Chapter 1 Flashcards

1
Q

(001) Which level of career field manager (CFM) has the authority to waive Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) requirements?

A

D. Air Force Career Field Manager

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2
Q

(001) Which functional manager assigns collateral responsibility for training, classification, utilization and career development of enlisted Administration personnel?

A

B. Base Level Functional Manager

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3
Q

(002) Which customer service technique focuses on being postured for scheduled tasks that occur frequently?

A

D. Anticipate the need of the customer and exceed their expectations.

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4
Q

(003) What should you ask for that will show that you are being attentive to your customer’s needs?

A

C. Clarification

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5
Q

(004) The easiest way to determine the type of file you are storing is by the file a. extension. b. prefix. c. name. d. size.

A

A. Extension

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6
Q

(005) What program is not an application of the standard enterprise solution software used in the Air Force today? a. Adobe Acrobat. b. Excel. c. Word. d. Outlook.

A

A. Adobe Acrobat

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7
Q

(005) Which Microsoft Word function makes it easier for a user to locate and replace words or phrases in a document? a. Track Changes. b. Merging Documents. c. Search Document. d. Proof Documents.

A

C. Search Document

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8
Q

(005) The four viewing options given for displaying document changes when using the Microsoft Word track changes feature are a. Final and show mark-up, Final, Original and show mark up, Original. b. Final and show mark-up, Final, Original and show mark up, and Signatures. c. Final and show mark-up, Authenticators, Original and show mark up, and Original. d. Final and show mark-up, Final, Original and show mark up, and Original Signature.

A

A. Final and show mark-up, final, original and show mark-up, original

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9
Q

(005) Electronic signatures are effective and easy but should not be used with a a. Word document. b. military decoration. c. merged document. d. memorandum for record.

A

B. Military Decoration

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10
Q

(005) What are the decision quality characteristics of information that are used in databases? a. Accuracy, relevance, timeliness, usability, completeness, brevity, and security. b. Accuracy, relevance, timeliness, comparable, highly detailed, brevity, and security. c. Accuracy, highly detailed, timeliness, usability, completeness, brevity, and security. d. Accuracy, comparable, timeliness, usability, completeness, brevity, and encrypted.

A

A. Accuracy, relevance, timeliness, usability, completeness, brevity, and security

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11
Q

(005) Why would you create a tailored database report for your customers? a. To allow access to the database. b. To maintain data’s integrity. c. To allow data searches. d. To record data structure vulnerabilities.

A

b. To maintain data’s integrity.

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12
Q

(005) While creating a Microsoft Excel spreadsheet, you cannot add what type(s) of content? a. Pivot tables. b. Formula utilization. c. Sorting and filtering data. d. Video clips.

A

d. Video clips.

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13
Q

(005) In Microsoft Excel, which tab is used when performing mathematical calculation? a. Formulas. b. Pivot Table. c. Data Forms. d. Data Consolidate.

A

a. Formulas

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14
Q

(005) When merging documents in Adobe Acrobat Pro, you can merge which types of files into a single document? a. Portable document format (PDF) with PDF. b. Microsoft Word documents with PDF. c. Microsoft PowerPoint documents with PDF. d. Microsoft Excel documents with PDF.

A

a. Portable document format (PDF) with PDF.

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15
Q

(006) Which is an effective method of managing a high volume of e-mail messages in your inbox? a. Creating subfolders. b. Auto deleting messages by date. c. Storing your messages in other outlook profiles. d. Saving all inbox e-mails in .msg format for future reference or use.

A

a. Creating subfolders

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16
Q

(006) E-mail profiles are verified by a. establishing subfolders. b. a .msg file that has a history of members’ profiles. c. certificates that reside on the members’ identification card. d. the .pst file that is created and saved to the individuals account profile only.

A

c. certificates that reside on the members’ identification card.

17
Q

(006) When digitally signing an electronic mail message, the signature indicates the message is a. authentic. b. encrypted. c. authenticated and encrypted. d. official and private.

A

a. authentic

18
Q

(007) Which Microsoft Outlook function generates a pop-up message to alert the user to dismiss or snooze the action? a. Cancel appointments. b. Manage appointments. c. Schedule appointments. d. Appointment reminders.

A

d. Appointment reminders.

19
Q

(008) The main reason to use an IN TURN memorandum is to allow a. addressees to get their own copy. b. the sender to see action office coordination. c. the last action office to see coordination of the sender. d. the final addressee to see the coordination of all addressees.

A

d. the final addressee to see the coordination of all addressees

20
Q

(008) Who has the responsibility to ensure the intended receiver receives the tasking and the tasking is accurate? a. Taskee. b. Tasker. c. Sender. d. Receiver.

A

c. Sender

21
Q

(009) Which collaboration tool is used as an aid when providing content management, distributing information resources in a protective environment? a. Access. b. Outlook. c. SharePoint. d. Task Management Tool.

A

c. SharePoint

22
Q

(009) Which type of SharePoint site is open to all members of the organization for content contribution? a. Team. b. Internal organization. c. External organization. d. Administrative organization

A

b. Internal organization.

23
Q

(009) Which type of SharePoint site grants permissions to users across multiple organizations? a. My site. b. Team site. c. Internal organization site. d. External organization site.

A

b. Team site

24
Q

(009) What type of SharePoint content dictate the overall look and feel of a SharePoint page? a. Links. b. Graphics. c. Dashboard. d. Site Layout.

A

d. Site Layout.

25
Q

(009) Within the SharePoint gallery, which link section contains links to pages where you can modify administrative settings for a site? a. Users and Permissions. b. Galleries. c. Site Administration. d. Site Collection Administrators.

A

c. Site Administration

26
Q

(009) Which SharePoint application is used to build and customize SharePoint sites and data-rich pages? a. Designer. b. Workflow activation. c. Site navigation. d. Site collection features.

A

a. Designer

27
Q

(010) Which Air Force Portal responsibility can deploy content items, topics, and portlets to the production portal? a. Content manager. b. Content publisher. c. Wing/Group/Unit Air Force Portal content manager. d. Major command (MAJCOM) lead content manager.

A

a. Content manager

28
Q

(011) Which network maintains the network bridges that each video teleconference site must use? a. Defense Video Services. b. Integrated Services Digital. c. Defense Information System. d. Program Management Office.

A

c. Defense Information System

29
Q

(011) A unit’s unique video teleconference (VTC) address is called a. Site ID. b. Coder-Decoder (CODEC). c. Certification. d. Accreditation.

A

a. Site ID

30
Q

(012) What type of service is not available when using the Defense Collaboration Services (DCS)? a. Briefing. b. Screen sharing. c. Video teleconference. d. File storage

A

d. File Storage

31
Q

(012) Which is not a Defense Collaboration Services pod that is available for conferences? a. Text chat. b. User comments. c. Video teleconferencing. d. Remote computer access.

A

a. Text Chat