Chapter 1 And 2 Flashcards

1
Q

A person who administers ionizing radiation t perform radiographic procedures

A

A radiographer

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2
Q

Who writes the radiography’s practice standards

A

American Society of Radiologic Technologists (ASRT)

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3
Q

Defines the practice of radiography, describes the necessary education and certification, and includes the radiographer scope of practice

A

Radiography Practice Standards

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4
Q

ALARA

A

As low as reasonably achieve-able

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5
Q

Who created and maintains the Standard of Ethics

A

ARRT - American Registry of RTs

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6
Q

What are the Standards of Ethics

A

Code of Ethics and Rules of Ethics.

Describes professional values that translate into practice

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7
Q

What is the Code of Ethics

A

10 statements that serve as a professional behavior guide for RT

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8
Q

What are the rules of ethics

A

22 rules that are mandatory standards of minimally acceptable professional conduct

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9
Q

Who performs extended patient care activities, select radiographic procedures, and initial image observations

A

RA - Radiologist Assistant

RPA - Radiology Practitioner Assistant

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10
Q

Radiographer is responsible for in the examination room

A

Keeping the room and all equipment clean, prepare room prior to patient arrival

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11
Q

who provides directives for infection control

A

CDC

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12
Q

What is standard precaution

A

Treating every patient as if they have an infectious disease. Avoid cross contamination.

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13
Q

What is the easiest and most convenient way T prevent the spread of microorganisms

A

Hanndwashing

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14
Q

What should you do with every patient before you start any procedure

A

Explain the procedure and obtain patient clinical history

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15
Q

What are the three types of motion

A

Involuntary, voluntary and equipment

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16
Q

Heartbeat, chills, peristalsis, tremor, spasm, and pain are called

A

Involuntary motion

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17
Q

Nervousness, discomfort, excitability, mental illness, fear, age, and breathing are what type of motion

A

Voluntary motion

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18
Q

How do you control involuntary motion

A

Short exposure time

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19
Q

How do you control voluntary motion

A

Clear instructions, patient comfort, support devices, and immobilizations
If that doesn’t work use decreased exposure time.

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20
Q

What receives the energy of the X-ray bean and forms the image of the body part

A

Image receptor

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21
Q

Four types of image receptor

A

Solid state digital detector
Photostimuable storage phosphor image plate (PSP IP)
Fluoroscopic image receptor
Cassette with film

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22
Q

Used to ensure a body part remains in the appropriate posture during the exposure

A

Positioning aids

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23
Q

Reduces scattered radiation to the IR

A

Grids

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24
Q

Results in more uniform image brightness due to varied tissue thickness and part density

A

Compensating filters

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25
Q

Radiographers can control prime technical factors. What are they

A
Milliamperage (mA)
Kilovolt Peak (kVp)
Exposure time (seconds)
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26
Q

Three general IR position

A

Lengthwise, crosswise and diagonal

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27
Q

What IR position is the most common (lengthwise, crosswise or diagonal)

A

Lengthwise

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28
Q

The central or primary beam of the ray is

A

Central Ray (CR)

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29
Q

Why would you angle the central ray through the part of interest

A
  • Avoid superimposition
  • Straighten out a curved structure
  • Align the central ray through an angles joint space
  • avoid distortion of an angled structure
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30
Q

SID

A

Source to image receptor distance

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31
Q

The stance from the anode inside the X-ray tube to the image receptor

A

SID

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32
Q

What does SID affect

A

Magnification
Spatial resolution
Patient dose

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33
Q

Longer SID does what

A

Reduces magnification and increases spatial resolution

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34
Q

What SID is used on most examinations

A

40 inches traditionally. 44-48 inches now.

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35
Q

What SID is used on examinations with increased OID to reduce magnification

A

72 inches

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36
Q

What SID is used for c spine, heart & chest

A

72 inches

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37
Q

What are the ranges for SID

A

30 inches to 120 inches - 40 inches is the recommended minimum unless specified

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38
Q

SSD stand for

A

Source to skin distance

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39
Q

Distance between anode inside X-ray tube to the patients skin

A

SSD - source to skin distance

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40
Q

What does SSD affect

A

Dose to the patient

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41
Q

SSD should not be less than ___ inches but Cannot be less than ____ inches

A

15 inches

12 inches

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42
Q

OID stand for

A

Object to image receptor distance

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43
Q

The restriction of the radiation field to irradiate only the anatomy of interest

A

Collimation

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44
Q

What is the purpose of collimation

A

Minimize patient exposure

Reduce scatter radiation

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45
Q

Used to provide a black background around a collimated exposure field

A

Shuttering

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46
Q

What does shuttering result in

A

Increased patient dose
Overexposure
Creates legal and ethical liability

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47
Q

When do you NOT place your anatomic markers

A

After image acquisition. Must be placed during image taking due to the potential for error

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48
Q

Image recorded by exposing any of the image receptors to X-rays

A

Radiograph

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49
Q

What does the radiographer evaluate a radiograph for?

