Chap 9-12 Study Guide Flashcards
1
Q
The gland that produces thymosin is the?
A
Thymus
2
Q
The gland that produces melatonin is the ?
A
Pineal Gland
3
Q
Te gland at produces testosterone is the ?
A
Testes
4
Q
The gland that produces insulin and glucogon is the ?
A
Pancreas
5
Q
The gland that acts as an antagonist to the thyroid gland is the ?
A
Parathyroid Gland
6
Q
The gland that hangs from a stalk from the hypothalamus is the ?
A
Pituitary gland
7
Q
The gland that is the major producer of female hormones is the ?
A
Ovaries
8
Q
The gland that is primarily responsible for body metabolism is the ?
A
Thyroid
9
Q
The gland situated around the thyroid that operates entirely under humoral control is the ?
A
Thymus
10
Q
The hormones that operate by direct gene activation are steroid hormones and __________?
A
Thyroid hormone
11
Q
Hormones that are released in response to changing blood levels are controlled by ___________ stimuli.
A
Humoral
12
Q
The protein hormone released by the anterior pituitary responsible for maitaining milk production in breast feeding females is _______?
A
Prolactin
13
Q
The target organ of thyrotropic stimulating hormone (TSH) is the _________ gland.
A
Thyroid
14
Q
Alcohol surpresses the production of this hormone, ___________, which normally promotes water retention and prevents dehydration.
A
Mineralocorticoids
15
Q
Thyroxine is known by an alternate name, ______, due to the # of iodine atoms it contains
A
T4
16
Q
Calcitonin is made by the ___________ of the thyroid gland.
A
Parafollicular cells
17
Q
Mineralocorticoids regulate the concentration of ________ and ________ ions in our blood.
A
Sodium and Potassium
18
Q
Cortisone and cortisol and types of ________ produced by the middle cortical layer of the adrenal gland.
A
glucocorticoids
19
Q
The enzyme produced by the kidneys when blood pressure drops, which causes the release of aldosterone, is called _________?
A
Renin
20
Q
Male sex hormones produced by the adrenal cortex are called __________ .
A
Androgens
21
Q
Generalized hyposecretion of all adrenal cortex hormones leads to ____________
A
Addison’s disease.
22
Q
Hypersecretion of glutocorticoids, often caused by a tumor results in __________
A
Cushing’s syndrome
23
Q
Another name for Epinephrine is ___________
A
Adrenaline
24
Q
Insulin and glucagon are both hormones that are produced by the _______________.
A
Pancreatic islets
25
glucagon acts as an antagonist to a hormone called _________.
Insulin
26
When blood glucose levels are too high, e beta cells of e pancreas release __________ to decrease levels.
Insulin
27
A hormone called __________ is believed to play an important part in establishing the body's day-night cycle.
melatonin
28
A hormone called __________ plays an important role in incubating a special group of white blood cells.
Thymosin
29
The hormone produced by the male testes which is responsible for sperm production is __________
Androgens
30
Home pregnancy tests check for a hormone in the female's urine called ____________.
Progesterone
31
Which body system produces chemical messengers?
The endocrine system
32
What changes take place during the binding of a hormone to it's target cells
plasma membrane permeability changes, enzymes are activated or inactivated, mitosis is stimulated, proteins are synthesized in the cell.
33
Prostaglandins are ?
lipid hormones manufactured in the cell plasma membranes
34
Because steroids are lipid soluble they can do the following:
diffuse through plasma membranes of target cells, enter the nucleus, bind to receptor proteins within the nucleus, & activate genes to transcribe mRNA for protein synthesis.
35
Most endocrine organs are organs prodded into action by other hormones, this type of stimulus is called:
hormonal stimulus
36
Tropic hormones do what?
Stimulate other endocrine glands to secrete hormones
37
Growth hormone does what?
promotes growth in long bones and skeletal muscles
38
What hormones are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland
Growth hormone, prolactin, Follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, thyroid stimulating hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone
39
The hormone that stimulates follicle development in female overies and sperm development in male testes is _______.
Follicle stimulating hormone
40
Hypersecretion of growth hormone after a long bone has ended (as an adult) growth is called ________
acromegaly
41
Releasing and inhibiting hormones produced by the hypothalumus influence the activities of the ________ and _________.
Adrenal Gland and Thyroid Gland
42
An enlargement of the thyroid gland resulting from a deficiency of dietary iodine is called _______.
Goiter
43
What are functions of oxytocin?
Stimulate uterine contrations, stimulate breast milk production, labor induction, and postpartum bleeding control
44
Diabetes insipidus is caused by hyposecretion of _______
antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
45
What hormone prods the thyroid to release thyroxin?
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
46
Alcohol inhibits the secretion of ________.
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
47
The thyroid is located ____________.
Below the adams apple
48
The body's major metabolic hormone is called _______
Thyroid hormone
49
The element necessary in the diet for proper thyroid function is __________
iodine
50
Hyposecretion of thyroxine in childhood leads to a disease called _________
cretinism
51
What hormones regulate calcium levels in the body?
Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
52
What hormone, released by the heart, prevents aldosterone release in order to lower blood pressure?
Atrial Natriuretic peptide (ANP)
53
What hormones are released by the adrenal medulla?
Epiniphrine and norepiniphrine
54
Rising blood levels of aldosterone cause the kidney tubules to __________
reabsorb sodium
55
Tetany resulting from uncontrolled muscle spasms may indicate a malfunction of the _________
parathyroid glands
56
The enzyme produced by the kidneys when blood pressure drops, stimulating a release of aldosterone is called _________
Renin
57
Glucocorticoids do ____________?
help resist long term stress, increase blood glucose levels, decrease edema, suppress inflammation
58
Hyposecretion of the adrenal cortex hormones results in skin bronzing, feeling burn out and suppression of the immune system. This condition is known as _________.
Addison's disease
59
The flight or fight response is triggered by the release of __________
epinephrine
60
What are sone of the actions of catecholamines?
stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system, increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, increased blood glucose levels
61
Insulin is produced by the cells of the pancreatic islets called _______.
Beta cells
62
What hormone decreases blood glucose?
Glucogon
63
The pancreas is located where?
Close to the stomach
64
The pineal gland produces what hormone?
Melatonin
65
The hormone that appears to help regulate our sleep-wake cycles is ________.
melatonin
66
Estrogens do the following:
stimulate menstruation, help maintain pregnancy, prepares the uterus to receive a fertilized egg.
67
What are some of the effects of testosterone
deepening of the voice, growth of facial hair, sperm production, development of heavy bones and muscles
68
Sex hormones produced by the overies and testes are______
protein hormones
69
The cells in the testes that produce testosterone are called ________.
gonadotropic cells
70
What hormone is produced by the placenta that stimulates the ovaries to continue producing estrogen and progesterone?
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
71
Cholecystokin (CCK) and secretin are two hormones produced by the ________.
duodenum of the small intestine
72
True/False: The study of hormones and endocrine organs is known as immunology
False
73
True/False: All hormones can arouse and bring about changes in all cells of the human body
False
74
True/False: Most hormones are regulated by negative feedback mechanisms.
True
75
True/False: Hormones that are secreted in response to other hormones are prodded by hormonal stimuli.
True
76
True/False: Hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary are actually made by e hypothalamus
False
77
True/False: Hypersecretion of growth hormone during childhood leads to pituitary dwarfism
False
78
True/False: The target of prolactin is the female breast
True
79
True/False: Neurosecretory cells transport oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone to the anterior pituitary gland for storage.
