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GK > Chapter 1 Dash 1 (Systems) > Flashcards

Chapter 1 Dash 1 (Systems) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the aircraft basic empty weight?

A

4900 pounds

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2
Q

What is maximum takeoff gross weight?

A

6500 pounds

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3
Q

How much shaft horsepower does the PT6A-68 Engine Produce?

A

1100 Shaft Horsepower

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4
Q

What are the two sections of the PT6A-68 Engine?

A

Gas Generator Section and Power Turbine Section

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5
Q

What are the 4 parts of the gas generator section?

A

Four-stage axial-flow compressor, single-stage centrifugal flow compressor, combustion chamber, and single stage compressor turbine

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6
Q

What is the oil capacity of the Oil System?

A

18.5 Quarts

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7
Q

What are the 4 components of the oil system?

A

Pressure, scavenge, cooling, breather

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8
Q

When must oil be serviced if it requires servicing?

A

Within 30 minutes of engine shutdown

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9
Q

Where is normal oil level on the dipstick?

A

Between ADD and MAX HOT

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10
Q

Can you use the sight glass for accurately checking oil quantity?

A

No

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11
Q

The engine oil pressure indicator may display oil pressures up to ____ PSI with the engine shutdown due to the design of the oil pressure transmitter.

A

4 PSI

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12
Q

Where is data from the oil pressure and temperature sensors sent?

A

To the Engine Data Manager (EDM)

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13
Q

Where does the EDM send information about the oil pressure to illuminate the CWS panel if necessary?

A

To the signal conditioning unit (SCU)

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14
Q

When will the SCU activate the Red OIL PX annunciator?

A

-If oil pressure is at or below 40 PSI with the PCL above idle
-If oil pressure is at or below 15 PSI at idle
-If oil pressure is between 15 and 40 PSI for 5 seconds at idle

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15
Q

When will the SCU activate the Amber OIL PX annunciator?

A

-If oil pressure is between 15 and 40 PSI at idle power
-If oil pressure is between 40 and 90 PSI for 10 seconds above idle power

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16
Q

When will the SCU activate both the Amber and Red OIL PX annunciators?

A

If oil pressure remains between 15 and 40 PSI at idle power for 5 or more seconds

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17
Q

What does illumination of both Red and Amber OIL PX annunciators mean if the Oil Pressure gauge is otherwise reading normal oil pressure?

A

Failure of the Signal Conditioning Unit (SCU)

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18
Q

What circuit breaker does power for the Oil Pressure transducer flow through and where is it located?

A

OIL TRX on FCP Bat Bus

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19
Q

If power fails to the oil pressure transducer, what will the oil pressure gauge read?

A

0 PSI

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20
Q

The Reduction Gearbox is a two-stage planetary reduction drive that reduces power turbine output shaft speed of _______ RPM to the propeller operating speed of _________ RPM

A

30,000 RPM, 2,000 RPM

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21
Q

Is there a mechanical connection between the Reduction Gearbox and the Gas Generation Section?

A

No

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22
Q

Where is the Chip Detector mounted?

A

In the Reduction Gearbox

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23
Q

What are the 3 devices mounted on top of the Reduction Gearbox?

A

Propeller Interface Unit, torque probe, Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA)

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24
Q

What is mounted on the right side of the Reduction Gearbox?

A

The Air Conditioning Compressor

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25
Q

What powers the air conditioning compressor?

A

Belt driven from the propeller assembly

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26
Q

Where is torque measured from?

A

The reduction gearbox

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27
Q

How big is the propeller?

A

97 Inches in Diameter

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28
Q

What propeller RPM is indicated by 100% Np?

A

2,000 RPM

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29
Q

What two devices automatically control the propeller RPM?

A

The Power Management Unit (PMU) and the Propeller Interface Unit (PIU)

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30
Q

What altitude range is 100% Torque available within?

A

Sea Level to approximately 12,000-16,000 Feet MSL on a standard day

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31
Q

At 100% indicated torque, approximately how many foot-pounds of torque is the engine producing?

A

Approximately 2,900 foot-pounds of torque

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32
Q

At 100% indicated torque, approximately how many pounds of thrust will the engine produce at sea level with zero airspeed?

