Chap 9-12 Study Guide Flashcards
The gland that produces thymosin is the?
Thymus
The gland that produces melatonin is the ?
Pineal Gland
Te gland at produces testosterone is the ?
Testes
The gland that produces insulin and glucogon is the ?
Pancreas
The gland that acts as an antagonist to the thyroid gland is the ?
Parathyroid Gland
The gland that hangs from a stalk from the hypothalamus is the ?
Pituitary gland
The gland that is the major producer of female hormones is the ?
Ovaries
The gland that is primarily responsible for body metabolism is the ?
Thyroid
The gland situated around the thyroid that operates entirely under humoral control is the ?
Thymus
The hormones that operate by direct gene activation are steroid hormones and __________?
Thyroid hormone
Hormones that are released in response to changing blood levels are controlled by ___________ stimuli.
Humoral
The protein hormone released by the anterior pituitary responsible for maitaining milk production in breast feeding females is _______?
Prolactin
The target organ of thyrotropic stimulating hormone (TSH) is the _________ gland.
Thyroid
Alcohol surpresses the production of this hormone, ___________, which normally promotes water retention and prevents dehydration.
Mineralocorticoids
Thyroxine is known by an alternate name, ______, due to the # of iodine atoms it contains
T4
Calcitonin is made by the ___________ of the thyroid gland.
Parafollicular cells
Mineralocorticoids regulate the concentration of ________ and ________ ions in our blood.
Sodium and Potassium
Cortisone and cortisol and types of ________ produced by the middle cortical layer of the adrenal gland.
glucocorticoids
The enzyme produced by the kidneys when blood pressure drops, which causes the release of aldosterone, is called _________?
Renin
Male sex hormones produced by the adrenal cortex are called __________ .
Androgens
Generalized hyposecretion of all adrenal cortex hormones leads to ____________
Addison’s disease.
Hypersecretion of glutocorticoids, often caused by a tumor results in __________
Cushing’s syndrome
Another name for Epinephrine is ___________
Adrenaline
Insulin and glucagon are both hormones that are produced by the _______________.
Pancreatic islets
glucagon acts as an antagonist to a hormone called _________.
Insulin
When blood glucose levels are too high, e beta cells of e pancreas release __________ to decrease levels.
Insulin
A hormone called __________ is believed to play an important part in establishing the body’s day-night cycle.
melatonin
A hormone called __________ plays an important role in incubating a special group of white blood cells.
Thymosin
The hormone produced by the male testes which is responsible for sperm production is __________
Androgens
Home pregnancy tests check for a hormone in the female’s urine called ____________.
Progesterone
Which body system produces chemical messengers?
The endocrine system
What changes take place during the binding of a hormone to it’s target cells
plasma membrane permeability changes, enzymes are activated or inactivated, mitosis is stimulated, proteins are synthesized in the cell.
Prostaglandins are ?
lipid hormones manufactured in the cell plasma membranes
Because steroids are lipid soluble they can do the following:
diffuse through plasma membranes of target cells, enter the nucleus, bind to receptor proteins within the nucleus, & activate genes to transcribe mRNA for protein synthesis.
Most endocrine organs are organs prodded into action by other hormones, this type of stimulus is called:
hormonal stimulus
Tropic hormones do what?
Stimulate other endocrine glands to secrete hormones
Growth hormone does what?
promotes growth in long bones and skeletal muscles
What hormones are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland
Growth hormone, prolactin, Follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, thyroid stimulating hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone
The hormone that stimulates follicle development in female overies and sperm development in male testes is _______.
Follicle stimulating hormone
Hypersecretion of growth hormone after a long bone has ended (as an adult) growth is called ________
acromegaly
Releasing and inhibiting hormones produced by the hypothalumus influence the activities of the ________ and _________.
Adrenal Gland and Thyroid Gland
An enlargement of the thyroid gland resulting from a deficiency of dietary iodine is called _______.
Goiter
What are functions of oxytocin?
Stimulate uterine contrations, stimulate breast milk production, labor induction, and postpartum bleeding control
Diabetes insipidus is caused by hyposecretion of _______
antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
What hormone prods the thyroid to release thyroxin?