A

Acceptability of image features
Proper radiation safety practices
Whether the objectives have been met

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50
Q

X-rays should always be viewed in what position

A

Anatomic position - excluding hands, fingers, wrists, feet & toes

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51
Q

How are hands, feet, etc viewed as a radiograph

A

With distal ends toward the ceiling

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52
Q

What is the required information on all radiographs

A

Date
Patients name or ID number
Right or Left marker
Institution name

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53
Q

What is obesity defined by

A

BMI body mass index

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54
Q

What is used to determine if a patient is too large to perform a examination

A

Body diameter and weight

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55
Q

What are equipment considerations to take whenever it comes to patient size

A

Radiograph table weight limited

Max diameter on machines (Fluoro, MRI, CT)

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56
Q

Transportation considerations to think about when it comes to an obese patient

A
  • Larger wheelchair and stretchers
  • Risk to injury to staff during movement and positioning
  • power lifts
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57
Q

What is key in all imaging procedures

A

Communication

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58
Q

Empathetic communication is essential - avoid mentioning ____ & explain ___

A

Their weight

Personnel required to safely move/transfer the patient

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59
Q

What are not accessible in the morbidly obese

A

Most palpable landmarks

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60
Q

What do you locate instead in an obese patient

A

Jugular notch - measure down based on patient height

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61
Q

Term applied to the science of the structure of the body

A

Anatomy

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62
Q

Study of the function of the body organs

A

Physiology

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63
Q

Study of the body of knowledge relating to the bones

A

Osteology

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64
Q

Divides body into left & right sections

A

Sagittal plane

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65
Q

Divides body into front and back sections

A

Coronal plane

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66
Q

Divides body into top and bottom sections

A

Horizontal plane

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67
Q

Divides body into two sections at any angle

A

Oblique plane

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68
Q

Transects the body at the top of iliac crest (L4)

A

Interiliac plane

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69
Q

Formed by the biting surface of the upper and lower teeth with jaws closed

A

Occlusal plane

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70
Q

Two major body cavities

A

Thoracic and abdominal

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71
Q

Average body build.

A

Sthetic

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72
Q

Overly Slender & tall. Lungs are lower

A

Asthetic

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73
Q

Slender. Harder habitus to diagnose

A

Hyposthetic

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74
Q

Larger. Massive habitus.

A

Hypersthenic

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75
Q

How many bones in the axial skeleton

A

80

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76
Q

How many bones in the appendicular skeleton

A

126

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77
Q

What does the axial skeleton do

A

Supports and protects head & trunk

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78
Q

What does the appendicular skeleton do

A

Allows movement from place to place and various positions

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79
Q

Outer layer of bones are spongy or dense

A

Dense, compact

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80
Q

Inner layer of bone is dense or spongy

A

Spongy, less dense

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81
Q

Primary ossification occurs ___

A

Before birth

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82
Q

Secondary ossification occurs ____

A

After birth whenever desperate bones develops at the end of long bones (epiphysis)

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83
Q

Full ossification occurs ____

A

Near age 21. Epiphyseal line is present instead of plate

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84
Q

Epiphyseal plate

A

Plate of cartilage between two areas of primary and secondary

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85
Q

Bones found in the limbs

A

Long bones

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86
Q

Carpal and tarsal bones are classified as

A

Short bones

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87
Q

Cranium, sternum and scapula are classified as

A

Flat bones

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88
Q

Vertebrae, facial & pelvic bones are classified as

A

Irregular bones

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89
Q

Patella, beneath 1st metatarsal and adjacent to metacarpals

A

Sesamoid bones

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90
Q

Central ray angled towards head

A

Cephalad

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91
Q

Central ray angled towards feet

A

Caudad

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92
Q

Pronate

A

Turn from forward facing to back facing

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93
Q

Supinate

A

Turn from back facing to forward facing

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94
Q

Rotate laterally

A

Turn away central body

95
Q

Rotate medially

A

Turn towards central body

96
Q

Ulnar Deviation

A

Turn away from body

97
Q

Adduct

A

Move toward central axis

98
Q

Abduct

A

Move away from central axis

99
Q

Radial deviation

A

Move towards central body

100
Q

Dorsiflexion

A

Flex up

101
Q

Plantarflexion

A

Flex down

102
Q

Lying on back

A

Supine

103
Q

Lying face down

A

Prone

104
Q

Lying down with a horizontal X-ray beam

A

Decubitus

105
Q

Lying down in any position

A

Recumbent

106
Q

Erect or in a vertical position

A

Upright

107
Q

Upright position sitting down

A

Seated

108
Q

Supine with head tilted downward

A

Trendelenburg position

109
Q

Supine with head higher than the feet

A

Fowler position

110
Q

Recumbent with patient lying on left anterior side with left leg extended and right knee and thigh partially flexed