False
80
True/False: Antidiuretic hormone inhibits urine production and promotes water reabsorption by the kidneys
True
81
True/False: Vaspressin in another name for antidiuretic hormone
True
82
True/False: Hyposecretion of FSH or LH leads to sterility in both males and females
True
83
True/False: Thyroid hormone targets all cells of the body
True
84
True/False: Diabetes insipidus is caused by hyposecretion of insulin.
False
85
True/False: Thyroid hormone is actually two iodine- containing hormones called T3 and T4
True
86
True/False: Thyroid hormone is actually two iodine- containing hormones called T3 and T4
True
87
True/False: Thyroid hormone is actually two iodine- containing hormones called T3 and T4
True
88
True/False: Thyroxine is converted to triiodothyronine at target tissues to promote metabolism
True
89
True/False: Calcitonin is produced by the follicular cells of the thyroid gland
False
90
True/False: Parathyroid hormone is the most important regulator of blood calcium concentration
True
91
True/False: Calcitonin is a hormone antagonist to parathyroid hormone in regulation of blood calcium levels
True
92
True/False: Mineralocorticoids help regulate both water and electrolyte balance in the body fluids
True
93
True/False: The adrenal glands are similar to the pituitary gland in that they have both glandular and neural tissue.
True
94
True/False: The adrenal cortex is made up of neural tissue.
True
95
True/False: Glucocorticoids, glucogon, and epiniphrine are hyperglycemic hormones
False
96
True/False: Both male and female sex hormones may lead to masculinization in both men and women
True
97
True/False: Both male and female sex hormones are produced by the adrenal cortex throughout life in relatively small amounts.
True
98
True/False: The adrenal medulla and posterior pituitary are bo composed of nervous tissue
True
99
True/False: Adrenaline is also known as epinephrine
True
100
True/False: Aldosterone raises blood glucose levels throu the breakdown of fats and proteins
False
101
True/False: Melatonin production peaks during the night to help regulate the body's day/night cycle.
True
102
True/False: They thymus gland is located in the neck wrapped around the trachea.
False
103
True/False: The ovaries release estrogen and progesterone in response to gonadotropic hormones from the pituitary gland.
True
104
True/False: The placenta is a temporary organ formed in the uterus of pregnant women.
True
105
Matching Endocrine gland to Hormones:
```
Growth Hormone- Anterior Pituitary
Prolactin- Anterior Pituitary
Adrenocortictropic hormone - Anterior Pituitary
Thyroid Stimulating hormone - Anterior pituitary
Luteinizing hormone- anterior pituitary
Oxytocin - Posterior Pituitary
Antidiuretic hormone- Posterior pituitary
Follicle stimulating hormone- Anterior pituitary
Thyroxine - Thyroid
Calcitonin- thyroid
Parathyroid hormone - parathyroids
Aldosterone- adrenal cortex
Cortisone - adrenal cortex
catecholamines- adrenal medulla
glucocorticoids - adrenal cortex
insulin- pancreatic islets
glucagon- pancreatic islets
melatonin - pineal gland
thymosin- thymus
human chorionic gonadotropin- placenta
```
106
Match action to hormone:
stimulates contraction of the uteris and milk reflex- oxytocin
lowers blood calcium- calcitonin
involved in daily & seasonal bio rhythms - melatonin
stimulates thyroid to produce thyroxine-thyroidstimulating hormone
promotes reabsorption of sodium by kidneys- mineralocorticoids
lowers blood glucose levels- insulin
raises blood glucose, constricts vessels, increase metabolism- glucagon
stimulates testes & ovaries to produce hormones- follicle stimulating hormone
107
Explain 2 major chemical classifications of hormones
There are amino acid based hormones which include proteins, peptides, and amines. These hormones are known as organic substances. The other classification is steroids that are made up of cholesterol. These hormones are known as a chemical substance.
108
Describe 3 types of stimuli that activate endocrine organs
First there are hormonal stimuli which is the most common type. Hormonal stimulis is when the endocrine organs are prodded into action by other hormones. The second stimulus is humoral stemuli which changes blood levels in certain ions and nutrients that will then stimulate hormone release. Last, there are neural stimuliwhich occurs in isolated cases. This stimulus occurs when nerve fibers stimulate hormone release.
109
Explain the pituitary-hypothalamus relationship
The pituitary hangs off of the stalk of the anterior surface of the hypothalamus. The pituitary has two parts, the anterior and the posterior lobes and the hypothalamus is ultimately what allows the 2 sides to communicate
110
Discuss the roles of hormones in maintaining blood calcium levels
There are two hormones that take part in maintaining blood calcium levels. The first hormone is calcitonin which is produced by they thyroid gland. This hormone decreases blood calcium levels by causing calcium to be deposited into the bones. The second hormone is parathormone(parthyroid hormone) which is the most important regulator of blood calcium levels. This hormone is released by the parathyroid glands to stimulate bone estruction in order to break down the bone matrix and release calcium into thr blood
111
Explain the causes and effects of menopause
As women age, the effeciency of the ovaries begins to decline which causes menopause. During menopause the reproductive organs begin to atrophy and women are no longer able to beat children.
112
A child thats extremely small for his age, shows signs of mental retardation, hair is thinning, and had dry skin would probaby have a diagnosis of _____________.
Cretinism
113
Explain why drinking alcohol would be a poor choice for someone who just participated in a strenuous physical activity on a hot day
Because alcohol inhibits the the antidiuretic hormone, which regulates the water content in the blood by inhibiting urine production and causes the kidneys to absorb more water
114
Discuss how renin and angiotensin II help restore low blood pressure to normal
Renin is an enzyme that is produced by the kidneys when blood pressure drops. Renin causes a reaction that forms angiotensin II which in turn is a potent stimulator of aldosterone release. Aldosterone and atrial natriuretic peptide both have an important role in blood pressure and blood volume.
115
If someone has developed Type 2 diabetes des it mean that their pancreas doesn't work at all?
Not exactly, kidney tubules are not reabsorbing glucose fast enough in which glucose spills into the urine.
116
Explain negative feedback and how it regulates blood levels of the various hormones.
Negative feedback is when hormone secretion is triggered by some internal or external stimulus to raise hormone levels. The rising hormone levels inhibit hormone release. Also, blood levels of many hormones vary only within a very narrow range. That is how it regulates blood levels.
117
Explain why not all organs are target organs for all hormones.
In order for a cell to respond to a hormone it must have specific protein receptors on it's plasma membrane or in it's inferior for that hormone to attach and bind. The hormone can only influence the cell when binding occurs
118
Explain how the nervous and endocrine system differ.
The nervous system is built for speed, thus, using nerve impulses to prod muscles and glands into action. The endocrine system uses chemical messengers called hormones which are released in the blood that travels throughout the body.
119
What is the most common cause of hypersecretion of endocrine organs
The most common cause od hyperscretin by the endocrine system is a tumor in the adrenal medulla. The adrenal medulla is part of the sympathetic nervous system so when you are stressed out the adrenal medulla is stimulated which causes the adrenal medulla to literally dump it's hormones into the blood stream.
120
The most common type of leukocyte is a __________.
neutrophil
121
The type of leukocyte that fights allergies and parasitic worms __________.
eosinophil
122
Normal blood pH falls in a range between ____ and ______.
7.35 to 7.45
123
The plasma protein that contributes to osmotic pressure of blood is __________.
Albumin
124
The iron containing protein found in RBC's that transports the majority of oxygen carried in the blood is _________.
