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System pathology 2 > Chapter 14 > Flashcards

Chapter 14 Flashcards

1
Q

What percent of the population is affected by Aphthous Ulcers

A

40%

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2
Q

What age group are Aphthous Ulcers most common to occur

A

0-20 (women = higher risk)

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3
Q

What diseases are Aphthous Ulcers associated with

A

Celia disease
Inflammatory bowl disease (IBD)
Behcet disease

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4
Q

A shallow ulceration of the oral cavity that is covered by a thin exudate and is surrounded by Erythema

A

Aphthous Ulcers

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5
Q

What is another name for Aphthous Ulcers

A

Canker sores

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6
Q

What causes Oral herpes

A

HHV1 (HSV-1)

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7
Q

what causes Genital Herpes

A

HHV2 (HSV-2)

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8
Q

Primary herpes infections typically occur in what age group

A

2-4 years old

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9
Q

10-20% of Primary herpes infections manifest as what?

A

Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis

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10
Q

What can tigger HHV1 outbreaks

A 
UV light
Trauma
Allergies
URTI
Pregnancy
menstruation
immunosuppresion
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11
Q

What are common locations for HHV 1 infections

A 
Lips
Nasal orifices
Buccal mucosa
Gingiva
Hard palate
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12
Q

How long does it take for a HHV1 lesion to resolve

A

7-10 days

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13
Q

How can Herpes be treated

A

Antiviral medication

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14
Q

What is the most common fungal infection of the oral cavity

A

Oral Candidiasis (thrush)

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15
Q

What causes Oral Candidiasis (Thrush)

A

Candida ablicans

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16
Q

What factors determine the severity of Oral Candidiasis

A

Strain
Immunosuppression
Oral micobiota

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17
Q

What are the three forms of Oral Candidiasis

A

Pseudomembranous
Erythematous
Hyperplastic

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18
Q

What form of Oral Candidiasis is most common and is known as Thrush

A

Pseudomembranous

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19
Q

What is Characteristic of Oral Candidiasis

A

Grey-white plaques that can be scraped off (redness underneath plaques)

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20
Q

What can happen to someone that has AIDS and Oral Candidiasis

A

It can spread down esophagus

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21
Q

What is formed due to chronic irritation as a result of tissue hyperplasia

A

Fibromas

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22
Q

Where are fibromas most likely to form

A

Along the bite line of the cheek

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23
Q

What is a richly vascular lesion on the gingiva, most commonly found in pregnant women

A

Pyogenic Granuloma

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24
Q

How can one remove a Pyogenic Granuloma

A

Wait till it recesses

Surgical removal

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25
Q

What is a white patch in the oral cavity that cannot be scraped off.

A

Leukoplakia

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26
Q

What percent of the world has Leukoplakia

A

3%

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27
Q

what percentage of leukoplakias are malignant

A

25%

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28
Q

What is a red velvety patch in the oral cavity called

A

Erythroplakia

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29
Q

Which is most likely to cause cancer Leukoplakia or Erythroplakia

A

Erythroplakia

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30
Q

What are some predisposing factors for developing Leukoplakia or erythroplakia

A

Smoking
age 40-70
Males 2:1

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31
Q

95% of cancers of the oral cavity are what type of cancer

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

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32
Q

What is the long term survival rate of someone that survived Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the oral cavity

A

50%

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33
Q

What is unique about oral cancer

A

There are multiple tiny primary tumors that develop around the same time

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34
Q

What is a common cause of Squamous cell Carcinoma

A

years of chronic exposure to carcinogens (tabacco, alcohol)

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35
Q

Do people that have Oral HPV-6 tumors have a better prognosis than those who have squamous cell carcinoma

A

No, HPV cancers have a better prognosis

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36
Q

What are the two most common locations for Oral Squamous cell Carcinoma

A

Ventral surface of the tongue

Floor of mouth

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37
Q

What is Xerostoma

A

Dry Mouth

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38
Q

What autoimmune disease has Xerostoma as a major feature

A

Sjogrens

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39
Q

What are some complications of Xerostoma

A

Cavities
Tongue Fissure
Difficulty swallowing

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40
Q

What inflammatory condition is caused by trauma, viral or bacterial to the salivary glands

A

Sialadenitis

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41
Q

What is the most common inflammatory lesion of the salivary glands

A

Mucocele

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42
Q

What causes Mucocele

A

Damage or blockage of the salivary glands

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43
Q

What percent of Salivary gland tumors arise from the parotid gland; what percent of them are malignant

