to bind to what?

A

catalytic CDK subunit

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40
Q

Metazoan cells have ______ that is involved in substrate recognition

A

hydrophobic patch

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41
Q

What helps to make the transitions between the phases of the cell cycle sharp and irreversible?

A

Regulatory layers

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42
Q

What pauses or advances cell cycle?

A

Regulatory layers

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43
Q

Regulatory layers help pause or advance while being sensitive to what?

A

intrinsic or extrinsic signals

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44
Q

What family adds inhibitory phosphates to specific tyrosine and threonine residues?

A

Wee1 kinase

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45
Q

Wee1 kinase adds inhibitory phosphates to where?

A

specific tyrosine and threonine residues

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46
Q

What family of phosphatases removes inhibitory phosphates?

A

Cdc25

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47
Q

Activating phosphorylation occurs on a threonine residue by what?

A

CDK-activating kinase

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48
Q

CAK

A

CDK-activating kinase

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49
Q

What regulates CDKs?

A

cyclin kinase inhibitors

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50
Q

CKI

A

cyclin kinase inhibitors

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51
Q

What family of CDIs interacts with the CDK subunit and prevents cyclin association?

A

P16 family

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52
Q

What family of CKIs binds and inhibits CDk-cyclin complexes?

A

Cip/Kip family

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53
Q

What is accomplished by segregating CDKs in different regions of the cell from their activators, inhibitors, or substrates?

A

Regulation

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54
Q

Where are the cytoplasmic retention signal?

A

on cyclin B1 and NES

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55
Q

What is a key mechanism of CDK regulation?

A

regulation via periodic availability of cyclins

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56
Q

Where do the cyclins become highly unstable and irreversibly destroyed?

A

cell transition points

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57
Q

Abrupt instability of cyclins is due to what?

A

activation of specific ubiquitin ligase complexes

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58
Q

What covalently attaches a multi-ubiquitin chain?

A

Ubiquitin (Ub) ligase (E3)

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59
Q

Ubiquitin (Ub) ligase (E3) covalently attaches a multi-ubiquitin chain with the help of what enzymes?

A

Ub-activating (E1) and Ub-conjugating (E2) enzymes

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60
Q

Once the cyclin is tagged, it is recognized and degraded by what?

A

proteasome

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61
Q

Cdks program their own inactivation by activating cyclin ubiquitin ligases that lead to their destruction. This is called?

A

feed-forward control

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62
Q

Metozoan cells enter ____ state if they do not receive a signals that they should divide

A

quiescence

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63
Q

When conditions change, most cells can get out of G0 and reenter cell cycle but others enter a permanent G0 ______.

A

senescence

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64
Q

Apoptosis is stimulated by extracellular factors such as signals like what?

A

TNF-alpha

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65
Q

TNF-alpha

A

tumor necrosis factor-alpha

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66
Q

Where does the cell become irreversibly committed to a round of cell division regardless of extracellular cues? (Yeast and multicellular eukaryotes)

A

START in yeast
restriction point in multicellular eukaryotes

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67
Q

Reentry is primarily via what?

A

ubiquitin-mediated destruction of CKIs

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68
Q

Purpose of reentry via ubiquitin-mediated destruction of CKIs?

A

To relieve the inhibition of G1 CDK-cyclin complexes

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69
Q

What are class of peptides and hormones that stimulate proliferation?

A

growth factors

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70
Q

Many of the growth factors are present in where?

A

serum

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71
Q

PDGF

A

platelet-derived growth factor

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72
Q

PDGF is released by what?

A

platelets upon blood clotting

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73
Q

PDGF contributes to what

A

rapid cell proliferation required for wound healing

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74
Q

Growth factors bind to receptors on target cells to initiate what?

A

intracellular signaling pathway

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75
Q

Intracellular signaling pathway leads to what?

A

cellulat proliferation

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76
Q

Steps of signaling pathway activation

A
  1. PDGF binds to PDGF receptors
  2. PDGF receptor dimerizes
  3. Autophosphorylation
  4. Adaptor proteins and the Ras GTPase are recruited
  5. Kinase signaling pathway is activated
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77
Q

What are early response genes?

A

those expressed very quickly after serum addition to cell cultures

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78
Q

What is one example of delayed early response genes?

A

cyclin D

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79
Q

Tumor suppressor that is phosphorylated for CDKs with cyclins to get through the restriction point

A

Rb (retinoblastoma)

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80
Q

When Rb is unphosphorylated, Rb is bound to and inhibiting what transcription factor?

