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network A+ > Chapter 10 - Subnet Details - Sheet1 > Flashcards

Chapter 10 - Subnet Details - Sheet1 Flashcards

1
Q

Mask of /25

A

128 Mask

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2
Q

Bits on / Bits off for /25

A

1 on, 7 off (10000000)

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3
Q

Block size for /25

A

Block size of 128

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4
Q

How many subnets and hosts for /25

A

2 subnets, each with 126 hosts

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5
Q

Mask of /26

A

192 Mask

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6
Q

Bits on / Bits off for /26

A

2 on, 6 off (11000000)

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7
Q

Block size for /26

A

Block size of 64

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8
Q

How many subnets and hosts for /26

A

4 subnets, each with 62 hosts

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9
Q

Mask of /27

A

224 Mask

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10
Q

Bits on / Bits off for /27

A

3 on, 5 off (11100000)

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11
Q

Block size for /27

A

Block size of 32

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12
Q

How many subnets and hosts for /27

A

8 subnets, each with 30 hosts

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13
Q

Mask of /28

A

240 Mask

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14
Q

Bits on / Bits off for /28

A

4 bits on and 4 bits off

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15
Q

Block size for /28

A

Block size of 16

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16
Q

How many subnets and hosts for /28

A

16 Subnets, each with 14 hosts

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17
Q

Mask of /29

A

248 mask

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18
Q

Bits on / Bits off for /29

A

5 bits on and 3 bits off (11111000)

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19
Q

Block size for /29

A

Block size of 8

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20
Q

How many subnets and hosts for /29

A

32 subnets, each with 6 hosts

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21
Q

Mask of /30

A

252 mask

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22
Q

Bits on / Bits off for /30

A

6 bits on and 2 bits off

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23
Q

Block size for /30

A

block size of 4

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24
Q

How many subnets and hosts for /30

A

64 subnets, each with 2 hosts

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25
Q

Network segmentation decreases both performance and security on a network.
(A) True
(B) False

A

Answer : (B)

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26
Q

Only Class B and Class C networks can be subnetted.​ (A) True
(B) False

A

Answer : (B)

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27
Q

The use of virtualization allows for isolation of each guest system such that problems on one system do not affect another system.
(A) True
(B) False

A

Answer : (A)

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28
Q

Because Layer 2 switches use MAC addresses for communication, and each port is assigned a MAC address, VLANs are considered a Layer 2 solution for segmenting a network.​
(A) True
(B) False

A

Answer : (A)

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29
Q

The Spanning Tree Protocol stipulates that on any bridge, only one root port, which is the bridge’s port that is closest to the root bridge, can forward frames toward the root bridge.​
(A) True
(B) False

A

Answer : (A)

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30
Q 
A network with the subnet mask 255.255.255.0 would have what CIDR block?​ 
(A) ​/20
(B) ​/24 
(C) ​/28 
(D) ​/32
A

Answer : (B)

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31
Q 
A network with 6 bits remaining for the host portion will have how many usable host addresses?​ 
(A) ​254 
(B) ​126 
(C) ​62 
(D) ​30
A

Answer : (C)

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32
Q 
A single switch can manage traffic belonging to several VLANs on a single interface, by configuring which option on the interface?​ 
(A) ​A router
 (B) A trunk port 
(C) An access port 
(D) A VLAN port
A

Answer : (B)

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33
Q 
What type of VLAN automatically receives all untagged frames?​ 
(A) ​Default VLAN 
(B) Native VLAN 
(C) ​Mirrored VLAN
 (D) ​Untagged VLAN
A

Answer : (B)

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34
Q

How can VLAN hopping attacks be prevented on a network?​
(A) ​Install an additional switch to isolate traffic.
(B) ​Disable auto trunking and move native VLANs to unused VLANs.
(C) ​Install a router to process the untagged traffic on the VLAN.
(D) ​Use MAC address filtering.