Hemoglobin
125
The inherited type of anemia that causes spiky and sharp red blood cells is _________
sickle cell anemia
126
A red blood cell disorder caused by a life at high altitude is called ___________
(Secondary) Polycythemia
127
White blood cells are also called _______
leukocytes
128
Process by which white blood cells travel through the wall of blood vessels is termed ___________
Diapedis (leaping across)
129
Abnormally high levels of white blood cells causes a condition known as __________
Leukemia
130
White blood cells containing granules and lobed nuclei are classified as __________
Granulocytes
131
The stem cell that gives rise to all formed elements is the __________
Hemocytoblast
132
The process by which bleeding is stopped is called __________
Hemostasis
133
A thrombus (clot that develops in an unbroken blood vessel) that has broken away from a vessel wall and is freely floating in e blood stream is called _________
Embolus
134
When antibodies bind to antigens on foreign blood types, clumping or ___________ occurs.
Agglutination
135
The universal donor type that can donate to any blood group type is _____?
O
136
The blood type that contains antigens A and B is ______
AB
137
If you carry the Rh antigen, you are referred to as _______~
Rh+
138
The condition in wuch maternal antibodies cross the placenta and destroy the baby's RBCs is called ______________.
Hemolytic disease of the newborn.
139
The condition in which fetal RBC's are destroyed faster than the liver can rid the body of breakdown products of hemoglobin is called _________.
Physiologic Jaundice
140
The matrix of blood is called _______
Plasma
141
In a centrifuged blood sample, the buffy coat between the formed elements and the plasma contains___________
Leukocytes and platlets
142
What are physical characteristics of blood?
Sticky, opaque, heavier than water, alkaline
143
Hemocrit is e percentage of ________
erythrocytes in the blood
144
What is the most abundant formed element?
erythrocytes
145
Erythrocytes lack a _______ and most ________.
nucleus and most organelles
146
Normal whole blood contains _________ g of hemoglobin per 100mL
12-18
147
Which of the following red blood cell disorders may result from life at a higher altitude
p o l y c y t h e m i a
148
white blood cells differ from red blood cells because they contain_________.
a nucleus and most organelles
149
What red blood cell disorder may result form life at a higher altitude?
polycythemia
150
leukocytosis most likely indicates________
bacterial or viral infection
151
neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are classified as ________
granulocytes
152
what granulocyte produces histamine during the inflammatory response?
basophils
153
the most numerous white blood cells are________.
neutrophils
154
the type of leukocytes thst become macrophages in the tissue are __________.
monocytes
155
Platelets are fragments of multinucleate cells called ________.
megakaryocytes
156
where does hemotopoiesis produce new red blood cells?
red bone marrow
157
Erythropoeitin is a hormone produced by the kidneys in response to low levels of __________.
oxygen
158
The average functional lifespan of a red blood cells (RBC) is ________.
100-120 days
159
An immature RBC which contains some endoplasmic reticulum is called a _________.
reticulocyte
160
The hormone that regulates the rate of erythrocyte production is ___________.
erythropoietin
161
Megakaryocytes pinch off anucleate fragments called ______.
platelets
162
The series of reactions that stop blood flow following a cut is called _______.
coagulation
163
What is the proper sequence of hemostasis
Vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation
164
What chemical is released to bring about vasoconstriction during vascular spasm stage of hemostasis?
Serotonin
165
Blood normally clots in approximately_______ minutes.
3 to 6
166
Formation of an insoluble clot during hemostasis is termed ________.
coagulation
167
What insoluable fiber forms a mesh network and the basis for the formation of a clot during coagulation
fibrin
168
A clot that breaks away from a vessel wall and circulates freely wi thin the blood stream is called ___________.
embolus
169
Hemophilia is a type of what?
Blood clotting disorder
170
Bleeding disorders ofter occur from a lack of what vitamins?
Vitamin K
171
The ion essential for blood clotting is ________?
calcium
172
The organ largely responsible for the synthesis of clotting factor is the ________.
liver
173
Severe shock occurs with blood loss of ________.
Over 30%
174
A substance that stimulates the immune system to release antibodies is termed__________
Antigen
175
Process whereby the binding of antibodies to antigens causes RBCs to clump is called _______.
Agglutination
176
What blood type contains the A antigen only
Blood type A
177
The most common type of blood in the US population is ________
Type O
178
The Universal recepient has blood type________.
AB
179
Hemolysis most likely will occur when ___________.
an Rh negative person receives a second transfusion from a blood that is Rh positive
180
What blood type(s) can a person with type O recieve?
Type O
181
The immune serum used to prevent maternal sensitization to Rh antigens is __________.
RhoGAM
182
Which blood type carries no antigens?
Blood type O
183
Compatibility testing for agglutination of donor RBCs by the recipients serum is called ________.
cross matching
184
Physiologic jaundice occuring in newborns results from _____.
accumulation of destroyed fetal red blood cells
185
True/False: Normal blood pH is between 7.35 and 7.45
True
186
True/False: Blood plasma makes up the majority of blood content.
True
187
True/False: The temperature of blood is slightly lower than body temperature
False (it's 100.4 or 38c)
188
True/False: Leukocytes are more numerous in blood than erythrocytes.
False
189
True/False: Amount of hemoglobin contained within a RBC determines its capacity to transport oxygen.
True
190
True/False: An excessive or abnormal increase in # of erythrocytes in blood is termed amemia.
False (polucythemia)
191
True/False:Basophils are the most numerous type of leukocyte
false (neutrophils)
192
True/False: All formed elements arise froma common type of stem cell called a hemocytoblast.
True
193
Normal blood volume in healthy males is 5-6 liters
True
194
True/False: Erythropoeitin is released to stimulate platelet production in response to inadequate amounts of oxygen in blood.
False (thrombopoietin)
195
True/False: Antigens are substances that body recognize as foreign.
True
196
True/False:A phlebotomist collects and processes blood samples for labratory analysis.
True
197
True/False: Blood type A can receive Blood types A and AB during a transfusion.
False (A & O)
198
True/False: Rh- related problems occur in pregnant Rh- women carrying an Rh positive baby.
True
199
True/False: Universal donors can receive blood groups A, B, AB, and O.
False, (Only O)
200
Excess # of these cells cause leukocytosis
leukocytes
201
Alternate name for white blood cells
leukocytes
202
Type of blood cell that contains a nucleus and organelles
Leukocyte
203
Type of cell that transports carbon dioxide
Erythrocyte
204
Type of cell produced in response to erythropoietin
erythrocytes
205
Cell fragments that form the rupture of megakaryocyte
platelets
206
Immature form of this cell is called a reticulocyte
erythrocyte
207
Type of cell that contains hemoglobin for gas transport
Erythrocyte
208
Most common type of blood cell
erythrocyte
209
type of cell fragment involved in hemostasis
platelets
210
Type of blood that contains no antigens
O
211
Type that possesses the A antigen only
A
212
Type that can only receive blood types B and O
B
213
Blood type that forms the anti A and Anti B antibodies
O
214
Bllod type known as the universal donor
O
215
Blood type known as the universal recipient
AB
216
Discuss why Martina, who has blood type A cannot receive blood type B during a transfusion.
Martina cannot receive blood type B because her and a person with type B each have different antigens in their blood. Martina’s blood (type A) contains A antigens, and type B has B antigens. When the two blood types come together, the antigens in Martina’s blood will recognize the donor’s antigens as foreign. The antigens in Martina’s blood will then produce antibodies that will react with the donor’s blood. Martina (type A) produces anti-B antibodies, where as type B produces anti-A antibodies. Thus, Martina’s blood antigens will reject the donor’s blood and the antibodies produced will attack the donor’s, causing agglutination (clumping of the red blood cells) which will clog the blood vessels and cause death.