A

Approximately 2,750 pounds of thrust at SL with 0 Airspeed

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33
Q

What are the 3 basic conditions of the propeller pitch?

A

Feathered, low pitch (flat or fine), and high pitch (coarse)

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34
Q

Explain how the propeller pitch angle is controlled

A

The PMU controls oil pressure to the PIU which increases the pressure and transfers it to the hollow rotating shaft of the propeller through a tube and stationary transfer sleeve

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35
Q

When oil pressure is increased to the PIU, the blades move towards _________

A

Low pitch (flat or fine)

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36
Q

When oil pressure is decreased to the PIU, the blades move towards __________

A

High Pitch (coarse)

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37
Q

When oil pressure is completely cut off to the PIU, the blades move towards __________

A

Feathered

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38
Q

With the PMU functioning, the electronic governor will maintain Np at _____

A

100%

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39
Q

With the PMU functioning, the mechanical overspeed governor modulates oil pressure to the propeller pitch change piston to limit Np below ______

A

106%

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40
Q

If PMU function is lost or deactivated, the mechanical flyweight overspeed governor modulates oil pressure to the propeller pitch change piston to maintain Np at or below ______

A

100 ± 2%

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41
Q

If the engine is shut down via the PCL and the PMU is in NORM, what makes the propeller feather?

A

The PMU sends a signal to the prop servo valve to drain propeller oil pressure and microswitches sense the PCL in cutoff and send a signal to the feather dump solenoid valve which also dumps oil pressure from the propeller

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42
Q

What circuit breaker powers the feather dump solenoid valve?

A

PROP SYS (FCP Bat Bus)

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43
Q

What two mechanisms feather the propeller in the absence of oil pressure?

A

Prop counterweights and feathering spring

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44
Q

If the PCL is placed in CUTOFF with the PMU Off, and the PROP SYS circuit breaker is pulled, what happens to the propeller?

A

The propeller will not rapidly feather and may not fully feather until after landing

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45
Q

If the rate of change of Propeller RPM exceeds PMU sensor validity check limit, what does the PMU do?

A

Assume a sensor failure, switch to manual mode, and display dashes for the RPM and Torque values.

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46
Q

If, due to Prop RPM rate exceedance, the PMU switches to manual mode and displays dashes for RPM and Torque, how can you fix this?

A

Cycling the PMU switch

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47
Q

If the dashes displayed for RPM and Torque are not caused by actual rate exceedance but by faulty sensors, what will happen after you cycle the PMU Switch?

A

The dashes will remain

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48
Q

What are the 3 positions of the starter switch?

A

NORM, AUTO/RESET, MANUAL

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49
Q

Through what circuit breaker does power for the starting sequence flow?

A

START (FCP BAT BUS)

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50
Q

What are the 2 positions of the ignition switch?

A

ON, NORM

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51
Q

With the Ignition Switch set to NORM, what energizes and deenergizes the igniters?

A

The PMU

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52
Q

What annunciator is displayed when the igniters are activated by switch or starter sequence?

A

Green IGN SEL

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53
Q

What interconnects the PCLs?

A

Push-Pull Rod

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54
Q

What connects the PCL electrically and mechanically to the FMU?

A

A flexible cable

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55
Q

What controls are on the PCL?

A

Speed Brake, Rudder Trim, UHF/VHF communications, intercommunications

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56
Q

What monitors engine operating parameters and illuminates the appropriate annunciator when necessary?

A

The Engine Data Manager (EDM)

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57
Q

What are the non-engine related functions of the EDM?

A

Fuel Balancing, fuel quantity, determination and display of DC Volts, DC amps, hydraulic pressure, cockpit pressure altitude, and cockpit differential pressure

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58
Q

If the EDM Fails, how will you know?

A

The affected engine information display will show EDM FAIL in red text

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59
Q

What is shown on the Primary Engine Data Display?

A

Torque, Np, IOAT, N1, and ITT

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60
Q

What display does the PMU process the information for and send signals to?

A

The PEDD

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61
Q

Through what circuit breaker does the power for the PEDD Flow?

A

PRI ENG DIS (GEN BUS)

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62
Q

What is shown on the Alternate Engine Data Display?

