Chapter 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is pathophysiology?

A

the study of the disorder or breakdown of the human body’s function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Do immune dieseases affect men or women more?

A

Women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Etiology

A

cause or reason for the event
May include agents, age, gender, health, nutritional status, genetics, etc.
Idiopathic: unknown
Iatrogenic: unintended effect of a medical treatment
May be intrinsic or extrinsic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pathogenesis

A

development and evolution of a disease
Affected by time, quantity, location, and morphologic changes
Clinical manifestations
Includes S/S of the disease, stages of the disease, acute vs. chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Epidemiology

A

patterns of diseases in a group of people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the levels of prevention of disease?

A

Primary: do not have the disease and you are trying to prevent it (e.g., vaccines)
Secondary: disease detection (e.g., Pap smears and yearly physicals)
Tertiary: trying to prevent problems from the disease or problem (e.g., rehabilitation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Microflora

A

the multitude of microorganisms that live on/in the human body in natural balance and do not cause infections. Some are beneficial some have no effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Infectious Disease

A

invasion of microorganisms when only the infecting organism benefits from living in the host and causes sustained injury/illness to the host.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Virulence

A

the disease producing potential of the invading microorganism. How bad is the bug?
local/systemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pathogens

A

a groups of microorganisms with high virulence that are not found in the human body without causing disease.
ex. MRSA, Hep B, C Diff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What can cause opportunistic pathogens to cause infection?

A

Anything that suppresses the immune system (ex. malnutrition, HIV infection, fatigue, chemotherapy antibiotic treatment, pregnancy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Incidence

A

The probability of being diagnosed with a disease at any given time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What influences transmission of diseases among humans?

A

contact either airborne or touch through droplets, inhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Virulence Factors

A

impact how common it will be

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the portals of entry?

A

Penetration, Direct Contact, Ingestion, and Inhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are cellular attributes?

A

Ability to exchange material with their environment
Ability to obtain energy from organic nutrients (electrolytes, pathogens)
Ability to manufacture complex molecules (protein building, wound healing)
Ability to replicate themselves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the 3 major components of eukaryotic cells?

A

Nucleus, Cytoplasm, & Cell Membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why is the nucleus important?

A
important for chromosomal disorders
Contains chromatin and nucleolus
At least one per cell
Control center
Genetic code
Nucleoli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Why is the cytoplasm important?

A

exchange of materials
Place for cell work
Contains water, electrolytes, suspended protein, neutral fats, and glycogen
Contains the organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

3 things about ribosomes

A

Site for protein synthesis
Small particles of nucleoproteins
May be attached to ER or free

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

3 things about Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER)

A

Matrix of paired membranes and vesicles
Tubular communication system
Place where metabolic activity occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the 2 forms of ER?

A

rough and smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does Rough ER do?

A

produce proteins for membranes and lysosomal enzymes

breakdown of proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does Smooth ER do?

A

lipid, lipoprotein, and steroid synthesis; regulation of intracellular Ca, metabolism, and detoxification of hormones and drugs
contraction of muscle bc CA
kidneys and liver detoxied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Golgi apparatus

A
  • site for carb production

- cells in pancreas produce insulin and glycoproteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Lysosomes

A

Break down cell products and foreign bodies to be used again (recycle)
- they require acidic environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Peroxisomes

A
  • control free radicals

- unstable 02 compounds which can cause damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Mitochondria

A

Power plants
Aerobic metabolism—ATP
Number in a given cell varies depending on the cell’s energy needs
Contains own DNA and ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Ischemia

A

inadequate o2 (hypoxia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

cellmembrane

A
Semipermeable
Contains receptors
Involved in electrical conduction
Regulates cell growth and proliferation
Lipid bilayer
Proteins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Pinocytosis

A

Cell drinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

phagocytosis

A

cell eating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

when do pinocytosis and phagocytosis occur?

A

with blood cell diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Where is Na and K primarily?

A

Na- out

K- in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is cell proliferation?

A

when cells divide and reproduce (mitosis and meiosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What happens in mitosis and what are the 4 stages?

A

the cells are replaced

  1. prophase
  2. metaphas
  3. anaphase
  4. telophase
37
Q

What happens in meosis?

A

New sperm and ova join

38
Q

What do meiosis and mitosis help with?