A

Sims position

111
Q

Supine position with knees and hip flexed and thighs abducted and rotated externally. Supported by ankle or knee supports

A

Lithotomy position

112
Q

Describes the body part as seen by the IR

A

View

113
Q

Supine, prime, erect, seated

A

Body positions

114
Q

Restricted to the path of the central ray

A

Projection

115
Q

Left front shoulder placed on IR

A

LAO

116
Q

Back left shoulder placed on IR

A

LPO

117
Q

Front right shoulder on IR

A

RAO

118
Q

Back right shoulder on IR

A

RPO

119
Q

Pleural membranes is thoracic or abdominal

A

Thoracic

120
Q

Peritoneum is thoracic or abdominal

A

Abdominal

121
Q

Lungs is thoracic or abdominal

A

Thoracic

122
Q

Trachea is thoracic or abdominal

A

Thoracic

123
Q

Liver is thoracic or abdominal

A

Abdominal

124
Q

Gallbladder is thoracic or abdominal

A

Abdominal

125
Q

Esophagus is thoracic or abdominal

A

Thoracic

126
Q

Pancreas is thoracic or abdominal

A

Abdominal

127
Q

Spleen is thoracic or abdominal

A

Abdominal

128
Q

Stomach is thoracic or abdominal

A

Abdominal

129
Q

Pericardium is thoracic or abdominal

A

Thoracic

130
Q

Intestines is thoracic or abdominal

A

Abdominal

131
Q

Kidneys is thoracic or abdominal

A

Abdominal

132
Q

Ureters are thoracic or abdominal

A

Abdominal

133
Q

Major blood vessels are thoracic or abdominal

A

Abdominal

134
Q

Heart and great vessels are thoracic or abdominal

A

Thoracic

135
Q

What is the rectum, urinary bladder and reproductive parts a part of

A

Pelvic portion of the abdominal cavity

136
Q

4 quadrants

A

Right upper
Right lower
Left lower
Left upper

137
Q

What are the 9 regions

A
Left hypochondrium 
Right hupochondrium
Left later
Right later
Left inguinal
Right inguinal
Umbilical
Hypogastrium
Epigastrium
138
Q

What is located at C1

A

Mastoid tip

139
Q

What is located at C2

A

Gonion (angle of mandible

140
Q

What’s located at C4

A

Hyoid bone

141
Q

What’s located at T2,T3

A

Level of jugular notch

142
Q

What’s located at T7

A

Inferior angles of scapulae

143
Q

What’s located at T9,T10

A

Xiphoid process

144
Q

What’s located at L4,L5

A

Iliac crest

145
Q

What’s located at S1

A

Anterior superior iliac spine

146
Q

The study of joints is

A

Arthrology

147
Q

Joints that do not have a joint cavity. Strongest joints in the body & virtually immovable. Connected by fibrous & connective tissues or ligaments.

A

Fibrous joints

148
Q

Immovable joint or slightly movable united by fibrous tissue

A

Syndesmosis

149
Q

Immovable joint occurring only in the skull.

A

Suture

150
Q

Immovable joint occurring only in roots of the teeth

A

Gomphosis

151
Q

Joints that do not have a joint cavity & are virtually immoveable but united by cartilage

A

Cartilaginous joints

152
Q

Slightly movable joint separated by fibrocartilage, made for strength & shock absorbency.

A

Symphysis

153
Q

Immovable joint containing rigid cartilage that unites two bones

A

Synchondrosis

154
Q

Joints that permit wide ranges

A

Synovial joints

155
Q

Uniaxial movement. Permit slight movement usually only one axis.

A

Gliding joint

156
Q

Uniaxial movement. Permits only flexion and extension

A

Hinge joints

157
Q

Uniaxial movement. Allow rotation around a single axis

A

Pivot joints

158
Q

Biaxial movement. Permits movement in two directions at right angles to each other.

A

Elliposoid joints

159
Q

Biaxial movement. Permits move in two axes but named for the bone shaped

A

Saddle joints

160
Q

Multiracial movement. Permits movement on any axis.