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
Alcohol inhibits the secretion of ________.
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
The thyroid is located ____________.
Below the adams apple
The body’s major metabolic hormone is called _______
Thyroid hormone
The element necessary in the diet for proper thyroid function is __________
iodine
Hyposecretion of thyroxine in childhood leads to a disease called _________
cretinism
What hormones regulate calcium levels in the body?
Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
What hormone, released by the heart, prevents aldosterone release in order to lower blood pressure?
Atrial Natriuretic peptide (ANP)
What hormones are released by the adrenal medulla?
Epiniphrine and norepiniphrine
Rising blood levels of aldosterone cause the kidney tubules to __________
reabsorb sodium
Tetany resulting from uncontrolled muscle spasms may indicate a malfunction of the _________
parathyroid glands
The enzyme produced by the kidneys when blood pressure drops, stimulating a release of aldosterone is called _________
Renin
Glucocorticoids do ____________?
help resist long term stress, increase blood glucose levels, decrease edema, suppress inflammation
Hyposecretion of the adrenal cortex hormones results in skin bronzing, feeling burn out and suppression of the immune system. This condition is known as _________.
Addison’s disease
The flight or fight response is triggered by the release of __________
epinephrine
What are sone of the actions of catecholamines?
stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system, increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, increased blood glucose levels
Insulin is produced by the cells of the pancreatic islets called _______.
Beta cells
What hormone decreases blood glucose?
Glucogon
The pancreas is located where?
Close to the stomach
The pineal gland produces what hormone?
Melatonin
The hormone that appears to help regulate our sleep-wake cycles is ________.
melatonin
Estrogens do the following:
stimulate menstruation, help maintain pregnancy, prepares the uterus to receive a fertilized egg.
What are some of the effects of testosterone
deepening of the voice, growth of facial hair, sperm production, development of heavy bones and muscles
Sex hormones produced by the overies and testes are______
protein hormones
The cells in the testes that produce testosterone are called ________.
gonadotropic cells
What hormone is produced by the placenta that stimulates the ovaries to continue producing estrogen and progesterone?
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
Cholecystokin (CCK) and secretin are two hormones produced by the ________.
duodenum of the small intestine
True/False: The study of hormones and endocrine organs is known as immunology
False
True/False: All hormones can arouse and bring about changes in all cells of the human body
False
True/False: Most hormones are regulated by negative feedback mechanisms.
True
True/False: Hormones that are secreted in response to other hormones are prodded by hormonal stimuli.
True
True/False: Hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary are actually made by e hypothalamus
False
True/False: Hypersecretion of growth hormone during childhood leads to pituitary dwarfism
False
True/False: The target of prolactin is the female breast
True
True/False: Neurosecretory cells transport oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone to the anterior pituitary gland for storage.
False
True/False: Antidiuretic hormone inhibits urine production and promotes water reabsorption by the kidneys
True
True/False: Vaspressin in another name for antidiuretic hormone
True
True/False: Hyposecretion of FSH or LH leads to sterility in both males and females
True
True/False: Thyroid hormone targets all cells of the body
True
True/False: Diabetes insipidus is caused by hyposecretion of insulin.
False
True/False: Thyroid hormone is actually two iodine- containing hormones called T3 and T4
True
True/False: Thyroid hormone is actually two iodine- containing hormones called T3 and T4
True
True/False: Thyroid hormone is actually two iodine- containing hormones called T3 and T4
True
True/False: Thyroxine is converted to triiodothyronine at target tissues to promote metabolism
True
True/False: Calcitonin is produced by the follicular cells of the thyroid gland
False
True/False: Parathyroid hormone is the most important regulator of blood calcium concentration
True
True/False: Calcitonin is a hormone antagonist to parathyroid hormone in regulation of blood calcium levels
True
True/False: Mineralocorticoids help regulate both water and electrolyte balance in the body fluids
True
True/False: The adrenal glands are similar to the pituitary gland in that they have both glandular and neural tissue.
True
True/False: The adrenal cortex is made up of neural tissue.