A

Answer : (B)

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35
Q 
The first iteration of STP was defined in what IEEE standard below?​ 
(A) ​802.3d 
(B) ​802.1d 
(C) ​802.11s 
(D) ​802.1c
A

Answer : (B)

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36
Q 
STP selects the root bridge based on which parameter?​ 
(A) ​port number 
(B) ​bridge ID (BID) 
(C) ​bridge version number (BVN) 
(D) ​software revision code
A

Answer : (B)

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37
Q 
Telnet and SSH are known as what type of management system?​ 
(A) ​out-of-band 
(B) ​in-band 
C) ​side-band
 (D) ​external-band
A

Answer : (B)

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38
Q 
With VTP, the VLAN database is stored on a switch known as which option below?​ 
(A) ​root bridge
(B) ​stack master 
(C) ​trunk root 
(D) ​vlan server
A

Answer : (B)

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39
Q 
In order to allow communication between VLANs for exchange of data, what must be used?​ 
(A) ​a firewall 
(B) ​a switch 
(C) ​a router 
(D) ​a root bridge
A

Answer : (C)

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40
Q 
What IEEE standard specifies how VLAN information appears in frames and how switches interpret that information?​ 
(A) ​802.1c 
(B) ​802.1Q 
(C) ​802.1V 
(D) ​802.1d
A

Answer : (B)

41
Q

Which of the following is not a valid reason for using virtualization?​
(A) increase performance
(B) ​save money by purchasing few machines
(C) ​simplify backups and recovery
(D) ​efficient use of resources

A

Answer : (A)

42
Q 
​Which supernet mask below would allow an organization to cover the following networks with one routing entry: 192.168.0.0/24, 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, 192.168.3.0/24? 
(A) ​255.255.255.0 
(B) ​255.255.252.0
(C) ​255.255.255.128 
(D) ​255.255.240.0
A

Answer : (B)

43
Q 
In an IPv6 address, the first 64 bits of the address are known as what?​ 
(A) ​host prefix 
(B) ​equipment ID 
(C) ​routing prefix 
(D) ​prefix mask
A

Answer : (C)

44
Q 
​Which network type allows a vNIC to access a network directly using the host machine's NIC? 
(A) ​bridged mode 
(B) ​NAT mode 
(C) ​host only mode 
(D) ​direct mode
A

Answer : (A)

45
Q 
​What protocol is used to provide a common language between virtualized service applications and a network's physical devices? 
(A) ​VRRP 
(B) ​OpenFlow 
(C) ​CommonStack 
(D) ​OpenArch
A

Answer : (B)

46
Q 
The Shortest Path Bridging protocol is defined in what IEEE standard?​ 
(A) ​802.1d 
(B) ​802.1aq 
(C) ​802.1Q
(D) ​802.1s
A

Answer : (B)

47
Q 
The management option that can provide on-site infrastructure access when the network is down or complete remote access in cases of connectivity failures on the network, such as via a cellular signal, is known as? 
(A) ​in-band management
(B) ​out-of-band management 
(C) ​open management 
(D) ​side channel management
A

Answer : (B)

48
Q 
A CIDR block of /26 is equivalent to what subnet mask below? 
(A) ​255.255.192.0 
(B) ​255.255.254.0 
(C) ​255.255.255.192 
(D) ​255.255.0.0
A

Answer : (C)

49
Q 
​Which virtual network type allows VMs to communicate with each other on the same host, but disallows communication with other nodes on the network? 
(A) host-only mode​ 
(B) ​bridged mode 
(C) ​NAT mode 
(D) ​restricted mode
A

Answer : (A)

50
Q

In ______________, a vNIC relies on the host machine to act as a NAT device.

A

​Answer : NAT mode

51
Q

A centrally managed DHCP server can provide DHCP to multiple VLANs by configuring a _________________.​

A

Answer : DHCP relay agent

52
Q

A switch is typically preconfigured with one _______________ that includes all its ports.

A

Answer : default VLAN

53
Q

A _________________ occurs when an attacker generates transmissions that appear, to the switch, to belong to a protected VLAN.​

A

Answer : VLAN hopping attack

54
Q

To eliminate the possibility of traffic loops on switches and bridges, the ________________ is used.

A

Answer : Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)

55
Q

True or False: A network administrator might separate traffic in order to enhance security.