217
Discuss how the anatomy of a granulocyte differs from that of an agranulocyte
A granulocyte is a type of white blood cell (leukocyte) that contains granules in the cytoplasm. There are three types of granulocytes: neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils. Each type of WBC has lobed nuclei; neutrophils have a multi-lobed nucleus, eosinophils’ nuclei are shaped like a telephone receiver, and basophils have figure-8 or s-shaped nuclei. Agranulocytes are WBCs that have no visible granules in the cytoplasm. Agranulocytes are lymphocytes and monocytes; lymphocytes have spherical nuclei and monocytes have large kidney-shaped nuclei.
218
Describe the three phases of normal blood clotting process
In the first phase of the blood-clotting process, vascular spasms occur. This means that smooth muscle contracts to vasoconstrict (narrow) the injured blood vessel in order to decrease blood loss. Then, a platelet plug forms around the exposed collagen fibers of the injured blood vessel. The platelets release chemicals that make them stick together in order for the plug to form. Finally, the clotting factors in the blood’s plasma react with calcium ions to form thrombin, which helps trap the RBCs in a meshwork which forms the basis of the clot.
219
Which situation do you predict to prompt the release of more erythrocytes into the blood: anemia or polycythemia? Explain
Anemia would prompt the release of more erythropoietin into the blood, not polycythemia. Polycythemia means there is an abnormal increase in the number of RBCs in the blood; in contrast, anemia is a condition where not enough RBCs are present in the blood. Erythropoietin is a chemical that stimulates RBC production, so anemia would cause a need for more erythropoietin to be released into the blood.
220
Describe the ABO and Rh groups
Blood type ABO is known as the “universal recipient” because since it produces no antibodies, any blood type can be transfused because ABO blood will not recognize any other blood type as foreign. Rh blood types are named for a blood antigen originally found in Rhesus monkeys. When the antigen was discovered in humans, they were then able to determine if a person is A/B/AB/O and Rh- or Rh+. If a person is Rh+, their blood contains the Rh antigen along with whatever antigen is produced by their lettered blood type. Most Americans are Rh
221
Explain the antigen-antibody response as it relates to blood groups
Antigens are specific proteins that are formed in blood pertaining to an individual’s blood type. The antigens are what recognize a blood type during a transfusion and determine whether the donor’s blood will be accepted or rejected. If a type of blood is transfused that produces antigens other than the recipient’s, then the blood will be rejected and the recipient’s antigens will stimulate the production of antibodies. The antibodies will react with the donor’s blood and agglutinate, causing the two blood types to clump together which will lead to death. This is why it is crucial to match the donor’s blood type to the recipient’s.
222
Discuss hemolytic disease of the newborn
Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when a pregnant woman has Rh- blood and is carrying a baby with Rh+ blood (due to the father being Rh+). By the time the first pregnancy is completed, the mother has become sensitized to the Rh+ antigens and will produce antibodies to react to them. Thus, if the mother becomes pregnant again with an Rh+ baby, her antibodies will destroy the baby’s RBCs. Hemolytic disease of the newborn can lead to brain damage in the infant and eventually may lead to death. The only way to prevent this disease is by treating the mother with an immune serum called RhoGAM immediately after giving birth for the first time.
223
Layer of the heart wall that recieves stimulus foem the purkinje fibers
myocardium
224
The partition where the bundle branches are located is ____________.
Intercentricular septum
225
The heart is situated within the medial portion of the thoracic cavity, an indentation known as _______.
Mediastinum
226
The visceral layer of serous pericardium is actually the sam elayer as the _________.
epicardium
227
The 2 superior chamber of the heart are known as _______, while the two inferior discharging chambers are known as the _______.
atria, ventricles
228
The valves located between the atria and ventricles are known as the ___________ valves
Atrioventricular (AV)
229
Blood leaves the right ventricle through a large artery called the ____________.
Pulmonary artery
230
The left atrium receives blood from the lungs via vessels identified as _________.
Pulmonary veins
231
The tiny white cords that anchor the cusps or flaps of the endocardium to the walls of the ventricles are called the ________ __________
chordae tendineae
232
Blood nourishing the myocardium with oxygenated blood comes from the vessels that branch off the aorta are called ______ ______.
coronary arteries
233
The circulation from the heart to the lungs and back is known as _________ circulation
pulmonary
234
The bicuspid valve is also referred to to as the ____________
Left AV valve or mitral valve
235
The ventricles ________, the AV valves are closed
Contract
236
The coronary veins empty blood from the myocardium into a large vein on the posterior side of the heart known as the _________.
Coronary sinus
237
The sinoatrial node, located in the right atrium of the heart is often called the _______.
pacemaker
238
A recording of the heart's electrical activity is referred to as an _________.
electrocardiogram
239
The first "lub" is caused by the closure of the _______ valves
AV
240
The term that means heart contraction is _______.
systole
241
During mid to late diastole, the pressure in the heart is _____.
low
242
The average heart beats about ____ times per minute.
75
243
Cardiac output is he product of _____ and ______
heart rate and stroke volume
244
The hormones epinephrine and thyroxine will cause the heart rate to _____
increase
245
Larger blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called _______.
arteries
246
Type of tissue composing the tunica intima is ________, ________
endothelium, squamos epithelial
247
Arteries are normally depicted as red whoe veins are colored blue. The exception to the rule are _________ arteries and veins.
Pulmonary
248
The amount of blood being pumped out of each side of the heart in one minute is called _________
cardiac output
249
Larger veins have _______ to prevent backflow of blood.
valves
250
The largest artery in the body is the_________.
aorta
251
The organs served by the renal arteries and veins are the _________.
kidneys
252
The longest veins in thhe body drain e leg and are the ____________.
Great Saphenous Veins
253
Th e single vessel that drains blood from the digestive tract organs to the liver is the _________
Hepatic Portal Vein
254
Branches of the common carotid arteries , know as the _____________ travel through the neck into the skull through the temporal bone to supply the brain and cerebral arterial circle (circle of willis) with blood.
Internal Corotid Arteries
255
The vessel that carries oxygenated and nutrient rich blood to the fetus is the unbilical _______.
Vein
256
The flaplike opening in the interatrial septum of the fetus through which blood is shunted directly from the right atrium to the left atrium if the _________
foramen ovale
257
The pressure blood exerts against the inner walls of the blood vessels in known as _________.
Blood Pressure
258
The narrowing of blood vessels is known as __________.
vasoconstriction
259
Fluid tends to be forced out of a capillary bed by _________ while __________ tends to draw fluid into the capillary bed
Blood pressure, osmotic pressure
260
The pointed apex of the heart is oriented toward the_______.
Left Hip
261
The layer of the heart wall synonomous with e visceral layer of the serous pericardium is _______.
epicardium
262
Pulmonary circulation involves blood flow to and from the heart to the ________.
Lungs
263
The right AV valve is known as the _________
tricuspid valve
264
Pulmonary veins _________ ________ to the _________.
transport oxygenated blood to the heart
265
What structure divides the left from the right ventricle
interventricular septum
266
When ventricles contract the bicuspid valve prevent blood from flowing from the _______ to the _______
left ventricle to the left atrium
267
The tricuspid valve is located between the _______
right atrium and right ventricle
268
Deoxegynated blood is returned to the right side of the heart by the ________
Superior and Inferior Vena cava
269
Does the pulmonary vein carry oxygenated blood?
Yes
270
Which valve gaurds the base of the aorta and opens when the ventricles are contracting?