True
True/False: Glucocorticoids, glucogon, and epiniphrine are hyperglycemic hormones
False
True/False: Both male and female sex hormones may lead to masculinization in both men and women
True
True/False: Both male and female sex hormones are produced by the adrenal cortex throughout life in relatively small amounts.
True
True/False: The adrenal medulla and posterior pituitary are bo composed of nervous tissue
True
True/False: Adrenaline is also known as epinephrine
True
True/False: Aldosterone raises blood glucose levels throu the breakdown of fats and proteins
False
True/False: Melatonin production peaks during the night to help regulate the body’s day/night cycle.
True
True/False: They thymus gland is located in the neck wrapped around the trachea.
False
True/False: The ovaries release estrogen and progesterone in response to gonadotropic hormones from the pituitary gland.
True
True/False: The placenta is a temporary organ formed in the uterus of pregnant women.
True
Matching Endocrine gland to Hormones:
Growth Hormone- Anterior Pituitary Prolactin- Anterior Pituitary Adrenocortictropic hormone - Anterior Pituitary Thyroid Stimulating hormone - Anterior pituitary Luteinizing hormone- anterior pituitary Oxytocin - Posterior Pituitary Antidiuretic hormone- Posterior pituitary Follicle stimulating hormone- Anterior pituitary Thyroxine - Thyroid Calcitonin- thyroid Parathyroid hormone - parathyroids Aldosterone- adrenal cortex Cortisone - adrenal cortex catecholamines- adrenal medulla glucocorticoids - adrenal cortex insulin- pancreatic islets glucagon- pancreatic islets melatonin - pineal gland thymosin- thymus human chorionic gonadotropin- placenta
Match action to hormone:
stimulates contraction of the uteris and milk reflex- oxytocin
lowers blood calcium- calcitonin
involved in daily & seasonal bio rhythms - melatonin
stimulates thyroid to produce thyroxine-thyroidstimulating hormone
promotes reabsorption of sodium by kidneys- mineralocorticoids
lowers blood glucose levels- insulin
raises blood glucose, constricts vessels, increase metabolism- glucagon
stimulates testes & ovaries to produce hormones- follicle stimulating hormone
Explain 2 major chemical classifications of hormones
There are amino acid based hormones which include proteins, peptides, and amines. These hormones are known as organic substances. The other classification is steroids that are made up of cholesterol. These hormones are known as a chemical substance.
Describe 3 types of stimuli that activate endocrine organs
First there are hormonal stimuli which is the most common type. Hormonal stimulis is when the endocrine organs are prodded into action by other hormones. The second stimulus is humoral stemuli which changes blood levels in certain ions and nutrients that will then stimulate hormone release. Last, there are neural stimuliwhich occurs in isolated cases. This stimulus occurs when nerve fibers stimulate hormone release.
Explain the pituitary-hypothalamus relationship
The pituitary hangs off of the stalk of the anterior surface of the hypothalamus. The pituitary has two parts, the anterior and the posterior lobes and the hypothalamus is ultimately what allows the 2 sides to communicate
Discuss the roles of hormones in maintaining blood calcium levels
There are two hormones that take part in maintaining blood calcium levels. The first hormone is calcitonin which is produced by they thyroid gland. This hormone decreases blood calcium levels by causing calcium to be deposited into the bones. The second hormone is parathormone(parthyroid hormone) which is the most important regulator of blood calcium levels. This hormone is released by the parathyroid glands to stimulate bone estruction in order to break down the bone matrix and release calcium into thr blood
Explain the causes and effects of menopause
As women age, the effeciency of the ovaries begins to decline which causes menopause. During menopause the reproductive organs begin to atrophy and women are no longer able to beat children.
A child thats extremely small for his age, shows signs of mental retardation, hair is thinning, and had dry skin would probaby have a diagnosis of _____________.
Cretinism
Explain why drinking alcohol would be a poor choice for someone who just participated in a strenuous physical activity on a hot day
Because alcohol inhibits the the antidiuretic hormone, which regulates the water content in the blood by inhibiting urine production and causes the kidneys to absorb more water
Discuss how renin and angiotensin II help restore low blood pressure to normal
Renin is an enzyme that is produced by the kidneys when blood pressure drops. Renin causes a reaction that forms angiotensin II which in turn is a potent stimulator of aldosterone release. Aldosterone and atrial natriuretic peptide both have an important role in blood pressure and blood volume.