A

Answer: True

56
Q

CIDR notation takes the network ID or a host’s IP address and follows it with a _____, followed by the number of bits used for the network ID.

a. \
b. !
c. /
d. *

57
Q

With _____, you can combine contiguous networks that all use the same CIDR block.

A

Answer: supernetting

58
Q

True or False: Subnet masks are only used in IPv4 classful addressing.

A

Answer: False

59
Q

True or False: There are no IPv6 equivalents to IPv4’s Class A, Class B, or Class C networks.

A

Answer: True

60
Q

True or False: Virtualization is the emulation of a computer, operating system environment, or application on a physical system.

A

Answer: True

61
Q

A _____ is a logically defined device that operates at the Data Link layer to pass frames between the nodes.

A

Answer: virtual switch

62
Q

True or False: VMs that must be available at a specific address, such as mail servers or Web servers, should be assigned host-only network connections.

A

Answer: False

63
Q

In _____ networking mode, VMs on one host can exchange data with each other and with their host, but they cannot communicate with any nodes beyond the host.

a. host-only
b. bridged
c. NAT
d. network-only

64
Q

Which IEEE standard specifies how VLAN information appears in frames and how switches interpret that information?

a. 802.16
b. 802.1Q
c. 802.11ac
d. 802.3

65
Q 
How many bits of a Class A IP address are used for host information? 
A. 8 bits 
B. 16 bits 
C. 24 bits 
D. 32 bits
A

Answer: C. 24 bits

66
Q 
What is the formula for determining the number of possible hosts on a network? 
A. 2n = Y 
B. 2n – 2 = Y 
C. 2h = Z 
D. 2h – 2 = Z
A

Answer: D. 2h – 2 = Z

67
Q

Which of the following is not a good reason to subnet a network?
A. To reduce the number of hosts on the same network
B. To increase the number of unique networks available
C. To reduce the number of routing table entries by combining several entries
D. To segment a network

A

Answer: C. To reduce the number of routing table entries by combining several entries

68
Q 
What is the software that allows you to define VMs and manage resource allocation and 
sharing among them? 
A. Host 
B. Guest 
C. Switch 
D. Hypervisor
A

Answer: D. Hypervisor

69
Q 
What virtual, logically defined device operates at the Data Link layer to pass frames between 
nodes? 
A. Virtual bridge 
B. Virtual firewall 
C. Virtual switch 
D. Virtual router
A

Answer: C. Virtual switch

70
Q 
With which network connection type does the VM obtain IP addressing information from its 
host? 
A. Bridged mode 
B. Managed mode 
C. NAT mode 
D. Host-only mode
A

Answer: C. NAT mode

71
Q 
Which protocol assigns a virtual IP to a group of routers? 
A. VTP 
B. VRRP 
C. SDN 
D. STP
A

Answer: B. VRRP

72
Q

While designing your network’s VLAN topology, your team has decided to use a centrally
managed DHCP server rather than creating a separate DHCP server for each VLAN. What
software will you need?
A. DHCP server
B. Hypervisor
C. DHCP relay agent
D. Subnet mask

A

Answer: C. DHCP relay agent

73
Q 
Which port on a switch manages traffic for multiple VLANs? 
A. Access port 
B. Console port 
C. Serial port 
D. Trunk port
A

Answer: D. Trunk port

74
Q

Telnet and SSH are called __________________ systems because they use the existing
network and its protocols to interface with the switch.
A. Virtual terminal
B. Management console
C. In-band management
D. Switch port security

A

Answer: C. In-band management

75
Q

What is the network ID with CIDR notation for the IP address 172.16.32.108 with the subnet
mask 255.255.255.0?

A

Answer: 172.16.32.0/24

76
Q

Suppose you have leased two Class C licenses, 115.100.10.0 and 115.100.11.0. You want to
use all these Class C IP addresses in one supernet. What is the CIDR notation for this
supernet? What is its supernet mask?

A

Answer: 115.100.10.0/23, 255.255.254.0

77
Q

Suppose your company has leased one Class C license, 120.10.10.0, and wants to sublease
the first half of these IP addresses to another company. What is the CIDR notation for the
subnet to be subleased? What is the subnet mask for this network?