A

skin and would repair

39
Q

What is cell differentiation?

A

Proliferated cells become different and specialized
Begins after fertilization
Generalized to specific

40
Q

Why do cells change shape?

A

they change due to stress, environment, viral, hormonal

41
Q

What is atrophy?

A

a deacrease in workload that causes a decrease in size of organelles that causes a decrease in engergy that causes a decrease in function

42
Q

What is hypertrophy?

A

increase in workload –> increase in size and number of organelles –> increase in contractility –> decrease in function

43
Q

Hyperplasia

A

increase workload –> increase in size and number –> increase in function

44
Q

Metaplasia

A

is pathological and normal cells become abnormal cells through replacement (eg. cancer)

45
Q

Dysplasia

A

is pathological and normal beccome abnormal through mutation (eg. inflammation or virus)

46
Q

how do most diseases start?

A

with cell injury

47
Q

How does cell injury occur?

A

low 02

48
Q

can cell injury be reversible?

A

to a point through compensation and cell renewal

49
Q

What is apoptosis?

A

“programmed suicide” - RBC lifespan 120 days (this is normal)

50
Q

What are causes of cell injury?

A
Physical agents
-Mechanical forces
-Extreme temperature
-Electrical
Radiation
-Ionizing
-Ultraviolet
-Non-ionizing
Chemical
-Poisonings
-Drugs
Biological agents
-Nutritional imbalances
51
Q

What are the mechanisms of injury to cells?

A

ischemia (lack of 02)
necrosis (damage)
free radicals

52
Q

What is neoplasia?

A

New growth (a tumor)

53
Q

What is carcinogenesis?

A

The development of cancer

54
Q

What are the steps in carcinogenesis?

A
  1. Initiation: introduction of the agent
  2. Promotion: Initiation of uncontrolled growth
  3. Progression: permanent malignant changes
55
Q

What are oncogenes?

A

Mutations, active cell divison

56
Q

What are carcinogens?

A

cigs, chemicals, gasoline, sunlight

57
Q

What is benign?

A

Slow, progressive, localized, well defined, resembles host (more differentiated), grows by expansion, does not usually cause death

58
Q

What is malignant?

A

Rapid growing, spreads (metastasis) quickly, fatal, highly undifferentiated

59
Q

What does the capsule of a cell do?

A

Keep the cells together and preventing growth

60
Q

What happens when there is no capsule to a cell?

A

nothing is holding the cells together and invading/spreading begins
-this occurs through blood and lymph

61
Q

What is the acronoym for clinical manifestations of cancer?

A
C: change in bowel or bladder
A: sore that doesn't heal
U: unusual bleeding & discharge
T: Thickening of lump 
I: Indigestion of difficulty swallowing
O: Obvious change 
N: Nagging cough
62
Q

What are the complications of cancer development?

A

Anemia (low Rbcs), Cachexia (emaciated), Fatigue (low RBC, malnutrition), Infection (decrease immune system), Leukopenia (decrease in WBC), Thrombocytopenia (low platelets), Pain

63
Q

What is angiogenesis?

A

Spread to other organs— increase in stage

64
Q

What are the three goals of treatment for cancer?

A
  1. Curative
  2. Pallative
  3. Prophylactic
65
Q

What is curative care?

A

curing the cancer

66
Q

What is pallative care?

A

treat for comfort

67
Q

What is prophylatic?

A

preventing benign growth from removal

68
Q

how many pairs of chromosomes are there?

A

23 pairs

69
Q

What is a single gene disorder?

A

changes in the DNA affect a single protein product (enzyme, receptor protein…) that causes the disorder.
(sickle cell)

70
Q

What is a multiple gene disorder?

A

Rearrangement of chromosomes or abnormal numbers of chromosomes affecting many genes resulting in abnormal development.
(autism)

71
Q

What are alleles?

