Chapter 13

Question 1

Risk management principles provide a comprehensive approach to fire and emergency services operational safety.

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Question 2

The risk management principles focus our attention on how we accept risk.

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Question 3

Risk management principles and practices must continually adapt to the dynamic all hazards interaction between responders, operations, and risk.

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Question 4

All of the components of the risk management plan and all of the safety practices implemented by an organization and its membership create a line of defense.

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Question 5

The concept of the hierarchy of controls can be referenced to the national institute for occupational safety and health.

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Question 6

Engineering controls create a separation between responders and hazards.

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Question 7

According to NFPA 1026, standard for incident management personnel professional qualifications, the hierarchy of controls is requisite knowledge for the ISO regarding the evaluation of incident safety practices.

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Question 8

The incident management system is an overall strategy for achieving a coordinated incident management outcome.

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Question 9

ICS is the operational element that provides a framework for maintaining control of personnel assignments and actions while promoting a coordinated effort in which all members are working toward the same goals.

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Question 10

All incidents should have an incident action plan.

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Question 11

Written IAPs are required for incidents with multiple operational periods or those involving hazardous materials.

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Question 12

Accountability is vital in the event of a change in the status of the emergency incident.

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Question 13

Tactical level unit supervisors are responsible for keeping track of the members and their unit.

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Question 14

When broadcasting a personnel accountability report to the IC, the tactical level supervisor must clearly state who they are accounting for in the report.

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Question 15

Working through the IC, the ISO may enforce the accountability system and advise the IC of any defeciencies.

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Question 16

To effectively communicate with the IC and other emergency scene officers, the ISO must have good interpersonal communications skills.

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Question 17

All responders should be empowered to communicate safety hazards immediately through the chain of command at any time.

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Question 18

In every case, at least two fully equipped firefighters must be standing by outside the hazard zone prepared to initiate a rescue of the interior crew, if necessary.

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Question 19

At large buildings, the search and rescue from RIC teams could take as long as 20 minutes.

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Question 20

Rehabilitation areas, also known as rehab, are located in the cold zone and are generally incorporated with the on scene medical facilities.

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Question 21

The administration’s responsibility is to establish procedures for rehab at emergency incidents and to fund the items needed for the site.

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Question 22

A general rule for structure fires or incidents that require the use of SCBA is to send personnel to rehab when they have used two 30 minute air bottles or one 60 minute air bottle.

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Question 23

The strategy and tactics employed on an incident must first and foremost consider personnel safety as the number one priortity.

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Question 24

Fire and emergency services responders are expected to take calculated risks to provide for life safety, incident stabilization, and property conservation.

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Question 25

The ISO is responsible for monitoring conditions during fire suppression operations.

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Question 26

Firefighters should consider aspects of situational awareness other than simply feeling hot to asses whether an environment is potentially life threatening.

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Question 27

Observing fire behavior or monitoring air supply during interior attack may be better indicators of hazards.

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Question 28

At structure fires or hazardous vapor leaks, the IC must evaluate the size and complexity of the structure's interior to determine the amount of time required to exit the structure from the point of no return.

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Question 29

The point of no return is the point at which air in the SCBA will last only long enough to exit a hazardous atmosphere.

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Question 30

Thermal imagers are quickly becoming a priority safety tool in all aspects of emergency operations.

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Question 31

After fire suppression activities are concluded, overhaul becomes the primary activity.

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Question 32

Multi-gas detectors should be used to detect the presence of toxic gases after all structure fires.

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Question 33

Level A protection is fully encapsulated suit that provides the highest level of protection against chemical absorption or inhalation.

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Question 34

Level B protection is a non-encapsulated chemical resistant suit.

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Question 35

Level C protection is a non-encapsulated chemical splash suit.

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Question 36

Level D protection is a limited protection ensemble, such as structural firefighting gear.

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Question 37

Firefighters working in an aerial platform should be wearing safety belts and have the same protective equipment as interior firefighters.