If someone has developed Type 2 diabetes des it mean that their pancreas doesn’t work at all?
Not exactly, kidney tubules are not reabsorbing glucose fast enough in which glucose spills into the urine.
Explain negative feedback and how it regulates blood levels of the various hormones.
Negative feedback is when hormone secretion is triggered by some internal or external stimulus to raise hormone levels. The rising hormone levels inhibit hormone release. Also, blood levels of many hormones vary only within a very narrow range. That is how it regulates blood levels.
Explain why not all organs are target organs for all hormones.
In order for a cell to respond to a hormone it must have specific protein receptors on it’s plasma membrane or in it’s inferior for that hormone to attach and bind. The hormone can only influence the cell when binding occurs
Explain how the nervous and endocrine system differ.
The nervous system is built for speed, thus, using nerve impulses to prod muscles and glands into action. The endocrine system uses chemical messengers called hormones which are released in the blood that travels throughout the body.
What is the most common cause of hypersecretion of endocrine organs
The most common cause od hyperscretin by the endocrine system is a tumor in the adrenal medulla. The adrenal medulla is part of the sympathetic nervous system so when you are stressed out the adrenal medulla is stimulated which causes the adrenal medulla to literally dump it’s hormones into the blood stream.
The most common type of leukocyte is a __________.
neutrophil
The type of leukocyte that fights allergies and parasitic worms __________.
eosinophil
Normal blood pH falls in a range between ____ and ______.
7.35 to 7.45
The plasma protein that contributes to osmotic pressure of blood is __________.
Albumin
The iron containing protein found in RBC’s that transports the majority of oxygen carried in the blood is _________.
Hemoglobin
The inherited type of anemia that causes spiky and sharp red blood cells is _________
sickle cell anemia
A red blood cell disorder caused by a life at high altitude is called ___________
(Secondary) Polycythemia
White blood cells are also called _______
leukocytes
Process by which white blood cells travel through the wall of blood vessels is termed ___________
Diapedis (leaping across)
Abnormally high levels of white blood cells causes a condition known as __________
Leukemia
White blood cells containing granules and lobed nuclei are classified as __________
Granulocytes
The stem cell that gives rise to all formed elements is the __________
Hemocytoblast
The process by which bleeding is stopped is called __________
Hemostasis
A thrombus (clot that develops in an unbroken blood vessel) that has broken away from a vessel wall and is freely floating in e blood stream is called _________
Embolus
When antibodies bind to antigens on foreign blood types, clumping or ___________ occurs.
Agglutination
The universal donor type that can donate to any blood group type is _____?
O
The blood type that contains antigens A and B is ______
AB
If you carry the Rh antigen, you are referred to as _______~
Rh+
The condition in wuch maternal antibodies cross the placenta and destroy the baby’s RBCs is called ______________.
Hemolytic disease of the newborn.
The condition in which fetal RBC’s are destroyed faster than the liver can rid the body of breakdown products of hemoglobin is called _________.
Physiologic Jaundice
The matrix of blood is called _______
Plasma
In a centrifuged blood sample, the buffy coat between the formed elements and the plasma contains___________
Leukocytes and platlets
What are physical characteristics of blood?
Sticky, opaque, heavier than water, alkaline
Hemocrit is e percentage of ________
erythrocytes in the blood
What is the most abundant formed element?
erythrocytes
Erythrocytes lack a _______ and most ________.
nucleus and most organelles
Normal whole blood contains _________ g of hemoglobin per 100mL
12-18
Which of the following red blood cell disorders may result from life at a higher altitude
p o l y c y t h e m i a
white blood cells differ from red blood cells because they contain_________.
a nucleus and most organelles
What red blood cell disorder may result form life at a higher altitude?
polycythemia
leukocytosis most likely indicates________
bacterial or viral infection
neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are classified as ________
granulocytes
what granulocyte produces histamine during the inflammatory response?
basophils
the most numerous white blood cells are________.
neutrophils
the type of leukocytes thst become macrophages in the tissue are __________.
monocytes
Platelets are fragments of multinucleate cells called ________.
megakaryocytes
where does hemotopoiesis produce new red blood cells?
red bone marrow
Erythropoeitin is a hormone produced by the kidneys in response to low levels of __________.
oxygen
The average functional lifespan of a red blood cells (RBC) is ________.