A

are copies of a gene

72
Q

Facts about autosomal dominant disorders

A

Transmitted from an affected parent to offspring regardless of gender
50% chance of transmission
Unaffected do not pass on the disorder
Delayed onset
Examples: Marfan syndrome and neurofibromatosis

73
Q

Marfan Syndrome

A

-Disorder of connective tissue
-Mutation on chromosome 15
-Mutation combines with other fibrillins and gives rise to microfibrils
-Roles of microfibrils: strength, growth factor release, tissue repair
-Mutation leads to reduced elasticity and excess growth factor release
-Affects eyes, skeleton, and cardiovascular system
-Diagnosis
-History, physical
examination, skin
biopsy (presence of
fibrillin), genetic
testing
-Treatment
-None, palliative

74
Q

Neurofibromatosis

A

-Neurogenic tumors
-Two forms
-Type 1: defect on
chromosome 17;
subcutaneous
lesions, café-au-
lait spots (at least
6 at birth),
freckles, scoliosis,
erosive bone
defects, and
nervous system
tumors
-Type 2: defect on
chromosome 22;
tumors of the
acoustic nerve
-Treatment
-Palliative removal
of tumors

75
Q

facts about autosomal recessive disorders

A
Rare
Both members of gene pair are affected
Affects both genders
One out of four will be affected
Two out of four will be carriers
Onset early
Usually caused by a deficient enzyme
Examples: PKU and Tay-Sachs
76
Q

What is PKU?

A

-Mutation on chromosome 12 leads to an error in converting phenylalanine to tyrosine
-Appears normal at birth then fails to meet milestones
-Progressive neurological decline
-If untreated, can lead to severe intellectual disability
-Diagnosis
-Serum
phenylalanine at 3
days old
-Prenatal
screening:
amniocentesis,
chorionic villus
sampling
-Treatment
-Avoid high protein
foods
-Limited amounts
of starches
-Phenylalanine-
lowering agents
-Gene and enzyme
therapy

77
Q

What is Tay-Sachs?

A

-Progressive disorder due to mutation of hexosaminidase A
-Necessary to
metabolize
certain lipids
-Lipids
accumulate,
destroying and
demyelinating
nerve cells
-Nerve cell
destruction leads
to a progressive
mental and
motor
deterioration
-Most are of Jewish decent
-Three forms: infantile, juvenile, adult (rare)
-Appears normal at birth, then the infant begins to miss milestones
-Progresses to seizures, muscular rigidity, and blindness
-Usually fatal by 5 years of age
-Diagnosis: history, physical examination, and low serum and amniotic hexosaminidase A levels
-No cure
-Genetic counseling suggested

78
Q

Facts about sex linked disorders

A
  • Sex-linked disorders are almost always X linked.
  • Males have a 50% chance of getting the disorder from their mother.
  • Females have a 50% chance of being carriers.
  • All daughters of affected males will be carriers, but none of their sons.
  • Example: Fragile X syndrome
79
Q

What is Fragile X Syndrome?

A
  • Associated with a single trinucleotide gene (FMR1) sequence on the X chromosome, which is repeated > 200 times
  • Plays a role in synapse development
  • Manifestations: long face with large mandible, large ears, large testicles, delayed mental development, learning disabilities, speech delays, connective tissue disorders, behavioral issues, and autism spectrum disorder
80
Q

What are multifactorial inheritance disorders?

A

-Result from an interaction between environmental and genetic factors
-Less predictable
Extremely common
-May be expressed at birth or later
-Examples: cleft lip/palate, clubfoot, congenital dislocation of hips, congenital heart defects, pyloric stenosis, urinary tract malformations, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, cancer, and psychiatric disorders

81
Q

What is cleft lip and palate?

A

-Improper formation of soft tissues of mouth and lips
-Unilateral or
bilateral
deformities lead
to feeding and
nutritional issues
-Maternal
smoking,
diabetes, and
seizure
medication use
(first trimester)
are important
risk factors
-Diagnosis: prenatal ultrasound
-Treatment: surgery, speech therapy

82
Q

Facts about chromosomal disorders

A
  • May be related to abnormality in chromosomal number and/or structure that occurs in meiosis
  • Account for most early miscarriages
  • More than 60 syndromes
  • Most babies wont come to term
83
Q

Aneuploidy

A

change in chromosome number

84
Q

Monosomy

A

one chromosone

85
Q

Polysomy

A

any more than 2 chromosomes

86
Q

trisomy

A

3 chromosomes (eg. down sydrome)

87
Q

Down syndrome

A

Change at chromosome 21 (3 of them)

88
Q

Turner syndrome

A

Just one X at 45

89
Q

Klinefelter Syndrome

A

XXY gives you 47 (1/500 births)