A

65%-80% of all salivary tumors

15%-30% are malignant

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44
Q

What percent of Salivary gland Tumors arise from the submandibular gland; what percent of them are malignant

A

10% of all salivary tumors

40% are malignant

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45
Q

What percent of Salivary gland tumors arise form the sublingual gland; what percent of them are malignant

A

10% of all salivary tumors

70-80% are malignant

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46
Q

Describe a parotid gland neoplasm

A

Encapsulated (mobile growth) growth that is localized to the parotid gland

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47
Q

What percent of parotid gland tumors are pleomorphic adenomas; what percent of them will turn into cancer

A

60% of parotid tumors

2%-10% will become cancerous

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48
Q

What is the name of a pleomorphic adenoma that has become malignant

A

Carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma

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49
Q

What is the 5-yr survival rate for a carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma

A

50%

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50
Q

What are the 4 categories of esophageal lesions

A

Mechanical
Functional
Ectopia
Esophageal varices

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51
Q

What falls under the category of Mechanical esophageal lesions

A

Atresia
Fistula
Stenosis

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52
Q

What falls under the category of Functional esophageal lesions

A

Aperistalis

Achalasia

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53
Q

What is the triad for Achalasia

A

Incomplete Lower Esophageal sphincters relaxation
Increased Lower Esophageal tone
Esophageal aperistalsis

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54
Q

What are complications of Achalasia

A

Regurgitation
Chest pain (heart burn)
wt loss

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55
Q

What causes Primary Achalasia

A

Idiopathic

possible loss of innervaiton

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56
Q

What causes secondary Achalasia

A

Chages disease
Polio
Inflammation pf Auerbachs’ plexus

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57
Q

What causes Esophageal varrices

A

Portal vein congestion/hypertension

secondary to liver cirrhosis

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58
Q

Where are esophageal varrices likely to occur

A

Lower 1/3 of esophagus

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59
Q

What is Esophagitis

A

Esophageal inflammation due to injury to esophageal mucosa

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60
Q

What is the most common cause of Esophagitis

A

Reflux esophagitis

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61
Q

What causes Reflux Esophagitis

A

unknown, most likely dysfunction of LES
Obesity
smoking
pregnancy

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62
Q

What is the most common outpatient GI complaint

A

GERD/heart burn

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63
Q

What causes Chemical/acute esophagitis

A 
Tobacco
Alcohol
hot liquids
chemotherapy
irradiation
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64
Q

What causes infectious esophagitis

A

Fungal infxn
HHV
Cytomegalo virus

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65
Q

What is the most common laceration of the esophagus

A

Mallory-weiss tear

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66
Q

What causes Mallory-weiss tear

A

Forceful vomiting (alcoholics, bulimics)
inadequate LES relaxation
Gastopharyngeal junctions

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67
Q

What type of esophageal laceration makes up 50% of upper GI bleeds

A

Mallory-Weiss tear

68
Q

What is the most common hiatal hernia

A

Axial (asymptomatic)

“bell shaped”

69
Q

What type of hiatal hernia is prone to strangulation/obstructions and is likely symptomatic

A

Non-axial

70
Q

How is at a higher risk of developing a hiatal hernia

A

Elderly

71
Q

What esophageal condition shows metaplasia of cells in the distal esophagus

A

Berrets Esophagus

72
Q

What is a risk for patients experiencing Berrets Esophagus

A

Development of esophageal cancer

73
Q

What groups are at a higher risk of developing Berrets esophagus

A

Males
Caucasians
Obese
40-60 y/o

74
Q

What type of cancer is likely to develop from berrets esophagus

A

Esophageal adenocarcinoma

75
Q

What is a benign smooth muscle tumor of the esophagus

A

Leiomyoma

76
Q

What esophageal tumor makes up 50% of all esophageal tumors

A

Adenocarcinoma

77
Q

What makes someone have a higher risk of developing adenocarcinoma

A

GERD
Berrets Esophagus
Tobacco
Obesity

78
Q

What is the most common esophageal tumor world wide

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

79
Q

Where are the majority of Esophageal adenocarcinomas located

A

Distal 1/3 of the esophagus

80
Q

What is the prognosis for Esophageal adenocarcinomas; what is the reason

A

25% 5yr survival

Due to late symptom development and lymphatic invasion

81
Q

What part of the esophagus is a Squamous cell carcinoma likely to develop?