A

E2F

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81
Q

Rb

A

retinoblastoma

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82
Q

When phosphorylated, what happens to Rb?

A

dissociates from E2F

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83
Q

Rb dissociates from E2F when phosphorylated by what?

A

cyclin D associated with either Cdk4 or Cdk6

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84
Q

E2F stimulates its own expression and expression of other genes such as what?

A

cyclin E

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85
Q

Cyclin E is a protein for what?

A

replication initiation

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86
Q

Steps of phosphorylation of Rb

A
  1. Rb binding inactivates E2F
  2. Cdk4, 6-cyclin D phosphorylates Rb, causing dissociation from E2F
  3. E2F upregulates expression of itself and cyclin E
  4. Cdk2-cyclin E phosphorylates Rb
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87
Q

Positive feedback loop of cdk2-cyclin E

A

When enough Cdk1-cyclin E accumulates, the cell traverse the restriction point

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88
Q

Loss of normal Rb function plays an important role in what?

A

tumor development role

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89
Q

ARSs

A

autonomously replicating sequences

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90
Q

What are ARSs in yeast?

A

DNA sequences

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91
Q

What can replicate independently of the context of a chromosome and gave insight on the origins of replication?

A

ARSs

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92
Q

In yeast, ARS is part of what?

A

an origin

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93
Q

Some organisms have small consensus sequenes in _______ region and _______ region?

A

origin; A/T-rich

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94
Q

Organisms with more than one chromosome have what?

A

multiple origins per chromosome

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95
Q

Several layers of regulatory issues must be dealt with what 3?

A

a. firing origins only during S phase
b. making certain replication is complete before proceeding into mitosis
c. firing each origin only once

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96
Q

Prior to DNA replication initiation, what must be assembled on the origin?

A

pre-replication complex (pre-RC)

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97
Q

ORC

A

original recognition complex

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98
Q

structure of ORC

A

6-protein complex

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99
Q

ORC serves as a platform for binding of _____ and ____

A

Cdc6; Cdt1

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100
Q

Cdc6 is a member of what family?

A

AAA+ ATPase family

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101
Q

MCM

A

minichromosome maintenance complex

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102
Q

Structure of MCM

A

6 proteins

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103
Q

When does Cdc6 and Cdt1 bind ORC?

A

during late mitosis to G1

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104
Q

Where is the pre-RC assembled?

A

in the end of M phase to early S phase

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105
Q

Cdc6 is only available during ____, so no replication other than s phase

106
Q

Cdt1 is negatively regulated by _____

107
Q

Pre-RC assembly is restricuted by what?

A

mitotic CDK-cyclin activity

108
Q

CDK phosphorylation of _____ inactivates pre-RC assembly

109
Q

CDK phosphorylation of ___ dring S phase helps get them removed from DNA

110
Q

Cell trasitions from pre-replicative to replicative states under the control of what 2 kinases?

A

CDK-cyclin and DDK

111
Q

DDK

A

Dbf4-dependent kinase

112
Q

Function of CDK-cyclin

A

couples replication to CDC progression by preventing pre-RC assembly and by promoting origin activation

113
Q

Function of DDK

A

initiate DNA synthesis

114
Q

How is the DNA synthesis initiated by DDK?

A

phosphorylation of MCM proteins changes their structure to allow initiation

115
Q

Binding of ____ is rate-limiting for initiation at individual origins

116
Q

Binding of Cdc45 is dependent upon ____ and ______.

A

CDK-cyclin; DDK activity

117
Q

Binding of Cdc45 plus ____ results in unwinding of DNA

118
Q

Unwinding of DNA by binding of Cdc45 and GINS causes what?

A

activation of MCM

119
Q

Activation of MCM converts from an ______ to _____, which will remain as part of the elongation complex

A

assembly factor in the pre-RC; helicase

120
Q

Unwinding of DNA exposes what?

121
Q

ssDNA exposed is bound by _____

122
Q

Exposing of ssDNA results in?

A

RPA loading of primase/DNA pol alpha complex and DNA synthesis is initiated

123
Q

_____ and ___ move with replication frok as part of a large replisome

A

MCM; Cdc45

124
Q

Large replisome include MCM, cdc45, and primarily what?

A

DNA pol delta

125
Q

As S phase proceeds, what happens to MCMs?

A

dislodged from the chromatin

126
Q

As the replication fork moves, it helps what?

A

to establish cohesin proteins to connect the newly synthesized sister chromatids until mitosis

127
Q

Growth in G1 and G2 is necessary to maintain what?

