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Terminology, Positioning, and Imaging Principles (ch 1) > chapter 1 > Flashcards

chapter 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The 4 basic types of tissues in the body are:

A

epitheleal, connective, muscular, nervous

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2
Q

What body system synthesizes vitamin D and other biochemicals?

A

digestive

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3
Q

The outer covering of a long bone is called:

A

periosteum

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4
Q

What aspect of long bones is responsible for the production of red blood cells?

A

medullary aspect

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5
Q

What aspect of the long bone is essential for bone growth?

A

periosteum

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6
Q

The primary growth center for long bones is:

A

diaphysis

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7
Q

The secondary growth center for long bones is:

A

epiphysis

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8
Q

The _______ is the wider portion of a long bone in which bone growth in length occurs.

A

metaphysis

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9
Q

What are the 3 functional classifications of joints?

A

synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, diarthrosis

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10
Q

What are the 3 structural classifications of joints?

A

fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial

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11
Q

Examples of fibrous joints are:

A

roots around teeth, skull surtures, distal tibiofibular joint

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12
Q

Examples of cartilaginous joints are:

A

epiphyses, intervertebral disk space, symphysis pubis

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13
Q

Examples of synovial joints are:

A

first carpometacarpal of thumb, proximal radioulnar joint, interphalangeal joints, hip joints

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14
Q

What are the 7 types of movement for synovial joints?

A

plane (gliding), ginglymus (hinge), pivot (trochoid), ellipsoid (condylar), saddle (sellar), ball and socket (spheroidal), bicondylar

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15
Q

What body type makes up 35% of the population?

A

hyposthenic

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16
Q

5% of the population has a ______ body type

A

hypersthenic

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17
Q

A plane taken at right angles along any point of the longitudinal axis of the body is the ______ plane

A

transverse

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18
Q

What term describes the bending of a part outward?

A

varus

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19
Q

In “ACE”, “A” stands for:

A

announce your name

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20
Q

In “ACE”, “C” stands for:

A

communicate your credentials

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21
Q

What are the 2 rules or principles for determining positioning routines as they relate to the maximum number of projections required in a basic routine?

A

A. a minimum of 2 projections 90 degrees for each other B. a minimum of 3 projections when joints are in the prime interest area

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22
Q

The radiographic analog image is composed of metallic _______ on a polyester base.

A

silver

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23
Q

What are the 4 image quality factors for film-based radiographic images?

A

density, contrast, spatial resolution, distortion

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24
Q

The range of exposure over which a film produces an an acceptable image is the definition for:

A

exposure latitude

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25
Q

When analog images, using manual technique settings, are underexposed or overexposed, a minimum change is mAs of _______ is required to make a visible difference in the radiographic density.

A

25% to 30%

26
Q

What are 3 common types of compensating filters?

A

wedge, trough, boomerang

27
Q

Situation: A radiograph of the foot is produced using conventional analog image receptors. The resulting radiograph demonstrates too little density and must be repeated. The original exposure was 5 mAs. What mAs is needed to correct the density on this radiograph?

A

10 mAs

28
Q

Situation: A radiograph of the hand is underexposed and must be repeated. The original technique used was 55 kvp with 2.5 mAs. The technologist decides to keep the mAs at the same level but to change the kvp to increase radiographic density. How much of an increase is needed in kvp to double the density?

A

8- to 10- kvp increase

29
Q

The lack of visible sharpness is called:

A

blur

30
Q

What are the 4 primary controlling factors of distortion?

A

OID, SID, object IR alignment, CR placement

31
Q

Digital processing involves the systematic application of highly complex mathematical formulas called:

A

algorithms

32
Q

Exposure latitude with digital imaging is ______ when compared with analog imaging.

A

wider

33
Q

What are the 6 image quality factors to evaluate a digital image?

A

brightness, contrast, spatial resolution, distortion, noise, exposure indicator

34
Q

What are 2 pixel sizes used in digital imaging?

A

aquisition pixel size, display pixel size

35
Q

Which of the 2 pixel sizes is most critical in maintaining high-resolution digital images?

A

aquisition pixel size

36
Q

The current range of spatial resolution for digital radiographic imaging systems is between:

A

2.5 and 5.0 1p/mm

37
Q

A numeric value that is representative of the exposure that the digital image receptor receives is termed the:

A

exposure indicator

38
Q

What are the 4 factors that affect the exposure indicator in the digital image?

A

mas, kvp, total area irradiated, objects exposed

39
Q

A random disturbance that obscures clarity is the definition for:

A

noise

40
Q

Increasing brightness along margins of structures to increase the visibility of the edges is termed:

A

edge enhancement

41
Q

Reversing the dark and light pixel values of an image is:

A

invert image

42
Q

What are thye 3 components of a PSP-CR system?

A

IP, IP reader, tech work station

43
Q

What is the formula for converting cm to in?

A

cm divided by 2.54

44
Q

The electronic transmission of diagnostic imaging studies is termed:

A

teleradiography

45
Q

The _____ receptor is made with amorphous selenium

A

FPD_TFT

46
Q

Series of “boxes” that give form to the image:

A

display matrix

47
Q

Range of exposure intensities that produce an acceptable image:

A

exposure latitude

48
Q

The user adjusting the window level and window width:

A

windowing

49
Q

Respresentative of the number of shades of gray that can be demonstrated by each pixel:

A

bit depth

50
Q

Which radiation unit is used to measure the amount of ionizations created in air?

A

Roentgen

51
Q

Which unit of measurement is used to describe patient dose?

A

gray

52
Q

______ dose allows comparisons of the relative risk from various imaging procedures.

A

effective

52
Q

What is the SI unit for Roentgen

A

c/kg of air

53
Q

What is the SI unit for rad?

A

Gy

54
Q

What is the SI unit for rem?

A

Sv

55
Q

Personnel monitoring devices must be worn if there is a possibility of acquiring ____% of the annual occupational effective dose limit.

A

10

56
Q

What are the 2 most common metals used for added filtration?

A

aluminum and copper

57
Q

Gonad shields absorb ____ of the primary beam in the 50- to 100- kvp range.

A

95% to 99%

58
Q

What is the federally set limit for exposure rates for intensified fluoroscopy units?

A

10 R/min

59
Q

What area shield is used for a sterile procedure?

A

shadow

60
Q

In high-level fluoroscopy mode, the exposure rate measured at tabletop cannot exceed:

A

20 R/min

61
Q

The average exposure rate for fluoroscopy equipment is:

A

1 to 3 R/min

Terminology, Positioning, and Imaging Principles (ch 1) (4 decks)

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