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Biology 225 > Chapter 1 > Flashcards

Chapter 1 Flashcards

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AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Name the Key Events of Animal Development. (4)

A

Fertilization, Cleavage, (Blastula), Gastrulation, Organogenesis

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2
Q

A mature haploid male or female germ cell

A

Gamete

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3
Q

Fusion of male and female gametes to form a zygote.

A

Fertilization

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4
Q

Rapid mitotic cell division of the zygote that begins immediately after fertilization.

A

Blastulation (cleavage

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5
Q

A serious of cell and tissue movements in which the blastula-stage embryo folds inward, producing a three-layered embryo, the (Germ layers form).

A

Gastrulation

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6
Q

Process by which cells continue to differentiate, producing organs from the three embryonic germ layers.

A

Organogenesis

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7
Q

Process of increasing in physical size

A

Growth

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8
Q

A type of cleavage in which the very little yolk is evenly distributed when division occurs (sparse yolk, evenly distributed)

A

Isolecithal

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9
Q

When the yolk is evenly distributed it is called?

A

Isolecithal

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10
Q

An egg that has yolk of intermediate size and strongly concentrated at the vegetal pole (moderate amount of yolk at one end of the egg).

A

Mesolecithal

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11
Q

A Moderate amount of yolk at one end of the egg).

A

Mesolecithal

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12
Q

Dense yolk throughout most of the cell is called?

A

Telolecithal

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13
Q

A lot of yolk at one end of the egg is called?

A

Telolecithal

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14
Q

A type of cleavage in which there is complete division of the egg, as in eggs having little yolk

A

Holoblastic cleavage

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15
Q

Eggs having little yolk (Type of Cleavage)

A

Holoblastic cleavage

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16
Q

What animal has a little amount of yolk in their eggs? and has what type of cleavage?

A

Sea Urchin (Holoblastic)

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17
Q

What animal has a moderate amount of yolk in their eggs? and it is?

A

Frogs (Mesolecithal)

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18
Q

A type of cleavage in which there is incomplete division of yolk-rich egg (partial cleavage; too much yolk

A

Meroblastic cleavage

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19
Q

Partial cleavage; too much yolk is called?

A

Meroblastic cleavage

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20
Q

What is developed first in Protostomes?

A

Mouth

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21
Q

What type of cleavage and development is found in Protostomes?

A

Spiral Cleavage and Mosaic Development

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22
Q

What is developed first in Deuterostomes?

A

Anus

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23
Q

What type of Cleavage and Development is found in Deuterostomes?

A

Radial Cleavage and Regulative Development

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24
Q

What type of Cleavage is called when new cells are directly placed on top of each other?

A

Radial Cleavage

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25
Q

What type of Cleavage is called when new cells are tightly packed on one another in furrows?

A

Spiral Cleavage

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26
Q

What type of development is it called when it depends on agents such as transcription factors being placed locally in the egg by the mother?

A

Mosaic Development

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27
Q

What type of Development depends on in part of long-range gradients of positional information?

A

Regulative Development

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28
Q

Sea Star Gastrulation type is? and the type of cleavage

A

Isolecithal (Sparse Yolk that is evenly distributed) and Holoblastic

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29
Q

The Frog Gastrulation is? (2)

A

Mesolectal (Moderate amount yolk evenly distributed) Holoblastic.

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30
Q

The Formation of coelom by splitting the mesodermal embryonic tissue is called?

A

Schizocoelous

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31
Q

The Formation of coelom from pouches “pinched” off of the archenteron

A

Enterocoelous

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32
Q

The formation of the nervous system from the ectoderm is called?

A

Neurulation

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33
Q

Describe the Three Steps of Neurulation.

A
  1. Ectoderm thickens to form neural plate
  2. Edges rides and join to form tube – enlarges (anteriorly = brain) (posteriorly = spinal cord)
  3. Crest cells (PNS), guidance cells from the neuron and target guide neuron growth
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34
Q

The derivates in vertebrates are the muscular, skeletal, cardiovascular, and reproductive systems.

A

Mesoderm

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34
Q

What derivates in vertebrates are the epidermis and nervous system.