A

Alternate Torque, Alternate N1, Cockpit Pressure Altitude, Cockpit Differential Pressure, fuel flow, fuel quantity, RITT

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63
Q

For what display does information flow directly from the sensors to the EDM for display to the pilot (except for torque)?

A

The AEDD

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64
Q

What circuit breaker powers the AEDD?

A

ALT ENG DIS (BAT BUS)

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65
Q

What is shown on the Engine/Systems Display (ESD)?

A

Oil Temperature, Oil Pressure, DC Volts, DC Amps, hydraulic pressure, traffic alerts

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66
Q

What circuit breaker powers the ESD?

A

ENG SYS DIS (GEN BUS)

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67
Q

With EDM FAIL displayed, only those parameters replaced by _____ are invalid.

A

Amber dashes and/or missing pointers

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68
Q

What powers the PMU normally?

A

A dedicated permanent magnet alternator (PMA)

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69
Q

If the propeller RPM drops below 40-50%, what powers the PMU?

A

The 28 VDC Battery Bus

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69
Q

What voltage does the PMA supply?

A

32 VAC (PMU Converts to DC)

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70
Q

Above ________ feet Pressure Altitude, the PMU raises N1 to maintain Np above ____ to avoid stress on the propeller during spins

A

10,000, 80%

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71
Q

Will the PMU abort an autostart attempt in flight?

A

No

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72
Q

Where is the aircraft IOAT sensor located?

A

In the engine inlet plenum

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73
Q

If IOAT is greater than _____ but less than _____, the PMU will default to _____ for IOAT input and display

A

96°C, 121°C, 121°C

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74
Q

If IOAT does not exceed _____, the PMU will use the displayed value.

A

96°C

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75
Q

What will happen if the PMU is activated with IOAT at or above 96°C?

A

IOAT and ITT data will be invalid (amber dashes in counter display and missing ITT pointer) and EDM FAIL will be displayed in the bottom of the PEDD

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76
Q

What will happen if IOAT exceeds 121°C?

A

The PMU will go offline (Amber dashes in IOAT and ITT counter, removal of ITT Pointer, PMU FAIL annunciator, and will not reset until IOAT drops below 121°C

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77
Q

Ensure the ST READY light remains on for ______ seconds before engine start

A

3 seconds

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78
Q

During start, at approximately _____ N1, the starter and igniters are deenergized and the boost pump is deactivated if fuel pressure is above _____ PSI

A

50%, 10 PSI

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79
Q

During start, the PCL may be advanced to IDLE any time N1 is at or above ______

A

60%

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80
Q

During a normal (auto) start, the PMU Continuously monitors ________, _________, and _________

A

N1, ITT, Fuel Flow

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81
Q

If the ST READY light extinguishes at any time during start sequence, the PMU will ____________

A

No longer provide automatic protection by cutting off fuel to terminate a bad start

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82
Q

For operations with the PMU inoperative (manual mode), step changes in power are limited to ______ shp increases and ________ shp decreases

A

280, 550

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83
Q

How long after landing will the PMU status light illuminate if fault conditions are encountered in flight?

A

1 Minute

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84
Q

What does a PMU STATUS light in flight indicate?

A

Failure of or mismatch between the WOW switches (ground idle will not be available, landing distance may be longer)

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85
Q

What are the 2 main components of the fire warning system?

A

Dual sensor tubes and responder assemblies

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86
Q

Will flattening, twisting, kinking, or denting the fire warning loop affect test or flight operation?

A

No

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87
Q

The firewall shutoff handle cuts off what TO the engine?

A

Fuel and Hydraulic Fluid

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88
Q

The firewall shutoff handle cuts off what FROM the engine?

A

Bleed Air

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89
Q

The fuel system provides how many pounds of usable fuel when refueled by single point?

A

1100

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90
Q

How many additional pounds of fuel is available when refueled over the wing?

A

100

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91
Q

When parking on ramps with greater than _____ incline, the fuel system may vent overboard through a pressure relief valve.

A

1%

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92
Q

The fuel system incorporates an auto balancing system which keeps the fuel in the wing tanks within ______ of each other

A

20 pounds

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93
Q

What happens when a fuel imbalance of 20 or more pounds is detected for more than 30 seconds?

