Chapter 14: Gene Mutation, Repair, and Transposition Flashcards

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1
Q

True or False. A mutation can be defined as an alteration in DNA sequence. Any base-pair change in any part of a DNA molecule can be considered a mutation.

A

True

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2
Q

True or False. Mutations that occur in somatic cells are heritable and are the basis for the transmission of genetic diversity and evolution, as well as genetic diseases.

A

False. Germ cells

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3
Q

The type of mutation that involves a change of one base pair to another in a DNA molecule.

A

Point mutation or Base substitution

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4
Q

A change of one nucleotide of a triplet within a protein-coding portion of a gene may result in the creation of a new triplet that codes for a different amino acid in the protein product. This type of mutation is called?

A

Missense mutation

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5
Q

A change of one nucleotide of a triplet within a protein-coding portion of a gene may result in the creation of a stop codon. This mutation is called?

A

Nonsense mutation

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6
Q

If the point mutation alters a codon but does not result in a change in the amino acid at that position in the protein (due to degeneracy of the genetic code), this mutation is called?

A

Silent mutation

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7
Q

In a base substitution mutation, a pyrimidine replaces a pyrimidine or a purine replaces a purine. This mutation is referred to as?

A

Transition mutation

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8
Q

In a base substitution mutation, a purine replaces a pyrimidine or vice versa. This mutation is referred to as?

A

Transversion mutation

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9
Q

A mutation, either an insertion or deletion of nucleotides, that alters the triplet reading frame is called?

A

Frameshift mutation

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10
Q

True or False. A frameshift mutation will occur when any number of bases are added or deleted, except multiples of three, which would reestablish the initial frame of reading.

A

True

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11
Q

A type of mutation that reduces or eliminates the function of the gene product.

A

Loss-of-function mutation

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12
Q

Mutations that result in complete loss of function are known as?

A

Null mutations

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13
Q

True or False. Most loss-of-function mutations are dominant.

A

False. Recessive

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14
Q

Results in a wild-type phenotype when present in a diploid organism and the other allele is wild type.

A

Recessive mutation

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15
Q

Results in a mutant phenotype in a diploid organism, even when the wild-type allele is also present.

A

Dominant mutation

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16
Q

Occurs when the single wild-type copy of the gene does not produce enough gene product to bring about a wild-type phenotype.

A

Haploinssufficiency

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17
Q

This disease in humans is an example of a disorder caused by haploinsufficiency—in this case as a result of a loss-of-function mutation in one copy of the FBN1 gene.

A

Marfan syndrome

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18
Q

This mutation results in a gene product with enhanced, negative, or new functions.

A

Dominant gain-of-function mutation

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19
Q

Causes of dominant gain-of-function mutation.

A
  1. Change in the amino acid sequence of the protein that confers a new activity
  2. A mutation in a regulatory region of the gene, leading to expression of the gene at higher levels or at abnormal times or places.
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20
Q

This type of mutation may directly interfere with the function of the product of the wild-type allele. Often this occurs when the mutant nonfunctional gene product binds to the wild-type gene product, inactivating it.

A

Dominant negative mutation

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21
Q

These mutations are recognized by their ability to alter a normal or wild-type visible phenotype.

A

Visible mutation

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22
Q

This mutation results in a loss of ability to synthesize an amino acid or vitamin.

A

Nutritional mutation

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23
Q

Although these kinds of mutations do not always affect morphological characters, they affect the function of proteins that can impinge on the well-being and survival of the affected individual.

A

Biochemical mutation

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24
Q

This category of mutations consists of mutations that affect the behavior patterns of an organism.

A

Behavioral mutations

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25
Q

This kind of mutation disrupts a regulatory gene or a gene control region which results in the disruption of the normal regulatory processes and inappropriate activation or inactivation of a gene.

A

Regulator mutations

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26
Q

This kind of mutation adversely affects a gene product that is essential to the survival of the organism.

A

Lethal mutation

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27
Q

These mutations are present in the genome of an organism but can be detected only under certain conditions.

A

Conditional mutations

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28
Q

This is a type of conditional mutation whereby at a “permissive” temperature, the mutant gene product
functions normally, but it loses its function at a different, “restrictive” temperature.

A

Temperature-senstive mutations

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29
Q

A mutation that can occur either in a protein-coding region or in any part of the genome, and its effect on the genetic fitness of the organism is negligible.

A

Neutral mutation

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30
Q

Mutations that are occurring in any cell in the body except germ cells.

A

Somatic mutations

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31
Q

Are mutations within genes located on the autosomes.

A

Autosomal mutations

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32
Q

Are mutations within genes located on the X chromosome.

A

X-linked mutation

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33
Q

Are mutations within genes located on the Y chromosome.