A

Middle 1/3

82
Q

What esophageal cancer is prominent in underdeveloped or poverty stricken areas

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

83
Q

What is the most common stomach infection

A

Heliobacter pylori

84
Q

What is the most common cause of stomach mobidity

A

Gastritis

85
Q

What is inflammation of the gastric mucosa called

A

Gastritis

86
Q

Which form of gastritis has transient inflammation with possible erosion/ulceration

A

Acute Gastritis

87
Q

What is Acute gastritis associated with

A

NSAIDS/Salicylism
Trauma
Alcoholics

88
Q

how do you treat Acute gastritis

A

meds that decrease gastric activity

89
Q

What gastric problem is associated with shallow Ulcerations of the stomach/duodenum and is caused by highly traumatic injury

A

Acute peptic ulcer

90
Q

How can acute peptic ulcers be a problem?

A

They are likely to perforate and place the patient in the ICU if bad enough

91
Q

Which form of gastritis is more severe

A

Acute

92
Q

What ulcers are associated with Chrionic gastritis

A

Peptic ulcers caused by heliobacter pylori

93
Q

What are some complications of Chronic gastritis

A

Peptic ulcer disease

Gastric Adenocarcinoma

94
Q

What type of gastritis is common in the elderly

A

Autoimmune gastritis

95
Q

What is a complication of Autoimmune gastritis

A

Pernicious anemia

96
Q

Where do Peptic ulcers develop

A

Gastric Antrum

Proximal Duodenum

97
Q

70-90% of Peptic ulcers are caused by H. pylori. What percent of H.pylori infections develop into Peptic Ulcer Disease

A

5-10%

98
Q

how is the appearance of peptic ulcer diseases described

A

Solitary “punched out” lesions

99
Q

What is the most common type of Gastric Polyp

A

Hyperplastic growth/inflammation

100
Q

Which gastric polyp is most concerning

A

Gastric Adenoma

101
Q

What percent of Gastric Adenomas become adenocarcinomas

A

30%

102
Q

What are the majority of stomach cancers

A

Gastric Adenomas

103
Q

What increases the risk of a gastric adenomas

A

Inflammation
H.pylori
EBV

104
Q

What part of the GI track are most likely to have an obstruction

A

Small intestine

105
Q

What are the most common type of GI obstructions

A

Herniation
Adhesion
Intussusception
Volvulus

106
Q

Out pouching of the small intesting, most common in males

A

Meckel Diverticulum

107
Q

Congenital disease where the rectum and sigmoid colon lack nervous innervation which causes obstructions/ dilation of proximal bowels

A

Hirschsprung Disease

108
Q

Condition that is common in elderly and obease that is caused by a lack of blood or a decrease of BP to the bowels

A

Ischemic Bowel Disease (Ischemic Colitis)

109
Q

What can cause Ischemic Bowel Disease

A

Thrombis
Arterial embolism
Non-occlusive ischemia

110
Q

Which form of ischemic Bowel disease has episodic bloody diarrhea and mimics IBD

A

Chronic

111
Q

Which form is Ischemic Bowel disease has sudden/severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting and frank blood in stool

A

Acute

112
Q

Which form of Ischemic Bowel disease can cause hypovolemic shock

A

Acute

113
Q

What are small vascular lesions of the submucosal and mucosal vessels

A

Angiodysplasia

114
Q

What is the most common location for angiodysplasia

A

Cecum or ascending colon

115
Q

What is the most likely cause of Angiodysplasia

A

Constipation

116
Q

What is the most common vascular disorder of the GI tract

A

Hemorrhoids

117
Q

What causes hemorrhoids

A 
Increase interabdominal pressure
Liver Cirrhosis (portal htn)
118
Q

What are the two type of hemorrhoids and their location

A

Internal: above anorectal line
External: below anorecetal line

119
Q

What are the most common malabsorption diseases in the US

A

Pancreatic insufficiency
Celiacl disease
Crohn disease

120
Q

What is it called when there are excessive fats in feces

A

Steatorrhea

121
Q

What is it called when there is bloody diarrhea

A

Dysentery

122
Q

What are some features of malabsorption

A 
WT loss + muscle wasting
Abdominal distension
flatulence
anorexia
vit + mineral deficiency
123
Q

Non-infectious malabsorption due to an immune-mediated reaction to gliadin

A

Celiac disease

124
Q

Which immune-mediated malabsorptive condition will have atrophy of the villous

A

Celiac disease

125
Q

Name for celiac disease manifesting on the skin

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis

126
Q

Which malabsorptive condition is most likely seen in children between the ages of 2-3 that have recently visited a tropical area