A

The transfer valve will close the motive flow line to the light tank

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94
Q

How many transfer valves are there?

A

2

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95
Q

If the fuel imbalance is not reduced to less than 30 pounds within 2 minutes, what will happen?

A

FUEL BAL annunciator and auto balance system will shut off until reset

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96
Q

How many fuel probes are there?

A

7

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97
Q

If the tanks are full, which fuel probe is providing fuel quantity readings?

A

The outer probe

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98
Q

When are the middle and inner probes used to provide fuel quantity readings?

A

When the fuel level drops below the outboard probe of that respective probe

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99
Q

The outer fuel probe provides readings until approximately _______

A

445±50 pounds

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100
Q

The middle fuel probe provides readings until approximately _______

A

308±50 pounds

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101
Q

The inner fuel probe provides readings until approximately _______

A

20 pounds

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102
Q

How will you know if a fuel probe fails?

A

Amber FUEL BAL annunciator and FP FAIL on the AEDD

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103
Q

If a Fuel Probe fails while it is being used to measure fuel quantity, what will happen to the indicated fuel level?

A

It will drop to showing the next fuel probe

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104
Q

How does fuel move from the outboard wing cavities to the inboard wing cavities?

A

Gravity

105
Q

What moves the fuel from the inboard wing cavities to the collector tank and maintains a positive low pressure in the collector tank?

A

Transfer Jet Pumps

106
Q

What valve in the collector tank supplies fuel to the engine?

A

Fuel pickup valve

107
Q

During inverted flight, a ______ in the fuel pickup valve closes off the normal fuel pickup and opens the inverted fuel pickup

A

Weighted Rod

108
Q

The inverted fuel pickup supplies fuel for inverted flight for a minimum of ______ seconds regardless of orientation

A

60

109
Q

What pumps the fuel from the collector tank?

A

Primary Jet Pump or Electric Boost Pump

110
Q

How many gallons of fuel can each wing hold?

A

79

111
Q

How many gallons of fuel can the collector tank hold?

A

7

112
Q

After the primary jet pump or electric boost pump, what is the fuel’s next stop?

A

Engine Driven Low Pressure Fuel Pump

113
Q

After the Engine Driven Low Pressure Fuel Pump, what is the fuel’s next stop?

A

Engine Driven High Pressure Fuel Pump

114
Q

After the Engine Driven High Pressure Fuel Pump, what is the fuel’s next stop?

A

The FMU

115
Q

After the FMU, what is the fuel’s next stop?

A

Fuel flowmeter

116
Q

After the fuel flowmeter, what is the fuel’s next stop?

A

Flow divider

117
Q

After the flow divider, what is the fuel’s next stop?

A

Primary and secondary delivery tubes interconnecting the 14 manifold adapters surrounding the gas generator, each of which contains a spray nozzle

118
Q

What does the electric boost pump do?

A

Provides fuel for engine start and serves as a backup to the engine driven low pressure fuel pump

119
Q

What happens if both the electric boost pump and engine driven low pressure fuel pump fail?

A

The engine driven high pressure fuel pump will suction feed sufficient fuel for continued engine operation but will not allow restart

120
Q

What happens if the engine driven high pressure fuel pump fails?

A

The engine will flameout and cannot be restarted

121
Q

What are the two shutoff valves that shutoff fuel to the engine?

A

Maintenance shutoff valve and Firewall shutoff handle

122
Q

Fuel Flow of ____ or greater is indicative of a fuel system malfunction and possible engine failure

A

800 PPH

123
Q

If the FUEL PX illuminates and the boost pump activates during inverted flight, what should you do?

A

Cease inverted maneuvers and notify maintenance

124
Q

What are the specs of the Starter/Generator?

A

28 VDC, 300 Amp

125
Q

What are the specs of the main lead acid battery?

A

24 VDC, 42 Amp hour

126
Q

What are the specs of the auxiliary battery?

A

24 VDC, 5 Amp hour

127
Q

What does moving the generator switch to ON do to the switch in the other cockpit?

A

Switches it off

128
Q

What does moving the battery switch to ON do to the switch in the other cockpit?