A

Ectoderm

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34
Q

The derivates in vertebrates are the lining of the digestive and respiratory system

A

Endoderm

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35
Q

Describe the 1st Spemann experiment

A

Experiment 1 – Hair splits grey crescent — 2 embryos form

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36
Q

Describe the 2nd Spemann experiment

A

Experiment 2 – Splits the grey crescent in half pushing it on one side and only 1 embryo forms

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37
Q

Describe the 3rd Spemann experiment

A

Experiment 3 – transferred dorsal lip to salamander embryo, formed 2 attached embryos

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38
Q

How does a Contractile Vacuole work?

A

The contractile vacuole contracts to expel its contents outside of the cell. It then returns to its normal stage and refills with water and repeats the process as necessary.

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39
Q

(animals splits into 2 equal offspring)and what is the reproduction?

A

Asexual

Binary Fission

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40
Q

Budding is what type of reproduction? With Definition

A

Asexual, (offspring arises as an outgrowth from the parent and is initially smaller than the parent)

41
Q

In some single-celled eukaryotes in which the nuclei divide more than once before cytokinesis occurs? and is what type of reproduction?

A

Asexual, Multiple Fission

42
Q

Conjugation is what type of reproduction? With Definition?

A

Sexual, temporary union of 2 ciliate protozoa while they are exchanging chromatic material and undergoing nuclear phenomena resulting in binary fission

43
Q

What is Euglenozoa?

A

Microtubules under cell membrane that stiffen it (pellicle)

44
Q

Types of Euglenozoa include?

A

Trypanosoma brucei & euglena

45
Q

Dinoflagellata have?

A

Typically with 2 flagella

46
Q

Apicomplexa is what type of Parasite? and Cause what type of disease?

A

endoparasite, Toxoplasma

47
Q

Ciliophora is a?

A

Multinucleate

48
Q

What type of Protozoan has a Macro – metabolic function, micro – sexual repro), lots of cilia, some with trichocytes / toxicysts (release threads (some with poison)) ex. Paramecium

A

Ciliophora

49
Q

What has a Broad extensions used for locomotion and engulfing food? Axopodia or Lobopodia?

A

Lobopodia

50
Q

What has a thin extensions supported by microtubules? Axopodia or Lobopodia?

A

Axopodia

51
Q

An organism that makes its own food; self-feeder.

A

Autotroph

52
Q

An organism deriving its nutritional requirements from complex organic substances; another feeder

A

Heterotroph

53
Q

Heterotrophs that feed by ingesting particles (phagocytosis) is called?

A

Osmotroph

54
Q

Trypanosoma brucei causes what disease? and the Vector?

A

African sleeping sickness; transmitted by the tsetse fly

55
Q

Entamoeba histolytica cause what disease? and the Vector?

A

Causes amebiasis; transmitted via ingestion of cystic form of protozoa

56
Q

Provide an essential trophic linkage between the pelagic realm and deep sea, particularly and benthos

A

Foraminifera’s

57
Q

Toxoplasma cause what disease? and the Vector?

A

A parasite of cats that can cause toxoplasmosis; via infected cat feces or undercooked food/ drinking infected water

58
Q

Giardia cause what symptom? and the Vector?

A

Can cause severe diarrhea; caused by drinking water/eating food that is contaminated

59
Q

Plasmodium cause what disease? and the Vector?

A

Causes malaria; transmitted by mosquitos

60
Q

What moves in a power stroke and recovery stroke sequence? Cilium or Flagellum?

A

Cilium

61
Q

What moves by undulates (wave like)
Cilium or Flagellum?

A

Flagellum

62
Q

The capacity of some cells to evoke a specific developmental response in other cell is called?

A

Induction

63
Q

Sensory nerves are? and are part of the?

A

Afferent, Central Nervous System

64
Q

Neurons that carry incoming information from the sensory receptors to the brain and spinal cord are what type of nerves?

A

Sensory

65
Q

Motor nerves are?

A

Efferent

66
Q

Neurons that carry outgoing information from the central nervous system to the muscles and glands are what type of neutrons?

A

Motor

67
Q

Neurons-
Central nervous system neurons that internally communicate and intervene between the sensory inputs and motor outputs are?

A

Interneurons

68
Q

Parts of a Neuron-

Receive info from several different sources at once; often profusely branched is?

A

Dendrites

69
Q

Parts of a Neuron-

Carries the signal away from the cell body; often covered with myelin sheaths

A

Axon

70
Q

Parts of a Neuron-

Contains the nucleus

A

Cell body

71
Q

Axons originating from different parts of the nervous system that lead to the same neuron exhibit convergence
are Covergent or Divergent?