A

an ideal nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio following cytokinesis

128
Q

Error in DNA replication is detected and corrected in

129
Q

Major mitotic kinase that promotes the G2 to M transition

A

Cdk1-cyclin B

130
Q

CDK1 is kept inactive by

A

phosphorylation by Wee1 kinase

131
Q

To activate Cdk1, _____ removes inhibitory phosphates

A

Cdc25 phosphatase

132
Q

To activate Cdk1, cdc25 needs what?

A

Polo-like Kinase (PLK)

133
Q

To activate Cdk1, _____ phosphorylates an activating phsophate on Cdk1

134
Q

Cdk1 helps to inactivate ____

135
Q

What are the 2 differnt CDK-cyclin complexes in multicellular eukaryotes that govern G2-M and mitotic progression?

A

Cdk1-cyclinA and Cdk-1-cyclin B

136
Q

5 roles that PLK family is inolved in

A

a. entry into mitosis
b. spindle fomation
c. cytokinesis
d. centrosome maturation
e. chromosome segregation

137
Q

3 things that all Plk family members have

A

a. N-terminal kinase domain
b. C-terminal domain
c. Polo boxes

138
Q

What are C-terminal domain with one or more polo boxes?

A

intracellular targeting domains for PLKs

139
Q

C-terminal domain with one or more polo boxes direct them to where?

A

docking sites at centrosomes, kinetochores, mitotic spindle, etc

140
Q

What binds to proteins that have previously been phosphorylated by Cdk1 or other kinases?

A

polo boxes

141
Q

NEK

A

NIMA-like kinase

142
Q

Kinase activity of NIMA parallels that of ____ during mitosis

143
Q

What is NEK family involved in?

A

chromosome condensation and centrosome separation

144
Q

Aurora family of kinases are involved in what 5?

A

a. chromosome condensation and segregation
b. kinetochore function
c. centrosome maturation
d. spindle formation
e. cytokinesis

145
Q

3 classes of Aurora in humans

A

Aurora A, B, or C

146
Q

When does Aurora A levels peak and fall?

A

peak early in mitosis and fall at onset of anaphase

147
Q

Why does Aurora A levels fall at the onset of anaphase?

A

because of ubiquitin-mediated proteolysis

148
Q

Aurora A activity is regulated by

A

phosphorylation

149
Q

Example of involvement of the four maor mitotic protein kinase

A

Lamins contains Cdk1 phosphorylation sites, if they are mutated, the lamina doesn’t dissolve

150
Q

What 4 family members localize to to centrosomes and regulate centrosome duplication and separation?

A

Cdk1-cyclin, Plk, Aurora, and NIMA

151
Q

Aurora B moves from ___ to ___ during anaphase

A

kinetochores; central spindle

152
Q

Aurora B work with other proteins like

153
Q

CPPs

A

chromosom passenger proteins

154
Q

CPPs are necessary for what 3?

A

a. chromosome to condense properly
b. align at metaphase plate
c. make connections to both centrosomes

155
Q

How do CPPs function?

A

by dismantling kinetochore-spindle microtubule connectionsthat do not lead to tension across the kinetochroes

156
Q

What do CPP not result in?

A

bipolar attachment

157
Q

What happens in the prophase?

A

a. disruption of the nuclear envelope, dissolving of the nuclear lamina
b. cytoskeleton changes to allow formation of mitotic spindle
c. centrosomes finish separating and a bipolar spindle form between them
d. kinetochores attach to microtubules

158
Q

What helps position the centrosomes?

A

astral ray of microtubules

159
Q

Astral rays of microtubules help position the centrosomes, thus helping what?

A

determination of the orientation of the plane of cell division

160
Q

What is made of microtubules anchored at opposite centrosomes that do not contact kinetochores?

A

central spindle

161
Q

In what manner is the central spindle bundled?

A

in an antiparallel manner

162
Q

What is the remnants of the central spindle as the cell undergoes cytokinesis?

163
Q

How does the actin cytoskeleton change?

A

actin concentrates in the medial cell region in preparation for cytokinesis

164
Q

What forms the cleavage furrow or cytokinetic ring?

A

actin cytoskeleton

165
Q

A multiprotein complex that belongs to the SMC family proteins and is made of 2 coiled-coil proteins with ATPase domains plus other proteins.

166
Q

Function of condensin

A

mediates chromosome condensations and help pull different DN regions together to compact DNA

167
Q

When is condensin allowed to bind chromosomes?