A

Y-linked mutation

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34
Q

True or False. Somatic mutations will have a greater impact if they are dominant or, in males, if they are X-linked since such mutations are most likely to be immediately expressed.

A

True

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35
Q

Are mutations in the nucleotide sequence of genes that appear to occur naturally.

A

Spontaneous mutation

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36
Q

Are mutations that result from the influence of extraneous factors.

A

Induced mutations

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37
Q

Defined as the likelihood that a gene will undergo a mutation in a single generation or in forming a single gamete.

A

Mutation rate

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38
Q

Some DNA sequences appear to be highly susceptible to mutation and are known as?

A

Mutation Hotspot

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39
Q

Are alternate chemical forms that differ by only a single proton shift in the molecule.

A

Tautomers

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40
Q

The biologically important tautomers:

A
  1. keto-enol forms of thymine

2. amino-imino forms of cytosine and adenine

41
Q

This shift changes the bonding structure of the molecule, allowing hydrogen bonding with noncomplementary bases.

A

Tautomeric shift

42
Q

The loss of one of the nitrogenous bases in an intact double-helical DNA molecule. Most frequently, the base is a purine—either guanine or adenine.

A

Depurination

43
Q

This results if the glycosidic bond linking the 1′-C of the deoxyribose and the number 9 position of the purine ring is broken.

A

Apurinic site

44
Q

An amino group in cytosine or adenine is converted to a keto group. The major effect of these changes is an alteration in the base-pairing specificities of these two bases during DNA replication.

A

Deamination

45
Q

DNA may also suffer damage from the by-products of normal cellular processes. These damages are often caused by reactive oxygen species (electrophilic oxidants) that are generated during normal aerobic respiration.

A

Oxidative damage

46
Q

Are mutations that increase the rate of mutation above the spontaneous background.

A

Induced mutations

47
Q

Agents that have the potential to damage DNA and cause induced mutations.

A

Mutagens

48
Q

Compounds that can substitute for purines or pyrimidines during nucleic acid biosynthesis.

A

Base Analogs

49
Q

A derivative of uracil, behaves as a thymine analog but is halogenated at the number 5 position of the pyrimidine ring.

A

5-bromouracil (5-BU)

50
Q

If 5-BU is chemically linked to deoxyribose, what nucleoside analog is formed?

A

bromodeoxyuridine (BrdU)

51
Q

This molecule can act as na analog of adenine.

A

2-amino purine (2-AP)

52
Q

These substances donate an alkyl group, such as CH3 or CH3CH2 to amino or keto groups in nucleotide.

A

Alkylating agents

53
Q

An alkylating agent that alkylates the keto groups in the number 6 position of guanine and in the number 4 position of thymine.

A

Ethylmethane sulfonate (EMS)

54
Q

Are chemicals that have dimensions and shapes that allow them to wedge between the base pairs of DNA.

A

Intercalating agents

55
Q

A substance that covalently binds to DNA, altering its conformation and interfering with replication and repair.

A

Adduct-forming agents

56
Q

Are cancer-causing chemicals that are created during the cooking of meats such as beef, chicken, and fish. They are formed at high temperatures from amino acids and creatine.

A

Heterocyclic amines (HCAs)

57
Q

Chemical species resulting from increased amount of UV introduced to the DNA and are consist of two thymine residues.

A

Pyrimidine dimers

58
Q

Radiation that causes ionization of the molecules.

A

Ionizing radiation

59
Q

These are chemical species containing one or more unpaired electrons.

A

Free-radicals

60
Q

These are genetic disease caused by variations in several genes.

A

Polygenic

61
Q

These are genetic disease caused by variations in single-gene mutations.

A

Monogenic

62
Q

During this repair mechanism, the mismatches are detected, the incorrect nucleotide is removed, and the correct nucleotide is inserted in its place.

A

Mismatch repair

63
Q

The process of strand discrimination is based on?

A

DNA methylation

64
Q

This enzyme methylates adenine upon its addition to the growing DNA sequence. Prior to methylation, however, it also detects base mismatches.

A

Adenine methylase

65
Q

This enzyme nicks the backbone of the unmethylated DNA (either in the 5’ or 3’ end of the mismatch) due to mismatching as detected by the adenine methylase.

A

Endonuclease

66
Q

This enzyme unwinds and degrades the nicked DNA strand until the region of the mismatch is reached.

A

exonuclease

67
Q

The human equivalent of MutH, MutL, and MutS genes. Associated with hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer.

A

hMSH2, hMLH1 genes

68
Q

This repair mechanism responds after damaged DNA has escaped repair and has failed to be completely replicated.

A

postreplication repair

69
Q

Because the recombinational event is involved in postreplicational repair, it is considered to be?

A

homologous recombination repair.

70
Q

This protein directs the recombinational exchange with the corresponding region on the undamaged parental strand of the same polarity (the “donor” strand).

