CHAPT 1 &2 SLEF TEST Flashcards

1
Q

what elevates the diaphragm and abdominal viscera, shortens the lung fields, depresses the sternum, and lowers the ribs and increases their angle near the spine

A

experation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what depresses the diaphragm and abdominal viscera, lengthens and expands the lung fields, elevates the sternum and pushes it anteriorly, and elevates the ribs

A

inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which factors will minimize distortion

A

SID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

when imaging an obese patient, which landmarks are difficult to palpate

A

anterior-superior iliac spine (ASIS)
iliac crest
greater trochanter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

based on the exterior dimensions of obese patients, larger IR’s are needed to image these patients true or false

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A PA projection radiograph of the hand should be displayed:

A

from the perspective of the xray tube and with the fingers pointing upward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

who is responsible for obtaining a necessary clinical history when the radiologist is unable to see the patient

A

radiographer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

to dispose of a hypodermic needle properly, it should be:

A

placed in a puncture- proof container

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which of the following technical factors is most important to adjust and increase when imaging an obese patient

A

kVp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

within the OR, who should remove sterile items that are in the way of the radiographer

A

circulating nurse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

to prepare the patient for a radiographic examination of the abdomen, what are the three methods used for cleansing the patient’s bowel

A

limited diet, laxatives, and enamas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which type of muscle tissue produces peristalis

A

smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which type of muscle tissue comprises skeletal muscle

A

striated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which pathologic condition requires a decrease in exposure factors from the routine procedure

A

emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which change in exposure factors should be used to control voluntary motion that is a result of the patient’s age or mental illness

A

decrease the exposure time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which procedure best reduces the possibility of patient-controlled motion

A

give understandable instructions to patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which side marker placement rule applies when performing an AP oblique radiograph of the cervical spine

A

always mark the side closest to the IR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which piece of information is not required as part of the identification of radiographs

A

name of the radiographer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the primary purpose of collimating to the area of interest

A

reduces patient exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how is radiograph image quality affected when the radiation field is restricted to the area under examination only

A

increased radiographic contrast resolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which would cause an artifact on a chest radiographic exam

A

bra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which change most improves spatial resolution when the sternum is imaged

A

increasing the SID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

most common IR position

A

lengthwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

which computed radiography accessory houses the image storage phosphors that acquire the latent image

A

imaging plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the IR in direct digital radiography

A

solid-state detector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

when using a fixed, large IR how is collimation (field size) controlled

A

manually by the radiographer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

reasons to avoid using electronic side marker placement (annotation) in digital imaging include:

A

increased potential for errors in marking the correct side and increased legal implications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

the knowledge, skills, ability, and behaviors that are essential for providing optimal care to defined groups of patients is termed:

A

age-specific competence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

when imaging obese patients, all of the following should be taken into consideration except for:

A

selecting larger IR sizes and larger collimation settings for DR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

the approximate distance from the jugular notch to the pubic symphysis on a patient who is more than 6 feet tall is

A

24 inches (61 cm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

maintains radiography practice standards

A

ASRT

32
Q

maintains the standard of ethics

A

ARRT

33
Q

describe necessary education and certification

A

ARRT

34
Q

radiographer scope of practice can be found on their website

A

ASRT

35
Q

provides directives for infection control

A

centers for disease control and prevention (CDC)

36
Q

term that refers to the study of the function of the body organs

A

physiology

37
Q

four fundamental body planes

A

sagittal, coronal, horizontal, oblique

38
Q

plane divides the body into equal right and left halves

A

midsagittal

39
Q

two great cavities of the torso

A

thoracic and abdominal

40
Q

what body structure is located within the thoracic cavity

A

heart

41
Q

in which quadrant of the abdomen is the appendix located

A

right lower quadrant (RLQ)

42
Q

which region of the abdomen is located below the umbillical cord

A

hypogastrium

43
Q

which vertebrae is located at the level of the xiphoid process

A

T10

44
Q

which body habitus represents a person of large, massive stature in whom the stomach is located high and nearly horizontal within the abdomen

A

hypersthenic

45
Q

excluding small sesamoid and accessory bones, in the skull, how many bones compromise the skeleton

A

206

46
Q

which structure belongs to the axial skeleton

A

skull

47
Q

which bone has a medullary cavity

A

tibia

48
Q

bones are classified according to their

A

shape

49
Q

which bone classifications are vertebrae

A

irregular

50
Q

which bone classification is trapezium

A

short

51
Q

which bone classification consists largely of compact cortex tissue in the form of two plates that enclose a layer of diploe

A

flat

52
Q

term refers to the study of joints

A

arthrology

53
Q

which structural classification of articulations refers to joints that have only limited or slight movement

A

cartilaginous

54
Q

which functional classification of articulations are synovial joints

A

diarthroses

55
Q

which structural classification of articulations are cranial sutures

A

fibrous

56
Q

which type of movement occurs in a hinge joint

A

flexion and extension

57
Q

which of the following joints is an example of an ellipsoid joint

A

metacarpophalangeal

58
Q

term refers to a long, pointed process

A

styloid

59
Q

which term for a depression refers to a hole in a bone through which blood vessels and nerves pass

A

foramen

60
Q

term refers to a fracture in which a broken bone projects through the skin

A

open

61
Q

body part on the opposite side of the body

A

contralateral

62
Q

path of the central xray

A

projection

63
Q

refers to a general body position

A

recumbent

64
Q

movement of a body part away from the central axis of the body

A

abduction

65
Q

plural form for diagnosis

A

diagnoses

66
Q

body position describes the patient lying face down on the radiographic table

A

prone

67
Q

which plane is positioned at a right angle to the sagittal and coronal planes

A

horizontal

68
Q

vertebrae that is located at the level of the inferior angles of the scapula

A

T7

69
Q

vertebrae is located at the level of the iliac crest

A

L4

70
Q

body habitus represents a person with organs and characteristics that are intermediate between sthenic and asthenic body habitus types and is the most difficult to classify

A

hyposthenic

71
Q

term used when the central ray enters the anterior surface and exits the posterior surface of a part

A

AP

72
Q

what projection results from a ventral or dorsal decubitus position

A

lateral

73
Q

what projection is obtained when the patient is in a RAO position

A

AP oblique

74
Q

term is applied when the central ray is angled more than 10 degrees

A

axial

75
Q

term refers to a recumbent position with a horizontal central ray

A

decubitus