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Question 38

The NFPA provides standard criteria to the manufacturing of ensembles worn for chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear events.

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Question 39

Chemical protective clothing is required when skin and respiratory system protection is needed at the highest level.

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Question 40

When a hazardous materials incident involving chemicals occurs, the level of exposure, chemical concentration, length of exposure, and type of work will determine the level of protection needed.

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Question 41

Chemical agents will have a distinguishable odor taste and are able to penetrate the skin.

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Question 42

Chemical agents can be in the form of a liquid, solid, or gas and include: Nerve agents-sarin and VX, blister agents-vesicants, mustard agents, blood agents - hydrogen cyanide and arsine.

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Question 43

Design and testing standards generally recognize two types of CPC: liquid splash protective clothing and vapor protecting protective clothing.

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Question 44

The manufacturer of a particular ensemble must provide a chemical compatibility chart or chemical resistance guide describing for which chemicals the suit was designed.

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Question 45

Biological protective clothing is also required when skin and respiratory system protection is needed at the highest level.

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Question 46

The use of biological agents in terrorist attacks is the primary consideration with exposure potential.

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Question 47

Biological agents can be in the form of a liquid or solid particles and include some of the following: Bacteria -anthrax, cholera, and the plague, Viral - smallpox and ebola, Toxins - ricin.

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Question 48

Biological agents will not have an odor or taste and do not penetrate the skin.

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Question 49

Biological protective clothing selection must meet the OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120, appendix B regulation.

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Question 50

Biological agents can be liquid or solid, inhaled or ingested.

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Question 51

Radiological protection depends on the form of radiation present.

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Question 52

Alpha particles - create the least exposure risk. Alpha particles can be easily blocked, but inhalation or ingestion can be particularly damaging to tissues.

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Question 53

Beta particles - are stronger than alpha, but can be blocked by material such as a sheet of aluminum.

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Question 54

Gamma rays - are comparable to an X ray. They penetrate more than alpha or beta but have less damaging effects.

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Question 55

X - rays - are electromagnetic radiation that requires higher level of shielding for protection. They are produced primarily at low levels by machines in controlled environments.

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Question 56

Commonly referred to as a dirty bomb, these devices not only have the damaging explosive effects but also inflict radiation exposure to victims.

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Question 57

The presence of a radiation may not be known until detected by a monitoring device such as a Geiger Counter.

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Question 58

NFPA 1670, Standard on operations and training for technical search and rescue incidents.

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Question 59

Any permit required confined space entry must meet OSHA 29 CFR 1910.146, permit required confined spaces.

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Question 60

Any rescue person entering a permit required confined space must have completed required entry training within the last year, regardless of technical rescue certification level.

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Question 61

At the scene, the personnel preparing for entry into the confined space must complete the permitting process.

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Question 62

Rigging and hoisting tools include all of the hardware to create a haul system.

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Question 63

The type of haul system will be dependent on the weight of the load and the angle of the slope.

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Question 64

Prior to any rescue operation commencing, a TSO should check the haul system to ensure proper set up.

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Question 65

When conducting a rescue that requires excavation, rescue personnel and ISO must ensure compliance with the following standards and regulations: NFPA 1006 - standard for technical rescuer professional qualifications. NFPA 1026 - standard for incident management personnel professional qualifications NFPA 1951 - standard on protective ensembles for tech rescue incidents OSHA 29 CFR 1926.650 subpart, excavations

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Question 66

Belay lines can be used to catch a falling load if there is a problem with the primary haul line.

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Question 67

Almost all rescue operations require the use of cribbing and shoring to stabilize heavy objects.

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Question 68

Cribbing generally refers to creating a base to stabilize an object in conjunction with a lifting or raising operation of some type, as in the case of vehicle extrication activities.

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Question 69

Shoring typically refers to the stabilization of objects that are in danger of collapse such as a trench cave in.

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Question 70

The selection and proper use of appropriate protective clothing and equipment is critical to the successful execution of a water based rescue.