100-120 days
An immature RBC which contains some endoplasmic reticulum is called a _________.
reticulocyte
The hormone that regulates the rate of erythrocyte production is ___________.
erythropoietin
Megakaryocytes pinch off anucleate fragments called ______.
platelets
The series of reactions that stop blood flow following a cut is called _______.
coagulation
What is the proper sequence of hemostasis
Vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation
What chemical is released to bring about vasoconstriction during vascular spasm stage of hemostasis?
Serotonin
Blood normally clots in approximately_______ minutes.
3 to 6
Formation of an insoluble clot during hemostasis is termed ________.
coagulation
What insoluable fiber forms a mesh network and the basis for the formation of a clot during coagulation
fibrin
A clot that breaks away from a vessel wall and circulates freely wi thin the blood stream is called ___________.
embolus
Hemophilia is a type of what?
Blood clotting disorder
Bleeding disorders ofter occur from a lack of what vitamins?
Vitamin K
The ion essential for blood clotting is ________?
calcium
The organ largely responsible for the synthesis of clotting factor is the ________.
liver
Severe shock occurs with blood loss of ________.
Over 30%
A substance that stimulates the immune system to release antibodies is termed__________
Antigen
Process whereby the binding of antibodies to antigens causes RBCs to clump is called _______.
Agglutination
What blood type contains the A antigen only
Blood type A
The most common type of blood in the US population is ________
Type O
The Universal recepient has blood type________.
AB
Hemolysis most likely will occur when ___________.
an Rh negative person receives a second transfusion from a blood that is Rh positive
What blood type(s) can a person with type O recieve?
Type O
The immune serum used to prevent maternal sensitization to Rh antigens is __________.
RhoGAM
Which blood type carries no antigens?
Blood type O
Compatibility testing for agglutination of donor RBCs by the recipients serum is called ________.
cross matching
Physiologic jaundice occuring in newborns results from _____.
accumulation of destroyed fetal red blood cells
True/False: Normal blood pH is between 7.35 and 7.45
True
True/False: Blood plasma makes up the majority of blood content.
True
True/False: The temperature of blood is slightly lower than body temperature
False (it’s 100.4 or 38c)
True/False: Leukocytes are more numerous in blood than erythrocytes.
False
True/False: Amount of hemoglobin contained within a RBC determines its capacity to transport oxygen.
True
True/False: An excessive or abnormal increase in # of erythrocytes in blood is termed amemia.
False (polucythemia)
True/False:Basophils are the most numerous type of leukocyte
false (neutrophils)
True/False: All formed elements arise froma common type of stem cell called a hemocytoblast.
True
Normal blood volume in healthy males is 5-6 liters
True
True/False: Erythropoeitin is released to stimulate platelet production in response to inadequate amounts of oxygen in blood.
False (thrombopoietin)
True/False: Antigens are substances that body recognize as foreign.
True
True/False:A phlebotomist collects and processes blood samples for labratory analysis.
True
True/False: Blood type A can receive Blood types A and AB during a transfusion.
False (A & O)
True/False: Rh- related problems occur in pregnant Rh- women carrying an Rh positive baby.
True
True/False: Universal donors can receive blood groups A, B, AB, and O.