A

Switches it off

129
Q

What will happen if external power voltage level exceeds a nominal level?

A

External power will be cut off

130
Q

Do not connect external power if battery voltage is below _____ Volts

A

22.0 V

131
Q

If the Generator fails with the bus tie open or annunciator illuminated, what will happen?

A

Items on the generator bus will not be powered

132
Q

If the Generator fails with the bus tie open or annunciator illuminated, how long approximately will the battery last?

A

30 minutes

133
Q

If the Generator fails with the bus tie closed (annunciator not illuminated), what will happen?

A

The Air Conditioner will be shed but the battery will power both the GEN and BAT buses for a reduced amount of time

134
Q

What happens if the GEN BUS fails but not the Generator?

A

Items on the generator bus will not be powered but the battery will continue to charge as long as BUS TIE is in NORM

135
Q

How do you confirm a Generator failure?

A

GEN annunciator with associated GEN BUS failures and discharging ammeter

136
Q

Is the brake system connected to the hydraulic system?

A

No

137
Q

What provides independent braking from the rudder pedals?

A

2 Hydraulic Master Cylinders

138
Q

Who determines the amount of braking force used?

A

The pilot who’s pushing harder

139
Q

What do the red bands at the top and bottom of the brake resevoir indicator mean?

A

The brake reservoir requires servicing or has been overserviced

140
Q

What is the capacity of the hydraulic system?

A

5 quarts

141
Q

When is the hydraulic pressure relief valve activated?

A

3250 to 3500 PSI

142
Q

The hydraulic pump pressurizes the normal system to _________

A

3200 ± 120 psi

143
Q

What is the minimum hydraulic pressure for normal system operation?

A

1800 PSI

144
Q

When will the HYDR FL LO annunciator illuminate?

A

When hydraulic reservoir level is below 1 quart

145
Q

What ranges must the green hydraulic indicator rod be within on walkaround?

A

FULL AC or FULL AD

146
Q

With the HYD SYS circuit breaker popped or pulled, what will and won’t be available?

A

EHYD PX LO will be available, Normal Pressure indication and HYDR FL LO indicators will not be available

147
Q

When will the EHYD PX LO annunciator illuminate?

A

Anytime pressure in the emergency accumulator drops below 2400 ± 150 PSI (for example sometimes on engine start)

148
Q

What prevents emergency hydraulic pressure from venting into the main system if the main system fails?

A

A check valve

149
Q

What prevents a leak in the emergency system from depleting the main system?

A

Hydraulic fuse

150
Q

Hydraulic fluid flow to the emergency accumulator is restricted to _______ by the hydraulic fuse

A

.25 GPM

151
Q

In the event of a emergency hydraulic system leak that exceeds .25 GPM, the hydraulic fuse limits fluid loss to a maximum of ________

A

20-30 cubic inches (0.5 quarts)

152
Q

How many gear actuators are there?

A

4 (one for each gear and one for the main gear inboard doors)

153
Q

When do the green indicators show on the landing gear panel?

A

Anytime that gear is down and locked

154
Q

When do red indicators show on the landing gear panel?

A

Anytime that gear is in transit or when the main gear doors are not closed or when the PCL is approaching IDLE with the gear handle UP

155
Q

With a failure of the right WOW switch, what must you do before you will be able to raise the gear?

A

Press the downlock override button

156
Q

The nose gear is locked in the up position by ________

A

Internal actuator lock

157
Q

A normal gear extension/retraction sequence takes approximately _____ seconds

A

6

158
Q

Do the normal hydraulic system and emergency hydraulic system share the same lines?

A

No

159
Q

Is electrical power required for emergency gear extension?

A

No

160
Q

What gear indications will you see after pulling the emergency gear handle?

A

Green nosewheel light, red light in gear handle, and green and red light in each main gear

161
Q

When does the 250HZ, 5 time per second gear aural warning activate?

A

-Gear handle not DOWN, PCL below MID RANGE, Airspeed Below 120 KIAS, and Flaps UP or TAKEOFF
-All gear not indicating down and locked with flaps LDG
-Weight on Wheels with gear handle not down

162
Q

When will the WARNING SILENCE not silence the gear warning?