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Question 71

Protective clothing and equipment used for water based rescues must conform to the standards identified in NFPA 1952, standard on surface water operations protective clothing and equipment, or AHJ requirements.

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Question 72

Helmets for water rescue are designed to minimize drag when moving through water.

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Question 73

The wetsuit is so named because water is introduced into the space between the suit an the rescuer's skin.

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Question 74

In contrast to a wetsuit, when using a drysuit, the areas of the body enclosed in the suit remain dry despite immersion in water.

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Question 75

Drysuits use gaskets to create watertight seals around areas where the user's body exits the suit.

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Question 76

All personnel operating within 10 feet of the water's edge, entering the water, or riding in a waterborne craft must wear a U.S. coast guard or transport canada approved PFD.

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Question 77

The standard outlined in NFPA 1952 calls for personnel engaged in water rescue operations to use Type V vest with at least 22 pounds of buoyancy.

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Question 78

The ISO is responsible for ensuring that the IC has established rehabilitation at an appropriate location.

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Question 79

The minimum requirement in OSHA is an ANSI 107 class 2 vest.

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Question 80

The 5 point breakaway vests are ANSI 207 class 2 vest.

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Question 81

NFPA 1901, standard for automotive fire apparatus, requires a 207 compliant vest for any apparatus purchased after Jan 1, 2009.

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Question 82

To improve the visibility of emergency vehicles when they are at an incident, NFPA requires the application of retroreflective trim on the vehicle body to meet ASTM D 4956, standard specification for retroreflective sheeting for traffic control, Type 1, Class 1, or class 3.

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Question 83

The retroreflective trim must extend across at least 25 percent of the front of the vehicle and 50 percent of the sides and rear.

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Question 84

NFPA requires one traffic safety vest for each seating position on the apparatus.

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Question 85

The distance between devices will be dependent on the number of devices available, but the MUTCD recommends optimal spacing for different speed limits: difference between cones should be half the speed limit.

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Question 86

NFPA 1901 recommends two modes of warning lights - one for response and one for blocking traffic.

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Question 87

Larger apparatus not utilized at a traffic scene should be placed at the transition area where motorists enter a safety zone.

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Question 88

The transition area is where lane reduction measures are implemented.

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Question 89

Patients being loaded into ambulances should never be exposed to vehicular traffic from the rear.

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Question 90

Incident risk management principles in the form of protocols and procedures provide a framework for managing the incident in a consistent manner that all personnel are familiar with.

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Question 91

The incident command structure is a nationally accepted framework for managing emergency incidents.

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Question 92

The IC has overall responsibility for all incident operations, including the expansion or reduction of the ICS.

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Question 93

At any incident or training exercise, the IC is responsible for setting the strategy and assigning and directing the tactics used to meet that strategy.

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Question 94

For smaller operations, the command post should be in a relatively close position to the incident where the IC can have direct visualization of the operation.

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Question 95

The command staff will typically check in at the command post, obtain a briefing, and then function away from the command post.

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Question 96

Tactical level supervisors will not be at the command post. Instead they will be positioned at a division or group location supervising a specific area.

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Question 97

The only time the ISO intervenes at the tactical level is to stop an unsafe act or prevent an injury.

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Question 98

If serving as a division supervisor, the tactical level supervisor will remain in a single location that funnels personnel in and out of the operational area.

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Question 99

ICS 300 is typically recommended for personnel who have company officer responsibilities or function as a division/group supervisor.

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Question 100

ICS 400 is the most advanced level of training and includes multi-agency coordination of complex incidents.

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Question 101

The IC is responsible for implementing personnel accountability, but may assign an accountability officer to assist with the function.

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Question 102

Risk management principles include the practices, technologies, and protocols used during incident operations to ensure the safety of personnel assigned to an operation.

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Question 103

Because the health effects of some of these gases are delayed- sometimes for years - it is easy for firefighters to be lulled into a false sense of security.

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Question 104

A risk management assessment essentially covers every aspect of incident operations.

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