A

Environmental Enteropthy

127
Q

Which malabsorptive condition has cycles of mucosal injury, malnutrition and inflammation

A

Environmental enteropathy

128
Q

Which malabsorptive disease has a decrease of lactase at the S.I brush boarder, causing cramps, gas and diarrhea

A

Lactase Deficiency

129
Q

What GI disease kills 12,000 children a year and

A

Infectious enterocolitis

130
Q

What does the cholera toxin do

A

Opens CFTR which causes chloride ion secretions

131
Q

What percent of cholera cases result in death

A

50-70%

132
Q

What is the most common cause of Traveles Diarrhea

A

Enterotoxigenic E. Coli

133
Q

What is the most common bacterial enteric pathogen in the US

A

Campylobacter jejuni

134
Q

Which enteric pathogen is associated with Snakes, Lizzards and Slamanders

A

Salmonella

135
Q

What is the condition associated with a C. Diff infection

A

Pseudomembranous Colitis

136
Q

Who is at a higher risk of developing a C.Diff infection

A

Elderly

immunosuppressed

137
Q

GI disease that has pseudomembranes inside of the colon

A

Pseudomembranous colitis

138
Q

What causes over half of reported gastroenteritis infections

A

Rotavirus (children)

Norovirus (adults)

139
Q

What is the most common parasitic infection, what causes it

A

Giardiasis

Giardia lamblia

140
Q

Condition in which there are blind pouches in the colon wall, mainly in the sigmoid colon

A

Sigmoid diverticulitis

141
Q

What are some risks of sigmoid diverticulitis

A

Perforation –> hemorrhage

142
Q

how can one develop sigmoid diverticulitis

A

Decrease fiber in diet which will cause constipation and straining

143
Q

Sigmoid diverticulits affects how many people over the age of 60

A

50%

144
Q

Who is most likely to develop irritable bowel syndrome

A

20-40 year old females

145
Q

What are symptoms of IBS

A

Bloating, diarrhea, constipation

146
Q

Who is at risk of developing an inflammatory bowel disease

A

Women

White

147
Q

Which inflammatory bowel disease is a T cell autoimmune reaction that causes transmural inflammation (Cobblestone)

A

Crohns Disease

148
Q

What are the symptoms of Crohns disease

A

Melena
Mild Diarrhea
Fever
Abdominal pain

149
Q

Where are the most common locations for Crohns disease inflammation

A

Terminal ileum
Ileocecal valve
Cecum

150
Q

Which inflammatory bowel disease affects the superficial mucosa and always begins in the rectum and preceeds proximally

A

Ulcerative Colitis

151
Q

Which disease is smoke inhibitory for:
Crohns disease
Ulcerative colitis

A

Ulcerative Colitis

152
Q

Which inflammatory bowel disease has relapsing episodes of Abdominal cramping along with pseudopolyps

A

Ulcerative Colitis

153
Q

What is the stool like of a patient with Ulcerative Colitis

A

Bloody and mucoid

154
Q

What is a benign mass in the colon that is always treated as Pre-malignant

A

Adenomas

155
Q

What do Adenomas has a chance to turn into

A

Adenocarcinomas

156
Q

Which GI tract disease has numerous adenomas and is treated with prophylactic colectomy

A

Familial Adenomatous Polyposis

157
Q

at What age is Familial adenomatous polyposis likely to develop

A

Teenagers

158
Q

What are the two types of Tumors of the GI tract

A

Adenocarcinomas

Carcinoid tumor

159
Q

What is the most common malignancy of the GI tract

A

Colorectal adenocarcinoma

160
Q

Who is at risk of developing Colorectal adenocarcinoma

A

Males in developed nations between that age of 50-70

161
Q

How is the Stool of a patient with Colorectal adenocarcinoma described

A

Occult blood (black)

162
Q

Where do Colorectal adenocarcinomas metastasis to

A

Liver
Lymph nodes
Lungs
Bone marrow

163
Q

What region of the GI tract are Neoplasms most likely to occur

A

Duodenum

164
Q

What is the most common acute abdominal condition

A

Appendicitis

165
Q

Who is at a higher risk of developing Appendicitis

A

Males

166
Q

What is the most common cause of appendicitis

A

Obstruction that causes ischemia and inflammation

167
Q

What type of tumor is the appendix most likely to have

A

Carcinoid tumor

System pathology 2 (4 decks)

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