A

-Configured with gear UP and flaps LDG
-Gear handle UP and WOW switch showing on ground

163
Q

If you push the gear WARNING SILENCE button above 120 Knots with the PCL below MID RANGE, and then slow to 120 Knots, the tone will not activate until it is reset by _______

A

Moving the PCL above a MID RANGE position

164
Q

What are the 3 ways to turn a T-6?

A

Rudder, Nosewheel Steering, Differential Braking

165
Q

Should you use nosewheel steering for a sharp turn with differential braking?

A

No

166
Q

How many total degrees of castor does the nosewheel have?

A

150°

167
Q

What automatically centers the nosewheel when the aircraft is in the air with the nosewheel not down and locked?

A

Nosewheel steering actuator

168
Q

What should you do if the NWS fails to respond to pilot input?

A

Disengage NWS and use differential braking to bring the aircraft to a safe stop. Do not taxi, do not takeoff

169
Q

Can you visually verify flap condition by looking at them?

A

No

170
Q

What activates the flap indicator?

A

A cam on the torque tube activating position sensing microswitches

171
Q

Can you operate the flaps at all with the Aux Bat as the only source of power?

A

No

172
Q

What happens if power to the flap control circuit is lost?

A

Flaps will retract to UP and flap indication will be unreliable

173
Q

What keeps the speed brake retracted when the engine is off?

A

Internal Hydraulic Uplock

174
Q

What happens to trim when the speed brake is actuated?

A

Pitch trim is automatically adjusted

175
Q

The speed brake will extend to _____ degrees from the stowed position and may not be stopped at an intermediary position

A

70

176
Q

_____ Movement extends the speed brake and ______ Movement retracts it

A

Rearward, Forward

177
Q

What will cause the speed brake to retract?

A

Moving the speed brake switch forward, extending the flaps, or moving the PCL to MAX

178
Q

What are the primary flight controls?

A

Ailerons, Elevator, Rudder

179
Q

What are the secondary flight controls?

A

Trim and TAD

180
Q

What does pressing Trim Interrupt do?

A

Interrupts power to all trim and switches off the TAD

181
Q

What does switching the trim disconnect switch to TRIM DISCONNECT do?

A

Cuts off all power to trim

182
Q

What are the upper and lower deflection limits of the Ailerons?

A

20° up, 11° down

183
Q

Do the ailerons use trim tabs to input aileron trim?

A

No, the whole thing moves (ground adjustable trim tabs are for maintenance use only)

184
Q

What are the upper and lower deflection limits of the elevator?

A

18° Up, 16° Down

185
Q

What does the bobweight do with respect to G forces?

A

Increases stick forces as G Load increases to improve control feel and prevent overstressing the aircraft

186
Q

External Ground Power Requirements are _____ to ______ VDC

A

28.0 to 28.5

187
Q

What are the left and right deflection limits of the rudder?

A

24° Left, 24° Right

188
Q

What inputs does the TAD use to assist with rudder trim?

A

-Engine Torque
-Altitude
-Airspeed
-Pitch Rate

189
Q

The TAD must detect <_____ knots and WOW to set takeoff trim

A

80 Knots

190
Q

The gust lock locks the ailerons and rudder in a _____ position and the elevator in a ______ position.

A

Neutral, Down

191
Q

How many Pitot Static systems does the T-6 Have?

A

2 (they are independent)

192
Q

Which pitot tube provides primary pitot data?

A

Right Pitot Tube

193
Q

Which static ports provide primary static data?

A

Upper Right and Lower Left

194
Q

Which pitot tube provides secondary pitot data?

A

Left Pitot Tube

195
Q

Which static ports provide secondary static data?

A

Upper Left and Lower Right

196
Q

Pitot heat is provided through which switch?

A

Probes Anti-Ice

197
Q

Mach information is blanked below ______ Mach

A

0.40

198
Q

In the event of a bat bus failure, the standby instruments are powered by __________

A

The Aux Battery

199
Q

Both the primary and standby airspeed indicators include a ________ to show max airspeed/mach

A

A velocity/Mach limiting (barber

200
Q

Once the flag is visible in the standby attitude indicator indicating total power loss for that instrument, how long will it be operational?