Aortic semilunar valve
271
what arteries directly branch off the left coronary artery?
Anterior interventricular and circumflex arteries
272
The sinoatrial node is located in the _________.
Right Atrium
273
What is the correct path for the transmission on an impulse in the intrinsic conduction system of the heart?
SA Node, AV Node, AV Bundle, Left & Right Bundle Branches, Purkinje Fibers
274
Chest pain resulting from the loss of oxygen to the heart cells is called ________.
Angina Pectoris
275
What valves are open and closed during ventricul systole?
AV Valves close, seminlumar valves open, blood rushes out of the ventricles, pressure in ventricles rises
276
The Mitral valve is normally closed _______
When the ventricle is in systole
277
A person who has a heart beat of 75 bpm and a stroke volume of 60 mL per beat has a cardiac output of ?
4500 mL/minute
278
Describe the "lub lub" sound from the heart
1st sound is from the AV valves closing and is usually louder and longer, the 2nd sound is caused by the closure of the semilunar valves
279
The volume of blood pumped out of each ventricle with each beat of the heart is know as _________
stroke volume
280
The pathway for blood in the system vascular system is _____________
Arteries, arterioles, capillary beds, venules, veins
281
What effect does epiniphrine have on the heart?
It increases heart rate
282
What vessels carry blood away from the heart
veins
283
A decreas in the venous return to the heart will in turn create a decrease in ________.
stroke volume and cardiac output
284
What is the correct order from outer to inner layer of a blood vessel wall
Tunica externa, tunica media, tunica intima
285
The right subcoavian and corotid arteries directly branch off the _________
ascending aorta
286
Does the thoracic aorta receive blood directly fro the aortic arch?
no
287
The external carotid artery serves the skin and muscles of the head and
Neck
287
What artery supplies the first half of the large intestine?
Superior Mesenteric artery
288
What is the proper pathway that blood flows from the aortic arch to the left arm?
Aortic arch, left subclavian artery, left acillary artery, left brachial artery
289
The external carotid artery symptoms of skin and muscles of the head and ______
Neck
290
The brachiocephalic vein returns blood to the ______
Superior vena cava
291
The left and right renal veins empty blood from the ______
Kidneys
292
The brachial vein ________
Drains blood from the radial and ulnar veins, Then empties blood into the axillary vein
293
The umbilical vein carries_______
Oxygen and nutrients from the placenta to the fetus
294
High fetal shunt bypasses the lungs by directly connecting the right and off atrium
Foamed ovals
295
Is the renal artery a pressure point?
No
296
Which blood vessel has the lowest blood pressure?
Veins
297
The friction blood encounters as it flows through the vessels is called________.
Peripheral friction
298
Generalized vasoconstriction occurs as a result of ________.
Increase in sympathetic nerve system firing
299
What hormone promotes sodium ion reabsorption by the kidney in order to increase blood pressure and blood volume?
Aldosterone
300
Are tight junctions a method or pathway I movement of substances traveling across the capillary wall?
No
301
Substances tend to leave the blood stream at the arterial end of the capillary because_______
Blood pressure is higher at the arterial end of the capillary
302
Coronary heart disease results from __________
Accumulation of fatty substances within blood vessels
303
True/ False: the fibrous pericardium is superficial to the serous pericardium surrounding the heart.
True
304
True/ False: The interact dial septum divides the two atria transversely.
False (longitudinally)
305
True/ False:
.
306
True/ False: The cordae tendoneae. Anchor on the semi lunar valves to the walls of the ventricles
False
307
True/ False: The alternate name for the bicuspid valve is Mitral valve
True
308
True/ False: the semilunar valves prevent the backflow of blood into the atria when the ventricles are contracting
False (they prevent backflow from the arteries back to the heart)
309
True/ False: the alternate name for the bicuspid valve is the mitral valve.
True
310
True/ False: The coronary sinus on the backside of the heart drains deoxygenated blood from the wall of the heart into the left atrium
False (into the right atrium)
311
True/ False: Blood drained from the heart after cardiac circulation returns to the left atrium of the heart
False (the right atrium)
312
True/ False: The part of the intrinsic Conduction system of the heart That directly supplies the walls of the ventricles is the purkinje fibers
True
313
True/ False: The AV node starts each heart beat and is often called the pacemaker of the heart
False (it is the SA node)
314
True/False: The average heart beats approx 75 times per minute at rest
True
315
True/False: During ventricular diastole, the bicuspid valve and tricuspid valves are closed
False (AV valves are open)
316
True/False: Cardiac output is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by the systolic blood pressure.
False (it is stroke volume X heart rate)
317
True/False: Reductions in venous return cause reductions in both stroke volume and cardiac output
True
318
True/False: An increased firing of the paradympathetic nervous system causes increased cardiac output.
False (it slows it)
319
True/False:Smooth Muscle and elastic tissue in a blood vessel wall is found primarily in the tunica media
True
320
True/False: Capillaries are composed of tunica intima.
True
321
True/False: Exchanges between blood and tissue cells occur in the capillary beds.
True
322
True/False: When the precapillary sphincters are closed, blood flows through the shunts and bypasses the tissue cells.
True
323
True/False: The portion of the aorta in the abdominopelvic cavity is known as the thoracic aorta.
Falsa ( It is the abdominal aorta)
324
True/False: The three branches of the aortic arch are the brachiocephalic trunk, left common corotid artery, and the left subclavian artery.
True
325
True/False: The brachial artery branches to form the femoral and popliteal arteries.
False
326
True/False: The common iliac vein drains blood from the inferior vena cava
True
327
True/False: Veins draining the head and arms empty into e inferior vena cava.
False
328
True/False: The hepatic veins drain the blood from the liver and returns it to the inferior vena cava.
true
329
True/False: The circle of willis involves blood flow through the liver.
False
330
True/False: The major vessels involved with hepatic portal circulation are the inferior and superior mesenteric arteries, the splenic artery, and the left gastric artery.
False (it is the veins, not the arteries)
331
True/False: The umbilical vein carries blood rich in oxygen & nutrients to the fetus.
True
332
True/False: In fetal circulation blood travels directly fron the right atrium to the left atrium through the foramen ovale.
True
333
True/False: Diastolic pressure in the pressure in the arteries at the peak of contraction.
false (at rest)
334
True/False: an increase in blood vessel diameter causes arterial blood pressure to decrease
True
335
True/False: Hypotension is diastolic pressure below 100mm Hg
False (it is systolic pressure below 100)
336
True/False: Blood cells and proteins typically can not pass directly across the walls of the capillaries and are thus prevented from leaving or entering the capillaries.
True
337
Which chamber if the heart has the thickest wall?
Left ventricle
338
What is the discharging chamber on the left side of the heart?
Left ventricle
339
Which heart chamber contains the Sinoatrial node?
Right atrium
340
Which heart chamber pumps blood to the pulmonary trunk
Right ventricle
341
Which heart chamber contains the bicuspid valve on the roof of this chamber?
Left Ventricle
342
Which chamber of the heart does the coronary sinus empty blood from cardiac circulation
right atrium
343
The 4 pulmonary veins return oxygenated blood to this chamber of the heart
Left atrium
344
What is the outmost layer surrounding the heart that anchors it to the sternum and diapragm?
Fibrous pericardium
345
What is the outmost serous membrane layer that is deep to the fibrous pericardium yet superficial to the visceral pericardium?
Parietal pericardium
346
The epicardium of the heart is synonomous with this serous membrane layer of the heart.
Visceral Pericardium
347
Clogging of the heart's vessels with fatty buildup is ________.