A

during mitosis

168
Q

CDK phosphorylation of a condensin subunit allows ____ during mitosis

A

nucelar entry

169
Q

Phosphorylation of ____ and ____ is indicative of chromosome compaction

A

histon H1 and H3

170
Q

______ phosphorylates histone H3

A

Aurora kinase

171
Q

Sister chromatid cohesion is mediated by ____.

A

cohesin complex

172
Q

When is cohesin removed from chromosome arms?

A

in prophase

173
Q

Cohesin is removed from chromosome via __

A

Plk1 phosphorylation of a cohesin subunit

174
Q

What part of cohesin persists until anaphase?

A

around centromeres

175
Q

Protease that celaves the cohesin protein at centromeres to allow sister chromatid separation

176
Q

Separase is kept inactive by binding of ___

177
Q

What happens to securin at the metaphase-anaphase transition?

A

ubiquintated and proteasomed

178
Q

What target securin for destruction?

A

E3 ubiquitin ligase

179
Q

What complex is the E3 ubiquitin ligase?

A

APC (anaphase-promoting complex)

180
Q

APC

A

Anaphase-promoting complex

181
Q

APC helps triger what?

A

proteolysis of securin and cyclin

182
Q

When is APC active?

A

during mitosis and G1

183
Q

APC is regulated via ___ involving what?

A

phosphorylation; Cdk1 and Plk1

184
Q

Why do APC remain active during G1?

A

to keep Cdk1 activity low, permitting formation of the pre-RC

185
Q

Once the chromosomes are well-separated and Cdk1 activity has fallen, what ensues?

A

cytokinesis

186
Q

The process of return to interphase

A

mitotic exit

187
Q

Mitotic exit involves the activation of Cdk1 by what?

A

Ub-dependent proteolysis of cyclin B

188
Q

Mitotic exit requires the reversal of the phosphorylation events triggered by ____

189
Q

What reverses much of Cdk1’s phosphorylation?

A

Cdc14 family of phosphatases

190
Q

Other than the reversing Cdk1 phosphorylation events, what other mitotic kinases are reversed?

A

Plk, NEK, and Aurora

191
Q

Other mitotic kinases like Plk, NEK, Aurora are reversed by protein phosphatases such as ___ and ___

A

2A (PP2A); 1 (PP1)

192
Q

What cleaves cohesin

193
Q

Separase triggers the release of _____ from its anchoring compartment in early anaphase

A

Cdc14 phosphatase

194
Q

What anchoring compartment does separase trigger the release of Cdc14 phosphatase?

A

the nucleolus

195
Q

Cdc14 is maintained in its active form by a signaling cascade called ___

A

MEN (mitotic exit network)

196
Q

Where is MEN discovered?

A

S. cerevisiae

197
Q

MEN

A

Mitotic exit network

198
Q

SIN

A

septation initiation network

199
Q

What is the analogous signaling cascade in S. pombe?

200
Q

MEN and SIN are regulated by?

201
Q

MEN and SIN signaling promote activation of what?

A

Cdc14 family of phosphatases and cytokinsesis

202
Q

Active Cdc14 causes APC to?

A

mediate cyclin proteolysis and Cdk1 inactivation

203
Q

Central cell cycle control system receives what?

A

feedback throughout the cycle

204
Q

What monitors the proper completion of the separate cell cycle events?

A

checkpoints

205
Q

Checkpoints control ___.

A

transitions

206
Q

What prevents the control system from allowing the next event to initiate?

A

Inhibitory signals

207
Q

What are the signals that activate a checkpoint to prevent the cell from entering mitosis until the problem is corrected?

A

Incompletely replicated or damaged DNA and improper spindle fiber attachmetn

208
Q

_____ are signaling pathways that inhibit cell cycle progression.

A

checkpoints

209
Q

Checkpoints are activated when a problem arises like ___?

A

DNA damage or incompletely replicated DNA

210
Q

What are 3 distinct components of CDC checkpoints?

A

a. sensor
b. signaling module
c. CDC target

211
Q

Sensor function

A

detects an event defect

212
Q

Signaling module function

A

transmit signal when an error is detected

213
Q

CDC target function

A

controlled to halt CDC progression

214
Q

Which regions are recognized by the DNA damage checkpoint?

A

regions of ssDNA (single-stranded DNA) or DSBs (double-stranded breaks)

215
Q

What response does ssDNA elicit?

A

ATR-dependent response

216
Q

What response do DSBs elicit?

A

ATM-dependent response

217
Q

ATM kinase binds to?

A

DNA termini of a DSB

218
Q

ATR kinase binds to?

A

UV-induced DNA structures

219
Q

Structure of ATM

220
Q

DNA damage triggers what?