A

At least 9 minutes

201
Q

What happens to the clock after it reaches 59 minutes and 59 seconds on elapsed time?

A

It begins counting hours and minutes up to 99 hours and 59 minutes

202
Q

The accelerometer reads G load between what values?

A

-6Gs to +10Gs

203
Q

A difference of less than _____ G(s) is acceptable between the front and back cockpits

A

1

204
Q

Anti-ice protection is provided for the AOA system by a _______ which is powered through the ________

A

heated element in the vane, PROBES ANTI-ICE

205
Q

A stall is indicated by AOA Gage showing ______ units (red arc)

A

Above 18

206
Q

On speed is indicated by AOA Gage showing _______ units (green arc)

A

10-11

207
Q

Max Endurance is shown as the _______ symbol on the AOA Gage which is _______ units

A

White Diamond, 8.8

208
Q

Max Range is shown as the ________ symbol on the AOA Gage which is ________ units

A

White Triangle, 4.9

209
Q

The AOA computer activates the __________ to signify stall warning at approximately _______ units

A

stick shaker, 15-16

210
Q

The AOA indexer displays ______ when on speed

A

Amber Donut

211
Q

The AOA indexer displays _______ when AOA is too low (fast approach speed)

A

Lower red chevron

212
Q

The AOA indexer displays _______ when AOA is too high (slow approach speed)

A

Upper green chevron

213
Q

Optimum approach speed will decrease by approximately _____ for every ______ pounds of fuel used

A

1 knot, 100 pounds

214
Q

The canopy windscreen and front transparency are designed to withstand a _____ pound birdstrike at airspeeds up to ________

A

4 pound, 270 knots

215
Q

When is the red CANOPY annunciator displayed?

A

Anytime the canopy is not sensed as closed and locked

216
Q

The one-piece, seamless pressure seal around the canopy is automatically inflated as soon as ________ and _______

A

Bleed air inflow is available, weight is off right main landing gear

217
Q

The CFS uses a ______ in the front transparency and a ______ in the rear transparency to fracture the canopy

A

Flexible Linear Shaped Charge (FLSC), Mild Detonating Cord (MDC)

218
Q

The ejection seat is capable of providing safe egress from ____ Altitude and _____ Airspeed up to ______ Altitude and _____ Airspeed

A

-0 Feet, 0 Knots
-35,000 Feet, 370 Knots

219
Q

When ejecting over mountainous terrain exceeding _____ feet MSL, the _____ should be used to separate from the seat and deploy the parachute

A

8,000 feet MSL, MOR handle

220
Q

The emergency oxygen cylinder is sufficiently charged for flight if the gage pointer reads between _____ and ______ PSI

A

1800-2500 PSI

221
Q

Whenever ejection for both seats is activated, a _____ second timer is initiated to allow the shoulder harness reel to retract the harness, and a _____ second timer is simultaneously activated to provide ejection separation. (______ second elapsed time between seats)

A

0.17, 0.54, 0.37

222
Q

When the ADU mode selector is in Auto, the SSK is lowered automatically _____ seconds after seat/pilot separation

A

4

223
Q

What all is engine bleed air used for?

A

-Canopy Pressurization Seal
-Anti G System
-Cockpit Heating/Defogging
-Pressurization
-OBOGS

224
Q

What supplies cooling air for the heat exchanger on the ground?

A

A blower

225
Q

With weight off the landing gear, the heat exchanger blower’s power is cut off. What supplies cooling air after this happens?

A

Ram air through the cooling air inlet

226
Q

What does the left P3 Port supply?

A

OBOGS

227
Q

What does the right P3 port supply?

A

-Canopy Seal
-Anti-G
-Heating/Defogging
-Pressurization

228
Q

If the cockpit control system does not require warm air below ______ feet MSL, bleed air inflow is automatically closed to prevent hot bleed air from entering the cockpit

A

7,500 feet MSL

229
Q

If the bleed air temperature at either of the 2 sensor locations exceeds _____, an amber DUCT TEMP annunciator will illuminate

A

300 °C

230
Q

What inflates the G suit with increasing Gs?