Coronoary atherosclorosis
348
Abnormal heart sounds are ________.
Heart murmurs
349
Twisted dialated veins resulting from overworked valves are _______
Varicose veins
350
Bacterial infection of the endocardium is _______
Endocarditis
351
Chest pain resulting from a loss of oxygen to the myocardium is _______
Angina pectoris
352
Inflammation of the pericardium surrounding the heart is called _______.
pericarditis
353
Heart attack is also called _______.
Myocardial infarction
354
Which vessels carry blood away from the heart?
Arteries
355
What vessels return blood to the heart?
Veins
356
The superior and inferior vena cava are classified as what kind of vessels?
Veins
357
The aorta is classified as what kind of vessel?
Artery
358
These vessels have thicker and heavier tunica media.
arteries
359
Nutrient and gas exchange happens is these vessels.
Capillaries
360
Blood pressure is low in these vessels.
Veins
361
These vessels have thinner walls and transport oxygen poor blood
Veins
362
Some of these larger vessels have valves to prevent backflow
Veins
363
Venules drain into these tiny vessels
capillaries
364
True/False: The average heart beats approx 75 times per minute at rest
True
365
True/False: During ventricular diastole, the bicuspid valve and tricuspid valves are closed
False (AV valves are open)
366
True/False: Cardiac output is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by the systolic blood pressure.
False (it is stroke volume X heart rate)
367
True/False: Reductions in venous return cause reductions in both stroke volume and cardiac output
True
368
True/False: An increased firing of the paradympathetic nervous system causes increased cardiac output.
False (it slows it)
369
True/False:Smooth Muscle and elastic tissue in a blood vessel wall is found primarily in the tunica media
True
370
True/False: Capillaries are composed of tunica intima.
True
371
True/False: Exchanges between blood and tissue cells occur in the capillary beds.
True
372
True/False: When the precapillary sphincters are closed, blood flows through the shunts and bypasses the tissue cells.
True
373
True/False: The portion of the aorta in the abdominopelvic cavity is known as the thoracic aorta.
Falsa ( It is the abdominal aorta)
374
True/False: The three branches of the aortic arch are the brachiocephalic trunk, left common corotid artery, and the left subclavian artery.
True
375
True/False: The brachial artery branches to form the femoral and popliteal arteries.
False
376
True/False: The common iliac vein drains blood from the inferior vena cava
True
377
True/False: Veins draining the head and arms empty into e inferior vena cava.
False
378
True/False: The hepatic veins drain the blood from the liver and returns it to the inferior vena cava.
true
379
True/False: The circle of willis involves blood flow through the liver.
False
380
True/False: The major vessels involved with hepatic portal circulation are the inferior and superior mesenteric arteries, the splenic artery, and the left gastric artery.
False (it is the veins, not the arteries)
381
True/False: The umbilical vein carries blood rich in oxygen & nutrients to the fetus.
True
382
True/False: In fetal circulation blood travels directly fron the right atrium to the left atrium through the foramen ovale.
True
383
True/False: Diastolic pressure in the pressure in the arteries at the peak of contraction.
false (at rest)
384
True/False: an increase in blood vessel diameter causes arterial blood pressure to decrease
True
385
True/False: Hypotension is diastolic pressure below 100mm Hg
False (it is systolic pressure below 100)
386
True/False: Blood cells and proteins typically can not pass directly across the walls of the capillaries and are thus prevented from leaving or entering the capillaries.
True
387
Which chamber if the heart has the thickest wall?
Left ventricle
388
What is the discharging chamber on the left side of the heart?
Left ventricle
389
Which heart chamber contains the Sinoatrial node?
Right atrium
390
Which heart chamber pumps blood to the pulmonary trunk
Right ventricle
391
Which heart chamber contains the bicuspid valve on the roof of this chamber?
Left Ventricle
392
Which chamber of the heart does the coronary sinus empty blood from cardiac circulation
right atrium
393
The 4 pulmonary veins return oxygenated blood to this chamber of the heart
Left atrium
394
What is the outmost layer surrounding the heart that anchors it to the sternum and diapragm?
Fibrous pericardium
395
What is the outmost serous membrane layer that is deep to the fibrous pericardium yet superficial to the visceral pericardium?
Parietal pericardium
396
The epicardium of the heart is synonomous with this serous membrane layer of the heart.
Visceral Pericardium
397
Clogging of the heart's vessels with fatty buildup is ________.
Coronoary atherosclorosis
398
Abnormal heart sounds are ________.
Heart murmurs
399
Twisted dialated veins resulting from overworked valves are _______
Varicose veins
400
Bacterial infection of the endocardium is _______
Endocarditis
401
Chest pain resulting from a loss of oxygen to the myocardium is _______
Angina pectoris
402
Inflammation of the pericardium surrounding the heart is called _______.
pericarditis
403
Heart attack is also called _______.
Myocardial infarction
404
Which vessels carry blood away from the heart?
Arteries
405
What vessels return blood to the heart?
Veins
406
The superior and inferior vena cava are classified as what kind of vessels?
Veins
407
The aorta is classified as what kind of vessel?
Artery
408
These vessels have thicker and heavier tunica media.
arteries
409
Nutrient and gas exchange happens is these vessels.
Capillaries
410
Blood pressure is low in these vessels.
Veins
411
These vessels have thinner walls and transport oxygen poor blood
Veins
412
Some of these larger vessels have valves to prevent backflow
Veins
413
Venules drain into these tiny vessels
capillaries
414
Essay: ) Trace the path of a drop of blood, starting at the right atrium and returning to the right atrium, through the pulmonary and systemic circuits of the cardiovascular system. Identify the chambers, valves, and vessels (except specific systemic blood vessels that are not directly associated with the heart), and indicate whether the blood is oxygenated or deoxygenated in each area.
From the right atrium, blood flows through the right AV valve and into the right ventricle, from there blood flows through the pulmonary semilunar valves and into the pulmonary arteries. Next the blood flows to the lungs and returns from the lungs to the heart through the pulmonary veins into the left atrium. Next blood passes through the left AV valve into the left ventricle. Lastly, blood will pass thorough the aortic semilunar valve before entering the aorta and going out the the rest of the body.
415
Essay: Identify the five major parts of the intrinsic conduction system of the heart in their normal order, beginning with the pacemaker.
SA Node > AV Node > AV Bundle > Bundle Branches > Purkinje Fibers.
416
Essay: Discuss the events that are taking place in the cardiac cycle during the left ventricular systole. Indicate whether the other heart chambers are in systole or diastole and whether they are filling or emptying of blood. If they are emptying, state where the blood is going. If they are filling with blood, state where the blood is coming from. Include an explanation of which valves are open and which valves are closed, in addition to whether the coronary system is filling or emptying of blood.
uring Ventricular systole (contraction) pressure increases in the ventricles and the AV valves shut. During ventricular systole the atria are in diastole (rest) and they are filling with blood. The pressure in the ventricle is higher than the artieries leaving the heard so the semilunar valves are forced open and blood rushes out of the ventricle.
417
Essay: Define peripheral resistance. Explain several factors that cause it to increase and its effect on arterial blood pressure.
Paeripheral resistance is the amount of friction the blood encounters as it flows though the blood vessels. The factors that effect it include the sympathetic nervous system that causes vasoconstriction, The kidneys, temperature, different chemicals, and diet.
418
Explain the role of valves in heart functioning.
The atrioventricular valves (AV) valves separate the atrium form the ventricles. These valves prevent back flow into the atria when the ventricles contract. The other valves are the semilunar valves which prevent blood from back flowing into the ventricles.