False, (Only O)
Excess # of these cells cause leukocytosis
leukocytes
Alternate name for white blood cells
leukocytes
Type of blood cell that contains a nucleus and organelles
Leukocyte
Type of cell that transports carbon dioxide
Erythrocyte
Type of cell produced in response to erythropoietin
erythrocytes
Cell fragments that form the rupture of megakaryocyte
platelets
Immature form of this cell is called a reticulocyte
erythrocyte
Type of cell that contains hemoglobin for gas transport
Erythrocyte
Most common type of blood cell
erythrocyte
type of cell fragment involved in hemostasis
platelets
Type of blood that contains no antigens
O
Type that possesses the A antigen only
A
Type that can only receive blood types B and O
B
Blood type that forms the anti A and Anti B antibodies
O
Bllod type known as the universal donor
O
Blood type known as the universal recipient
AB
Discuss why Martina, who has blood type A cannot receive blood type B during a transfusion.
Martina cannot receive blood type B because her and a person with type B each have different antigens in their blood. Martina’s blood (type A) contains A antigens, and type B has B antigens. When the two blood types come together, the antigens in Martina’s blood will recognize the donor’s antigens as foreign. The antigens in Martina’s blood will then produce antibodies that will react with the donor’s blood. Martina (type A) produces anti-B antibodies, where as type B produces anti-A antibodies. Thus, Martina’s blood antigens will reject the donor’s blood and the antibodies produced will attack the donor’s, causing agglutination (clumping of the red blood cells) which will clog the blood vessels and cause death.
Discuss how the anatomy of a granulocyte differs from that of an agranulocyte
A granulocyte is a type of white blood cell (leukocyte) that contains granules in the cytoplasm. There are three types of granulocytes: neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils. Each type of WBC has lobed nuclei; neutrophils have a multi-lobed nucleus, eosinophils’ nuclei are shaped like a telephone receiver, and basophils have figure-8 or s-shaped nuclei. Agranulocytes are WBCs that have no visible granules in the cytoplasm. Agranulocytes are lymphocytes and monocytes; lymphocytes have spherical nuclei and monocytes have large kidney-shaped nuclei.
Describe the three phases of normal blood clotting process
In the first phase of the blood-clotting process, vascular spasms occur. This means that smooth muscle contracts to vasoconstrict (narrow) the injured blood vessel in order to decrease blood loss. Then, a platelet plug forms around the exposed collagen fibers of the injured blood vessel. The platelets release chemicals that make them stick together in order for the plug to form. Finally, the clotting factors in the blood’s plasma react with calcium ions to form thrombin, which helps trap the RBCs in a meshwork which forms the basis of the clot.
Which situation do you predict to prompt the release of more erythrocytes into the blood: anemia or polycythemia? Explain
Anemia would prompt the release of more erythropoietin into the blood, not polycythemia. Polycythemia means there is an abnormal increase in the number of RBCs in the blood; in contrast, anemia is a condition where not enough RBCs are present in the blood. Erythropoietin is a chemical that stimulates RBC production, so anemia would cause a need for more erythropoietin to be released into the blood.
Describe the ABO and Rh groups
Blood type ABO is known as the “universal recipient” because since it produces no antibodies, any blood type can be transfused because ABO blood will not recognize any other blood type as foreign. Rh blood types are named for a blood antigen originally found in Rhesus monkeys. When the antigen was discovered in humans, they were then able to determine if a person is A/B/AB/O and Rh- or Rh+. If a person is Rh+, their blood contains the Rh antigen along with whatever antigen is produced by their lettered blood type. Most Americans are Rh
Explain the antigen-antibody response as it relates to blood groups
Antigens are specific proteins that are formed in blood pertaining to an individual’s blood type. The antigens are what recognize a blood type during a transfusion and determine whether the donor’s blood will be accepted or rejected. If a type of blood is transfused that produces antigens other than the recipient’s, then the blood will be rejected and the recipient’s antigens will stimulate the production of antibodies. The antibodies will react with the donor’s blood and agglutinate, causing the two blood types to clump together which will lead to death. This is why it is crucial to match the donor’s blood type to the recipient’s.
Discuss hemolytic disease of the newborn
Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when a pregnant woman has Rh- blood and is carrying a baby with Rh+ blood (due to the father being Rh+). By the time the first pregnancy is completed, the mother has become sensitized to the Rh+ antigens and will produce antibodies to react to them. Thus, if the mother becomes pregnant again with an Rh+ baby, her antibodies will destroy the baby’s RBCs. Hemolytic disease of the newborn can lead to brain damage in the infant and eventually may lead to death. The only way to prevent this disease is by treating the mother with an immune serum called RhoGAM immediately after giving birth for the first time.