A

autophosphorylation that dissociates the dimer

221
Q

DNA damage releases what?

A

active monomers that phosphorylate many targets

222
Q

What is loaded onto damaged DNA?

A

9-1-1 complex

223
Q

9-1-1 complex loaded onto damaged DNA, forming what structure?

A

ring-like structure

224
Q

Major transducers/mediators in the DNA damage/DNA replication checkpoints are?

A

Chk1 and Chk2 kinases

225
Q

Chk1 and Chk2 function

A

directly phosphorylate components of the CDC engine to block them

226
Q

3 Distinct checkpoints that delay CDC progression in response to DNA damage or replication delays

A

a. G1/S
b. S-phase
c. G2/M

227
Q

G1/S delay function (7)

A

a. activates and load 9-1-1 complexes
b. activate ATM/ATR kinases
c. phosphorylate/active Chk1 and Chk2
d. phosphorylate Cdc25A
e. Cdk2-cyclin E remains inactive
f. phosphorylate p53
g. p53 turnover is prevented, it transcribes more target genes, including CKI

228
Q

A transcription factor and a tumor suppressor?

229
Q

CKI inhibits

A

G1 CDK-cyclin

230
Q

S-phase checkpoint function (5)

A

a. activate and load 9-1-1 complexes
b. activate ATM/TR kinases
c. phosphorylate/active Chk1 and Chk2
d. phosphoryalte Cdc25A
e. Cdk2-cyclin E remains inactive

231
Q

G2/M checkpoint function (2)

A

a. activation of ATM/ATR - Chk1/Chk2 pathways
b. inhibition of CDK1-cyclin B

232
Q

4 Outcomes of the DNA replication checkpoint

A

a. prevention of further origin firing
b. slowing of replication elongation
c. maintenance of stalled replication forks
d. inhibition of mitotic entry

233
Q

4 Types of kinetochore attachement to MT-spindle fibers

A

a. monotelic
b. amphitelic
c. syntelic
d. merotelic

234
Q

Amphitelic arrangement

A

two kinetochores, each attached to different poles

235
Q

Which arrangement is correct attachment?

A

amphitelic (bipolar) arrangement

236
Q

Monotelic arrangement

A

one kinetochore to one pole

237
Q

Syntelic arrangement

A

both kinetochores to one pole

238
Q

Merotelic arrangement

A

one kinetochore to both poles

239
Q

Which kinase is important for destabilizing incorrect attachments?

240
Q

If some chromosomes are not attached to spindle at all or are attached incorrectly, which signal is generated?

A

wait-anaphase signal

241
Q

What generates wait-anaphase signal?

A

SAC (spindle assembly checkpoint)

242
Q

SAC

A

spindle assembly checkpoint

243
Q

SACs are activated by (2)

A

a. kinetochores which are unattached or improperly attached, to the spindle MTs
b. lack of physical tension acoss each kinetochore

244
Q

SAC signaling involves

A

phosphorylation cascade

245
Q

SAC components are ___ and ____.

A

protein kinases; phosphorylated

246
Q

What is one target of SAC activity?

247
Q

Cdc20 is the activator of?

248
Q

Binding of SAC comonenets to ____ inhibits ____ activity.

A

Cdc20; APC

249
Q

Binding of a SAC component of Cdc0 inhibits APC activity, stabilizes ____, keeping sister chromatin cohesin intact by inhibiting ____.

A

securin; separase

250
Q

Mutations in SAC function result in

A

a. cell death
b. aneuploidy due to nondisjunction

251
Q

Mutations in genes that control ____ can result in cancer

A

the fidelity of cellular proliferation

252
Q

Mutations in 2 types of genes that lead to unrestrained cell proliferation

A

a. proto-oncogenes
b. tumor suppressor genes

253
Q

Proto-oncogenes result in?

A

signaling proliferation inappropriately or constitutively

254
Q

Proto-oncogenes can become ___

255
Q

Tumor suppressor genes function (2)

A

a. restrain cellular proliferation
b. ensure genome stability

256
Q

If both copies of tumor suppresor genes have loss-of-function mutations, it can lead to

A

loss of growth control and be involved in tumor formation

257
Q

Key tumor suppressor gene

258
Q

function of p53

A

to restrain cell cycle progression

259
Q

p53 is also a ____ gene

A

checkpoint gene

260
Q

Most human tumors contain?

A

inactivating mutations in p53

261
Q

In absence of p53 function, what happens to cells?

A

escape cell cycle regulatory control and proliferate in the presence of DNA damage