A

Answer: 120.10.10.0/25, 255.255.255.128

78
Q

What are four advantages to using virtualization on a network?

A

Answer: Efficient use of resources
Cost and energy savings
Fault and threat isolation
Simple backups, recovery, and replication

79
Q

ow does a vNIC get a MAC address?

A

Answer: Upon creation, each vNIC is automatically assigned a MAC address

80
Q

ubnetting operates at Layer ___ while VLANs function at Layer ___.

A

Answer: 3; 2

81
Q

Which VLAN on a switch manages untagged frames?

A

Answer: Native VLAN

82
Q

An attacker configures a VLAN frame with two tags instead of just one. The first tag directs
the frame to the authorized VLAN. After the frame enters the first VLAN, the switch
appropriately removes the tag, then discovers the next tag, and sends the frame along to a
protected VLAN, which the attacker is not authorized to access. What kind of attack is this?

A

Answer: VLAN hopping Answer: The ISP’s STP-related topology information shouldn’t be mixed with a corporate
network’s STP-related topology information.

83
Q

Why is a BPDU filter needed at the demarc point?

A

Answer: The ISP’s STP-related topology information shouldn’t be mixed with a corporate
network’s STP-related topology information.

84
Q

Only one ___________________ exists on a network using STP.

A

Answer: root bridge

85
Q

What Boolean function is used to derive the network address by combining the IP address with the subnet mask?

a. NAND
b. AND
c. OR
d. NOT

86
Q

Why are WORKSTATION1 and WORKSTATION2 no longer able to communicate?

a. They have different IP addresses.
b. They are on different networks.
c. TCP/IP was uninstalled on WORKSTATION2.
d. The ping command can be used only once.

A

b. They are on different networks.

87
Q

Which of the following is not an advantage of subnetting?

a. Enhanced network security
b. More hosts per network
c. Improved network performance
d. Simplified network troubleshooting

A

b. More hosts per network

88
Q

How is subnetting accomplished?

a. By changing the subnet mask on the host computers
b. By changing the IP address on the host computers
c. By installing the subnet protocol
d. By installing a router running DHCP

A

a. By changing the subnet mask on the host computers

89
Q

What is the default subnet mask for a Class C network?

a. 255.0.0.0
b. 255.255.0.0
c. 255.255.255.0
d. 255.255.255.255

A

c. 255.255.255.0

90
Q

What is the purpose of the default gateway?

a. To assign IP addresses to clients as soon as they log on to the network
b. To ensure that no two nodes on the same subnet have identical TCP/IP addresses
c. To accept and relay packets from nodes on one network destined for nodes on another network
d. To advertise the best, current routing paths between networks from one router to another

A

c. To accept and relay packets from nodes on one network destined for nodes on another network

91
Q

Which of the following is most likely to act as a default gateway?

a. Modem
b. Hub
c. Switch
d. Router

92
Q

What type of information would the netstat –r command yield when typed at the command prompt of a networked client?

a. A list of all routers to which that client might connect
b. A list of the client’s NIC adapter IP addresses
c. The client’s routing table
d. The client’s TCP/IP settings

A

c. The client’s routing table

93
Q

What is the default subnet mask for a Class B network in the IP version 4 addressing scheme?

a. 255.255.0.0
b. 255.255.255.0
c. 255.255.255.255
d. 0.0.0.0

A

a. 255.255.0.0

94
Q

Which of the following utilities can show the route a packet traverses between its source node and destination node on a network?

a. Ping
b. Nbtstat
c. Netstat
d. Tracert

A

d. Tracert

95
Q

A virtual network adapter operates at which layer of the OSI model?

a. Data Link
b. Transport
c. Session
d. Network

A

a. Data Link

96
Q

In ______ mode the virtualization software acts as a DHCP server.

a. NAT
b. Host-only
c. Server-only
d. Bridged

97
Q

The physical machine running the virtualization software is called a _____.

a. Host
b. Client
c. Hypervisor
d. Guest

98
Q

The most widely used virtualization software in use today is made by ______.

a. Microsoft
b. Oracle
c. Citrix
d. VMware

network A+ (22 decks)

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