419
Essay: Name two shunts that bypass the lungs in a fetus. Briefly explain the structures these shunts connect.
The two shunts are the foramen ovale and the ductus arteriosus. The foramen ovale shunts the blood so that blood directly goes from the right atrium into the left atrium. The ductus arteriosus connects the aorta and the pulmonary trunk.
420
Essay: Describe the two types of pressures controlling fluid movement in a capillary bed. Explain the role of each pressure in fluid movement.
The two types of pressure controlling fluid in the capillary beds are blood pressure and osmotic pressure. In the arterial end of the capillary blood pressure is more than osmotic pressure and fluid tend to leak out into the interstitial fluid because of not only the pressure but also due to blood has a higher solute concentration than interstitial fluid. At the venous end of the capillary blood pressure is lower than osmotic pressure so the fluid is drawn into the venout end.
421
Lymph fluid and some plasma proteins originate (escape) from the ___________.
Capillary Beds
422
Excess accumulations of fluid which impair the exchange of materials within the tissues, is called ______.
Edema
423
The two large ducts in the thoracic region that drain lymph are called the ________ and ___________.
Right Lymphatic Duct and Thoracici Duct.
424
The three regions of the body that contain large collections of lymph nodes are the ______, ________, and ________.
Inguinal, Axillary, and Cervical Regions
425
The role of the ________ in the lymphatic system is to remove worn out blood cells and return some of the product of the liver.
Spleen
426
Peyer's patches and the tonsils are part of the collection of small lymphoid tissues that protect the upper respiratory and digestive tracts from infection and are referred to as ___________.
Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue (MALT)
427
Harmful or disease causing microorganisms form which nonspecific defenses protect the body are called ___________.
Pathogens
428
List the four most common indicators of acute inflammation:
Redness, Heat, Swelling, and Pain
429
The third line of defense involves the adaptive response mediated by the __________
Specific Defense System
430
The binding of complement proteins to certain sugar or proteins on a foreign cell's surface is called ___________.
Complement Fixation
431
Chemical secreted by white blood cells and macrophages called _________ help to increase the body's present temperature to promote a fever.
Pyrogens
432
Cells studded with protein molecules found on our own cells that do not trigger an immune response with us (but may within others) are called ___________.
Self Antigens
433
Troublesome small molecules or incomplete antigens that may mount an attack that is harmful rather than protective are called ___________
Hapten or Incomplete Antigens
434
Most B Cell clone members become ____________
Plasma Cells
435
The major role of ________ cells is to engulf antigens and present pieces of them to the cells that will deal with those fragments.
Antigen-Presenting
436
Active immunity to tetanus, whooping cough, and polio can be artificially acquired when we receive_______.
Vaccines
437
The Five major immunoglobulin classes are ____________.
IgM, IgA, IgD, IgG, IgE (MADGE)
438
The region of the antibody that varies from antibody to antibody is called the _________ region.
The Variable Region
439
Large Antigen-Antibidy complexes can become insoluble and settle out of a solution, a reaction called _________.
Precipitation
440
Killer T Cells, which kill virus- invaded body cells, are also called ___________.
Cytotoxic
441
Antigens that produce abnormally vigorous immune responses whereby the immune system causes tissue damage as it fights off a perceived threat that would otherwise be harmless are called ____________.
allergies or hypersensitivities
442
Systemic (bodywide) acute allergic response caused by allergens that directly enter the blood, as with certain bee stings or spider bites, is called ____________.
anaphylactic shock
443
AIDS cripples the immune system by interfering with the activity of cells called ___________
T Cells
444
A tropical disease that results when parasitic worms clog the lymphatic vessels is called ________________
elephantiasis
445
Lymph is largely composed of water that has escaped from _________.
blood
446
Lymph in the right leg rejoins blood flow in the __________
subclavian veins
447
Lymph from the left arm returns to the heart through the _____
Thoracic duct
448
What are some of the mechanisms that aids in lymph return
milking action of skeletal muscles, prssure changes within the thorax, smooth muscle contractions within the lymphatic vessles, presence of valves within the larger lymph vessels.
449
What structure carries lymph into a lymph node
afferent lymphatic vessel
450
Which lymphatic organ's major job is to destroy worn out red blood cells and return some of the products to the liver?
spleen
451
What lymphoid tissue trap and remove bacteria entering the throat?
Tonsils
452
The thymus gland is most active during __________
adolescence
453
The lymph organ that programs T cells and functions at peak levels only during youth is the __________
Thymus
454
The lymph tissues found within the walls of the small intestine are called_________
Peyer's patches
455
Where are the tonsils located?
Throat
456
Mucosa Associated lymphatic tissue (MALT) includes_________
tonsils, the appendix, and Peyer's patches
457
The body's first line of defense against the invasion of disease causing microorganisms is _________
skin and mucous membranes
458
The adaptive (specific) defense system issues at attack________
Specific to particular foreign substances
459
```
Of the following, which is not one of the body's nonspecific body defenses?
intact skin
antibody productin
inflammatory response
fever
natural killer cells
```
antibody production
460
The process by which neutrophils are squeezed through the capillary walls during the inflammatory process is called _________
diapedesis
461
```
Which of e following is NOT one of the four most common indicators of the inflammatory response?
Redness
Heat
Swelling
Fever
Pain
```
Fever
462
The migration of phagocytes and white blood cells to an inflamed area along a chemical gradient is called _________
chemitaxis
463
```
The inflammatory process begins with the release of chemicals, which do all of the following EXCEPT?
dialate blood vessels
attract phagocytes to the area
stimulate release of lysozome
cause capillary to become leaky
activate pain receptors
```
Stimulate release of lysozomes
464
Membrane attack complexes (MAC) form holes in attacked cells causing them to burst, this is a result of ________
Complement Fixation
465
The body's temperature regulating "thermostat" that can be reset upward in response to pyrogens is located in the ___________
hypothalamus
466
Fever has the effect of doing all of the following EXCEPT:
denaturing proteins
stimulating the liver and spleen to gather up iron and zinc
increasing metabolic rate of tissues
stimulating complement fixation
speeding up repair processes
Stimulating Complement Fixatin
467
The study of immunity is called ________
immunology
468
Are self antigens typically perceived as an antigen?
No
469
Humoral immunity is provided by the ________
Antibodies
470
Regardless of whether it it matures to be a B cell or a T cell, a lymphocyt that is capable of responding for a specific antigen by binding it is said to be ________
immunocompetent
471
The specific foreign substances that an individual's immune system has the ability to recognize and resist is determined by __________.
Individual Genetic makeup
472
Lymphocytes are trained to be self tolerant of _________
body's own cells
473
B cells develop immunocompetence in the _______
bone marrow
474
The specific type of acquired immunity that a fetus obtains from the maternal antibodies that cross the placenta is called _______,
naturally acquired passive immunity
475
What specific type of acquired immunity do vaccines provide?
artificially acquired active immunity
476
Vaccines are not for ________
snake bites
477
```
Immune sera are used for the following EXCEPT:
tuberculosis
rabies
snake bites
botulism
tetanus
```
tuberculosis
478
Which portion of the antibody's structure determines it's antibody class?
Constant region
479
Does the constant region of the antibody form an antigen bonding site
No
480
Is IbB an antibody class
No
481
IgA is mainly found ___________
in mucus and secretions such as tears and saliva
482
Are chemotaxis a method by which antibodies inactive antigens?
No
483
the specific antibody class that has the ability to cross the placenta barrier and provide immunity to the fetus is _________
IgG
484
The process by which antibodies bind to specific sites on bacterial exotoxines (toxic chemicials secreted by bacteria) to block their harmful effects is called _________
neutralization
485
Antigen presentation is essential for the activation and clonsl selection of ________.