Layer of the heart wall that recieves stimulus foem the purkinje fibers
myocardium
The partition where the bundle branches are located is ____________.
Intercentricular septum
The heart is situated within the medial portion of the thoracic cavity, an indentation known as _______.
Mediastinum
The visceral layer of serous pericardium is actually the sam elayer as the _________.
epicardium
The 2 superior chamber of the heart are known as _______, while the two inferior discharging chambers are known as the _______.
atria, ventricles
The valves located between the atria and ventricles are known as the ___________ valves
Atrioventricular (AV)
Blood leaves the right ventricle through a large artery called the ____________.
Pulmonary artery
The left atrium receives blood from the lungs via vessels identified as _________.
Pulmonary veins
The tiny white cords that anchor the cusps or flaps of the endocardium to the walls of the ventricles are called the ________ __________
chordae tendineae
Blood nourishing the myocardium with oxygenated blood comes from the vessels that branch off the aorta are called ______ ______.
coronary arteries
The circulation from the heart to the lungs and back is known as _________ circulation
pulmonary
The bicuspid valve is also referred to to as the ____________
Left AV valve or mitral valve
The ventricles ________, the AV valves are closed
Contract
The coronary veins empty blood from the myocardium into a large vein on the posterior side of the heart known as the _________.
Coronary sinus
The sinoatrial node, located in the right atrium of the heart is often called the _______.
pacemaker
A recording of the heart’s electrical activity is referred to as an _________.
electrocardiogram
The first “lub” is caused by the closure of the _______ valves
AV
The term that means heart contraction is _______.
systole
During mid to late diastole, the pressure in the heart is _____.
low
The average heart beats about ____ times per minute.
75
Cardiac output is he product of _____ and ______
heart rate and stroke volume
The hormones epinephrine and thyroxine will cause the heart rate to _____
increase
Larger blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called _______.
arteries
Type of tissue composing the tunica intima is ________, ________
endothelium, squamos epithelial
Arteries are normally depicted as red whoe veins are colored blue. The exception to the rule are _________ arteries and veins.
Pulmonary
The amount of blood being pumped out of each side of the heart in one minute is called _________
cardiac output
Larger veins have _______ to prevent backflow of blood.
valves
The largest artery in the body is the_________.
aorta
The organs served by the renal arteries and veins are the _________.
kidneys
The longest veins in thhe body drain e leg and are the ____________.
Great Saphenous Veins
Th e single vessel that drains blood from the digestive tract organs to the liver is the _________
Hepatic Portal Vein
Branches of the common carotid arteries , know as the _____________ travel through the neck into the skull through the temporal bone to supply the brain and cerebral arterial circle (circle of willis) with blood.
Internal Corotid Arteries
The vessel that carries oxygenated and nutrient rich blood to the fetus is the unbilical _______.
Vein
The flaplike opening in the interatrial septum of the fetus through which blood is shunted directly from the right atrium to the left atrium if the _________
foramen ovale
The pressure blood exerts against the inner walls of the blood vessels in known as _________.
Blood Pressure
The narrowing of blood vessels is known as __________.
vasoconstriction
Fluid tends to be forced out of a capillary bed by _________ while __________ tends to draw fluid into the capillary bed
Blood pressure, osmotic pressure
The pointed apex of the heart is oriented toward the_______.
Left Hip
The layer of the heart wall synonomous with e visceral layer of the serous pericardium is _______.
epicardium
Pulmonary circulation involves blood flow to and from the heart to the ________.
Lungs
The right AV valve is known as the _________
tricuspid valve
Pulmonary veins _________ ________ to the _________.
transport oxygenated blood to the heart
What structure divides the left from the right ventricle
interventricular septum
When ventricles contract the bicuspid valve prevent blood from flowing from the _______ to the _______
left ventricle to the left atrium
The tricuspid valve is located between the _______
right atrium and right ventricle
Deoxegynated blood is returned to the right side of the heart by the ________
Superior and Inferior Vena cava
Does the pulmonary vein carry oxygenated blood?