A

RecA

71
Q

In the presence of a large number of un-repaired DNA mismatches and gaps, bacteria can induce the expression of about 20 genes (including lexA, recA, and uvr) whose products allow DNA replication to occur even in the presence of these lesions. The repair mechanism is referred to as?

A

SOS repair system

72
Q

True or False. During SOS repair, DNA synthesis becomes error-prone, inserting random and possibly incorrect nucleotides in places that would normally stall DNA replication. As a
result, SOS repair itself becomes mutagenic—although it may allow the cell to survive DNA damage that would
otherwise kill it.

A

True

73
Q

UV-induced damage to E. coli DNA can be partially reversed if, following irradiation, the cells are exposed briefly to light in the blue range of the visible spectrum. This repair mechanism is called?

A

Photoreactivation repair

74
Q

Photoreactivation repair is directed by which enzyme?

A

photoreactivation enzyme (PRE)

75
Q

This type of excision repair mechanism corrects DNA that contains a damaged DNA base.

A

Base-excision repair

76
Q

The first step in the base excision repair pathway in E. coli involves the recognition of the altered base by an enzyme called?

A

DNA glycosylase

77
Q

In a base excision repair, the DNA glycosylase first cut the glycosidic bond between the base and the sugar, creating a?

A

apyrimidinic (if the base is pyrimidine) apurinic (if the base is purine) site

78
Q

In a base excision repair, the apurinic/apyrimidic site is recognized by?

A

AP endonuclease (makes a cut in the
phosphodiester backbone at the apyrimidinic or apurinic
site)

79
Q

This type of excision repair mechanism repair
“bulky” lesions in DNA that alter or distort the double helix. These lesions include the UV-induced pyrimidine dimers and DNA adductss.

A

Nucleotide excision repair (NER)

80
Q

In the Nucleotide excision repair pathway products of this gene group are involved in recognizing and clipping out lesions in the DNA.

A

uvr (ultraviolet repair) genes - uvrA, uvrB, uvrC

81
Q

A rare recessive genetic disorder that predisposes
individuals to severe skin abnormalities, skin cancers, and a wide range of other symptoms including developmental
and neurological defects.

A

xeroderma pigmentosum (XP) (results from defects in NER pathways)

82
Q

XP patients were deficient in DNA synthesis other than that

occurring during chromosome replication. The later phenomenon is called?

A

unscheduled DNA synthesis

83
Q

It is a single cell with two nuclei from different organisms but a common cytoplasm.

A

Heterokaryon

84
Q

Are activated and are responsible for reattaching two broken DNA strands.

A

double-strand break repair (DSB repair) either (homologous recombination repair or nonhomologous end joining)

85
Q

A double-strand break repair mechanism that does not recruit a homologous region of DNA during repair.

A

nonhomologous end joining

86
Q

A double-strand break repair mechanism that involves the interaction of two sister chromatids is necessary because, when both strands of one helix are broken, there is no undamaged parental DNA strand available to use as a source of the complementary template DNA sequence during the repair.

A

homologous recombination repair

87
Q

True or False. DSB repair usually occurs during the late S or early G2 phase of the cell cycle, after DNA replication, a time when sister chromatids are available to be used as repair templates.

A

True

88
Q

This method uses a number of different strains of the
bacterium Salmonella typhimurium that have been selected for their ability to reveal the presence of specific types of mutations.

A

Ames test

89
Q

Are cancer-causing agent

A

carcinogens

90
Q

Can move or transpose within and between chromosomes, inserting themselves into various locations within the genome.

A

Transposable elements or transposon or jumping genes

91
Q

This type of transposon can move from one location to

another and, if they insert into a gene or gene-regulatory region, may cause mutations.

A

Insertion sequences (IS elements)

92
Q

This enzyme, encoded by a gene present in insertion sequence elements, is responsible for making staggered cuts in chromosomal DNA, into which the IS element can insert.

A

Transposase

93
Q

These are short segments of DNA that have the same nucleotide sequence as each other but are oriented in the opposite direction. They are situated at the ends of IS elements.

A

inverted terminal repeats (ITRs)

94
Q

Are larger than IS elements and contain protein-coding genes that are unrelated to their transposition.

A

Bacterial transposons

95
Q

These elements are transcribed into “copious” amounts of RNA, hence the name.

A

copia

96
Q

A condition characterized by sterility, elevated mutation

rates, and chromosome rearrangements in the offspring of crosses between certain strains of fruit flies..

A

hybrid dygenesis

97
Q

Hybrid dysgenesis is caused by high rates of ______ transposition in the germ line, in which transposons insert themselves into or near genes, thereby causing mutations.

A

P element

98
Q

One of the most useful applications of P elements is as vectors to introduce transgenes into Drosophila—a technique known as ?

A

germ-line transformation