A

Convergent

72
Q

Control + conscious control -> contract diaphragm is a example of what type of processing?
Convergent or Divergent

A

Convergent

73
Q

Impulses leaving a neuron from a neuronal pool exhibit divergence by reaching other neurons. Impulses originating from a sensory receptor can diverge and reach the central nervous system, where it is processed and acted upon.Is Divergent or Convergent

A

Divergent

74
Q

Stepping on a nail -> withdrawal foot, shout something, balance on one foot. Is a example of Divergent or Convergent processing?

A

Divergent

75
Q

What type of Stimuli that make neurons generate an impulse is called?

A

Excitatory stimuli

76
Q

Stimuli that make neurons less likely to generate an impulse is called?

A

Inhibitory stimuli

77
Q

Triggering an action potential in a neuron from one or more presynaptic neurons; simultaneous stimulation by several presynaptic neurons; postsynaptic neuron fires is called?

A

Spatial summation

78
Q

Summation of graded potentials originates from one presynaptic or when the signals overlap and reach a postsynaptic neuron; high frequency stimulation by one presynaptic neuron; postsynaptic neuron fires is called?

A

Temporal summation

79
Q

Spinal cord of vertebrates-

3 layers of membrane surrounding the spinal cord is called?

A

Meninges

80
Q

Spinal cord of vertebrates-

Contains the cell bodies of motor neurons and interconnecting interneurons is called?

A

Gray matter

81
Q

Spinal cord of vertebrates-

Contains bundles of axons and dendrites linking different levels of the cord with each other and the brain is called?

A

White Matter

82
Q

Brain-

What part of the brain controls the heart rate and respiration (subconscious)

A

Medulla

83
Q

Brain-

What part of the brain controls the Motor control in equilibrium, posture, movement (error control) does not initiate signal but fine tunes them?

A

Cerebellum

84
Q

Brain-

What part of the brain Sets thirst, hunger, and body temperature?

A

Hypothalamus

85
Q

Brain-

What part of the brain controls higher brain functions such as thought and action?

A

Cerebrum

86
Q

Brain-

What part of the brain controls info and control of right side; language, math, sequential, and thought?

A

Left hemisphere

87
Q

Brian-

What part of the brain controls info and control of left side – spatial, musical, artistic, and intuitive?

A

Right hemisphere

88
Q

What Deactivates or slows down activities of muscles and glands (rest-and-digest response), slowing down of heart rates, pupillary constriction?

Parasympathetic or Sympathetic nervous system

A

Parasympathetic nervous system

89
Q

What nervous system is a subdivision of the autonomic nervous system that activates nerves, glands, and visceral muscles in times of stress or threat (prepares the body for action), fight or flight?

Parasympathetic or Sympathetic nervous system

A

Sympathetic nervous system

90
Q

Neurotransmitter and receptors-
Ach and Norepinephrine are excitatory or Inhibitory?

A

Excitatory

91
Q

Neurotransmitter and receptors-
Is GABA Inhibitory or Excitatory?

A

Inhibitory

92
Q

What type of Reflex has no thinking involved?

A

Reflex Arc

93
Q

What are the divisions of the Peripheral Nervous System?

A

Motor, Sensory

94
Q

What are the divisions of the Somatic Nervous system?

A

Skeletal, Muscles, cell bodies

95
Q

Autonomic (ANS) Include what Nervous System?

A

Parasympathetic and Sympathetic

96
Q

What determines the AP generated at the Hillock on a Neuron?

A

The net balance of Excitatory and Inhibitory Neurotransmitters

97
Q

In the Parasympathic Ganglion where is Acetochloine is released?

A

Pre

98
Q

In the Sympathetic Ganglion where is Ach

A

Pre and Post

99
Q

What disease causes immotile cilia in the lining of the respiratory tract?

A

Ciliary Dyskinesia

100
Q

What disease is a Defective Gene that causes a thick buildup of mucus in the lungs, the mucus clogs the airways and traps bacteria leading to infections, extensive lung damage, and eventually respiratory failure

A

Cystic Fibrosis

101
Q

What disease causes less airflow in and out of the airways because the airways and air sacs lose their elastic quality, and the walls between many of the air sacs are destroyed, the walls of the airways become thick and inflamed, and/or the airways make more mucus than usual, which can clog them

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

Biology 225 (6 decks)

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