A

Ball & socket joints

161
Q

Rounded process at an articular extremity

A

Condyle

162
Q

Beak like or crown like process

A

Coracoid

163
Q

Ridge like process

A

Crest

164
Q

Projection above a condyle

A

Epicondyle

165
Q

Small smooth surfaced process for articulation with another surface

A

Facet

166
Q

Hook shaped process

A

Hamulus

167
Q

Expanded end of a long bone

A

Head

168
Q

Horn like process on a bone

A

Horn

169
Q

Less prominent ridge, a linear elevation

A

Line

170
Q

Club shaped process

A

Malleolus

171
Q

Projecting part or prominence

A

Protuberance

172
Q

Sharp process

A

Spine

173
Q

Long pointed process

A

Styloid

174
Q

Either of two large rounded and elevated processes located at junction of neck and shaft of femur

A

Trochanter

175
Q

Small rounded and elevated process

A

Tubercle

176
Q

Large rounded and elevated process

A

Tuberosity

177
Q

Cleft or deep groove

A

Fissure

178
Q

Hole in a bone for transmission of blood vessels and nerves

A

Foramen

179
Q

Pit fovea or hollow space

A

Fossa

180
Q

Shallow linear channel

A

Groove

181
Q

Tube like passage way running within a bone

A

Meatus

182
Q

Indention into border of the bone

A

Notch

183
Q

Recess groove cavity or hollow space

A

Sinus

184
Q

Furrow trench or fissure like depression

A

Sulcus

185
Q

Fracture does not break skin

A

Closed

186
Q

Serious fracture where bones aren’t aligned

A

Displaced

187
Q

Fracture but bone has normal alignment

A

Nondisplaced

188
Q

Serious fracture where bone is protruding the skin

A

Open

189
Q

Refers to forward or front part of body or organ

A

Anterior - ventral

190
Q

Refers to back part of body or organ

A

Posterior - dorsal

191
Q

Refers to nearer the feet or situated below

A

Inferior

192
Q

Refers to nearer the head or above

A

Superior

193
Q

Refers to middle area or main part of an organ

A

Central

194
Q

Refers to parts at or near the surface, edge, or outside of another body part

A

Peripheral

195
Q

Refers to parts on the opposite side of the body

A

Contralateral

196
Q

Refers to body parts on the same side of the body

A

Ipsilateral

197
Q

Refers to parts far from the surface

A

Deep

198
Q

Refers to parts close to the surface or near the skin

A

Superficial

199
Q

Refers to part farthest from point of attachment or away from the center of the body

A

Distal

200
Q

Refers to parts nearer point of attachment or towards center of body

A

Proximal

201
Q

Refers to parts outside an organ or body

A

External

202
Q

Refers to parts within an organ or body

A

Internal

203
Q

Refers to the wall or lining of the body cavity

A

Parietal

204
Q

Refers to covering of an organ

A

Visceral

205
Q

Refers to top of anterior of foot or back of the hand

A

Dorsum

206
Q

Refers to palm of hand

A

Palmar

207
Q

Refers to sole of the foot

A

Plantar

208
Q

Central ray enters anteriorly and exits posteriorly

A

AP

209
Q

Central ray enters posteriorly and exits anteriorly

A

PA

210
Q

Central ray enters side of the body

A

Lateral

211
Q

Central ray enters anterior surface and exits posterior of a rotated part or body

A

AP oblique

212
Q

Central ray enters posterior and exits anterior of a rotated part or body

A

PA oblique

213
Q

Central ray is angled longitudinally more than 10 degrees

A

Axial

214
Q

Central ray is angled enters anterior exits posterior

A

Axial AP

215
Q

Angled central ray enters posterior and exits anterior

A

Axial PA

216
Q

Angled central ray enters posterior and exits anterior while body is rotated

A

PA axial oblique

217
Q

Angled central ray enters anterior and exits posterior while body is rotated

A

AP axial oblique

218
Q

Central ray is directed to outer margin of a curved body surface to project it free from superimposition

A

Tangential projection

219
Q

Angled central ray exits laterally

A

Axiolateral

220
Q

Angled central ray enters and exits lateral surface while body is rotated

A

Axiolateral oblique

221
Q

Central ray passes through thorax

A

Transthoracic

222
Q

Central ray enters cranial surface of a part and exits caudal surface of a part

A

Craniocaudal

223
Q

Central ray enters inferior surface and exits superior surface

A

Inferosuperir

224
Q

Central ray enters superior and exits inferior

A

Superoinferior

225
Q

Central ray enters bottom of foot and exits top

A

Plantodorsal

226
Q

Central ray enters top of foot and exits bottom

A

Dorsoplantar

227
Q

Central ray passes through a part in a lateral position, enters laterally and exits medially

A

Lateromedial

228
Q

Central ray passes through a part laterally, enters medial and exits lateral surface

A

Mediolateral

229
Q

Have patient lean backwards while upright body positions so the shoulders are in contact with IR

A

Lordotic position

230
Q

Outward turning of foot at ankle

A

Eversion

231
Q

Inward turning of foot at ankle

A

Inversion

232
Q

Circular movement of a limb

A

Circumduction

233
Q

Turn away from regular standard

A

Deviate