A

A weighted rod

231
Q

A safety valve automatically provides relief to the Anti G system when pressure exceeds _____ PSI

A

7 PSI

232
Q

The temperature of the air entering the cockpit is normally controlled automatically between _____ and ______ °F

A

60 and 90 °F

233
Q

If the temperature controller detects a temperature in excess of ______ °F, it directs the heat exchanger bypass to move to full closed

A

165 °F

234
Q

What does placing the DEFOG switch in ON do?

A

-The DEFOG valve is opened
-The inflow valve is set to high
-The AC compressor is turned on to dry the air
-Air is routed through a venturi to increase air volume to the defog nozzles or foot warmers

235
Q

If the DEFOG switch is placed in OFF, the electronically controlled defog valve may take up to ______ seconds to close

A

40 seconds

236
Q

What engine parameter does operation of the canopy defog increase, possibly outside of ops limits?

A

ITT

237
Q

A reduction in flaps UP climb performance of up to _____ may be observed with the defog ON and the PCL retarded to maintain ITT within limits

A

47%

238
Q

What are the 5 components of the pressurization system?

A

-Control valve
-Safety valve
-Control valve regulator
-Differential Pressure Regulator
-Solenoid dump valve

239
Q

In the pressurization system, when the aircraft becomes airborne, power is applied to the ________

A

Dump solenoid valve

240
Q

As the aircraft approaches _______ Feet Pressure Altitude, the ________________ will open and close the control valve to maintain cockpit pressure

A

8,000, control valve regulator

241
Q

A _______ foot pressure altitude is maintained until a differential pressure of _______ which is reached at ________

A

8,000-foot, 3.6±0.2 psi, 18,069 feet

242
Q

Cockpit pressure altitude at 31,000 feet is ________

A

16,600 feet

243
Q

When will the Amber CKPT ALT annunciator illuminate?

A

Cockpit altitude above 19,000 feet

244
Q

When will the red CKPT PX annunciator illuminate?

A

Cockpit differential pressure exceeds 3.9 to 4.0 PSI

245
Q

What does selecting DUMP on the pressurization switch do?

A

Removes power from the dump solenoid which opens the dump solenoid electronically and opens the control valve mechanically

246
Q

What does selecting RAM/DUMP on the pressurization switch do?

A

-Opens the control valve
-Opens the fresh air valve
-Closes the defog valve if open
-Bleed air inflow will continue

247
Q

The air conditioning is powered on when the ________ and/or ________ switches are on

A

Air Conditioning, Defog

248
Q

The AC blower assembly produces up to ______ cubic feet per minute flow at the HI setting

A

350 cubic ft/min

249
Q

Fresh air ventilation during unpressurized flight can be supplied to the cockpit through the __________

A

Cooling air inlet

250
Q

The position of the fresh air valve is controlled by the _________ switch

A

Ram Air Flow

251
Q

To provide positive cockpit air ventilation and improve air quality, the RAMP AIR FLOW switch should be placed in the _______ or _______

A

NORM or HI

252
Q

The _________ is automatically closed when approaching 8000 feet Pressure Altitude as the cockpit begins to pressurize

A

Fresh air valve

253
Q

The _______ provides power for all avionics and radio systems in both cockpits

A

Avionics master switch

254
Q

The avionics master switch provides logic to apply power to the _________ even with the _______ in the OFF position

A

Evaporator blower, blower control switches

255
Q

The front audio control panel includes a switch placarded ______ with HI, LO, and TEST positions to test _______ or select sensitivity level for normal operation

A

MKR, marker beacon functionality

256
Q

A ground crew headset jack is provided on the _____ side of the aft fuselage behind a flip cover

A

Left

257
Q

When the UHF mode is set to ______ on the RMU or MN AND GD displayed on the backup UHF control head, the UHF continuously monitors both the frequency selected and _________

A

BOTH, GUARD (246.0 MHz)

258
Q

The ADSB transponder uses _______ to determine “in air” or “on ground” status and automatically inhibits replies to Mode A/C/S interrogations when on the ground

A

WOW

259
Q

The ______ mode should be selected on the transponder at all times while the aircraft is moving unless directed otherwise by ATC

A

ALT

260
Q
A

GK (5 decks)

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