T cells
486
An isograft is a tissue graft donated by _______.
A identical twin
487
What is ofter used to treat allergies?
antihistimines
488
Allergic contact dermatitis following skin contact with poion ivy would normally lead to_______
delayed hypersensitivity
489
The relatively common autoimmune disease in which the thyroid gland produces excessive amounts of thyrozine is _______
Grave's disease
490
Is AIDS an autoimmune disease
No
491
True/False: The lymphatic vessels and cardiovascular veins are similar in that they operate under low pressure and some larger ones have valves
True
492
True/False: Lymph flows in one direction only toward he heart.
True
493
True/False: The lymph nodes filter bacteria, viruses, and tumor cells from blood on it's way back to the heart.
True
494
True/False: Lymph nodes have efferent vessels draining the node than afferent vessels bringing fluid into the node
False
495
True/False:The most important function of the thymus is to destroy worn out red blood cells and return some of e products to the liver
False
496
True/False: Natural killers are unique phagocytic defense cells that can kill cancer cells and virus infected body cells well before the immune system is activated
False
497
True/False: Injured cells release chemicals such as histamine and kinins that dilate vessels, attract phagocytes and active pain receptors
True
498
True/False: The final disposition of cell debris as inflammation subsides is performed by neutrophils
false
499
True/False:The non specific defense by which complement proteins attach to sugars or proteins on e surface of foreign cells is called complement fixation.
True
500
True/False: Chemicals secreted by white blood cells and macrophages exposed to foreign substances that can increase body temperature are called pyrogens
True
501
True/False: The study of immunity and the immune system is called endocrinology.
False
502
True/False: Like all blood cells, lymphocytes originate from hemocytoblasts contained within red bone marrow.
True
503
True/False:Macrophages arise from monocytes formed within bone marrow
False
504
True/False: Vaccines provide naturally acquired active immunity to diseases such. as pneumonia, diptheria, and measles
False
505
True/False: Artificially acquired passive immunity is conferred when one receives immune serum from poisonous snake bites.
True
506
True/False: Antibodies are also referred to as immunoglobulins
True
507
True/False: There are three major immunoglobulin classes IgM, IgA, and IgD.
False
508
True/False: The antibody a mother passes to ger fetus is IgM
False
509
True/False: The process that occurs when antibodies clump foreign cells is called agglutination.
True
510
True/False: Memory cells are decedents of activated B or T cells
False
511
True/False: Antigen presentation is essential for the activation of clonal selection of T cells
True
512
True/False: Tissue grafts harvested from an unrelated person are called xenografts.
False
513
True/False: Allografts are tissue grafts taken from an unrelated person
False
514
True/False: Allergies, or hypersensitivities, are normal immune responses
False
515
True/False: Anaphylactic shock, an acute systemic allergic response, causes vasodilatation and difficulty breathg
True
516
True/False: As people age, they become more resistant to the development of autoimmune and immunodeficiency diseases.
False
517
Peyer's patches are located ________
On the left side of the abdominal cavity
518
Tonsils trap and remove bacteria and pathogens entering the ______
throat
519
This function of the spleen is to _________
Filter and cleanse the blood of bacteria, viruses, and other debris
520
Location of the thymus gland
Overlying the heart
521
Located in the wall of the small intestines
Peyer's patches
522
Located in the pharnyx (throat)
tonsils
523
Any substance capable of provoking an immune response
antigen
524
Small proteins that bind with receptors on healthy cells to promote protein synthesis and prevent viruses from binding
Interferon
525
Chemicals secreted by white blood cells and macrophages to raise the body's temperature
pyrogens
526
Chemicals released by natural killer cells to cause cell lysis
perforins
527
Harmful or disease causing microorganisms
pathogens
528
Proteins secreted by activated B cells in response to an antigen
antibodies
529
Sticky substance in the respiratory and digestive tracts that trap microorganisms.
Mucus
530
believed to be cell surface receptor of immunocompetent B Cells
IgD
531
First immunoglobulin class released to plasma by plasma cells during primary response
IgM
532
Main antibody of primary and secondary responses
IgG
533
Triggers release of histamine
IgE
534
Potent agglutinating agent
IgM
535
Crosses placenta and provides passive immunity to fetus
IgG
536
Explain the origin and pathway of lymph.
Extremely porous, blind-ended lymphatic capillaries pick up excess tissue fluid leaked from the blood capillaries. The fluid (lymph) flows into the larger lymphatics and finally into the blood vascular system through the right lymphatic duct and the left thoracic duct.
537
Essay: Describe how the lymphatic and cardiovascular systems are similar in structure and function.
Like veins of the cardiovascular system, lymphatic vessels are thin walled, and the larger ones have valves. Lymph is transported by the same mechanisms that aid return of venous blood- the milking action of the skeletal muscles and pressure changes in the thorax during breathing. In addition, smooth muscle in the walls of the larger lymphatics contracts rhythmically, actually helping to “pump” the lymph along.
538
Essay: How do the innate and adaptive immune systems differ in their responses to foreign substances? Explain.
The innate defense system responds immediately to protect the body from all foreign substances; We come fully equipped with our innate defenses. Unlike the innate defenses, which are always prepared to defend the body, the adaptive system must first “meet” or be primed by an initial exposure to a foreign substance (antigen) before it can protect the body against the invader.
539
Essay: Identify the four most common indicators and major symptoms of an acute inflammatory response and explain their origins.
Dilation of the blood vessels increases the blood flow to the area, accounting for the redness(1) and heat(2) observed. Increases permeability of the capillaries allows plasma to leak from the blood into the tissue spaces, causing local edema or swelling(3) that also activates pain(4) receptors in the area.
540
Essay: List and describe the cells and chemicals the body uses as its second line of defense.
Phagocytes- Engulf and destroy pathogens that breach surface membrane barriers.
Natural killer cells- Promote cell lysis by direct cell attack against virus-infected or cancerous body cells.
Inflammatory Response- Prevents spread of injurious agents to adjacent tissues, disposes of pathogens and dead tissue cells, and promotes tissue repair; releases chemical mediators that attract phagocytes (and immune cells) to the area.
Antimicrobial proteins- (1) Complement- Group of plasma proteins that lyses microorganisms and intensifies inflammatory response. (2) Interferons- Proteins releases by virus-infected cells that protect uninfected tissue cells from viral takeover; mobilize immune system.
Fever- Systematic response triggered by pyrogens; high body temp inhibits multiplication of bacteria and enhances body repair processes.
541
Essay: Describe the four major types of transplant grafts.
utografts- Tissue grafts transplanted from one site to another in the same person.
Isografts- Tissue grafts donated by an identical twin.
Allografts- Tissue grafts taken from a person other than an identical twin.
Xenografts- Tissue grafts harvested from a different animal species.
542
Essay: Explain two current ideas that attempt to explain why self-tolerance breaks down in autoimmune disorders
New self-antigens appear- Such “hidden” antigens are found in sperm cells, the eye lens, and certain proteins in thyroid gland. In addition, “new self-antigens” may appear as a result of gene mutations that change structure of self-proteins or as a result of alterations in self-proteins by hapten attachment or by bacterial or viral damage.
Foreign antigens resemble self-antigens- For instance, antibodies produced during an infection caused by streptococcus bacteria are known to cross-react with heart antigens, causing damage to both the heart muscle and its valves, as well as to joints and kidneys. This age-old disease is called rheumatic fever.