Yes
Which valve gaurds the base of the aorta and opens when the ventricles are contracting?
Aortic semilunar valve
what arteries directly branch off the left coronary artery?
Anterior interventricular and circumflex arteries
The sinoatrial node is located in the _________.
Right Atrium
What is the correct path for the transmission on an impulse in the intrinsic conduction system of the heart?
SA Node, AV Node, AV Bundle, Left & Right Bundle Branches, Purkinje Fibers
Chest pain resulting from the loss of oxygen to the heart cells is called ________.
Angina Pectoris
What valves are open and closed during ventricul systole?
AV Valves close, seminlumar valves open, blood rushes out of the ventricles, pressure in ventricles rises
The Mitral valve is normally closed _______
When the ventricle is in systole
A person who has a heart beat of 75 bpm and a stroke volume of 60 mL per beat has a cardiac output of ?
4500 mL/minute
Describe the “lub lub” sound from the heart
1st sound is from the AV valves closing and is usually louder and longer, the 2nd sound is caused by the closure of the semilunar valves
The volume of blood pumped out of each ventricle with each beat of the heart is know as _________
stroke volume
The pathway for blood in the system vascular system is _____________
Arteries, arterioles, capillary beds, venules, veins
What effect does epiniphrine have on the heart?
It increases heart rate
What vessels carry blood away from the heart
veins
A decreas in the venous return to the heart will in turn create a decrease in ________.
stroke volume and cardiac output
What is the correct order from outer to inner layer of a blood vessel wall
Tunica externa, tunica media, tunica intima
The right subcoavian and corotid arteries directly branch off the _________
ascending aorta
Does the thoracic aorta receive blood directly fro the aortic arch?
no
The external carotid artery serves the skin and muscles of the head and
Neck
What artery supplies the first half of the large intestine?
Superior Mesenteric artery
What is the proper pathway that blood flows from the aortic arch to the left arm?
Aortic arch, left subclavian artery, left acillary artery, left brachial artery
The external carotid artery symptoms of skin and muscles of the head and ______
Neck
The brachiocephalic vein returns blood to the ______
Superior vena cava
The left and right renal veins empty blood from the ______
Kidneys
The brachial vein ________
Drains blood from the radial and ulnar veins, Then empties blood into the axillary vein
The umbilical vein carries_______
Oxygen and nutrients from the placenta to the fetus
High fetal shunt bypasses the lungs by directly connecting the right and off atrium
Foamed ovals
Is the renal artery a pressure point?
No
Which blood vessel has the lowest blood pressure?
Veins
The friction blood encounters as it flows through the vessels is called________.
Peripheral friction
Generalized vasoconstriction occurs as a result of ________.
Increase in sympathetic nerve system firing
What hormone promotes sodium ion reabsorption by the kidney in order to increase blood pressure and blood volume?
Aldosterone
Are tight junctions a method or pathway I movement of substances traveling across the capillary wall?
No
Substances tend to leave the blood stream at the arterial end of the capillary because_______
Blood pressure is higher at the arterial end of the capillary
Coronary heart disease results from __________
Accumulation of fatty substances within blood vessels
True/ False: the fibrous pericardium is superficial to the serous pericardium surrounding the heart.
True
True/ False: The interact dial septum divides the two atria transversely.
False (longitudinally)
True/ False:
.
True/ False: The cordae tendoneae. Anchor on the semi lunar valves to the walls of the ventricles
False
True/ False: The alternate name for the bicuspid valve is Mitral valve
True
True/ False: the semilunar valves prevent the backflow of blood into the atria when the ventricles are contracting
False (they prevent backflow from the arteries back to the heart)
True/ False: the alternate name for the bicuspid valve is the mitral valve.
True
True/ False: The coronary sinus on the backside of the heart drains deoxygenated blood from the wall of the heart into the left atrium
False (into the right atrium)
True/ False: Blood drained from the heart after cardiac circulation returns to the left atrium of the heart
False (the right atrium)
True/ False: The part of the intrinsic Conduction system of the heart That directly supplies the walls of the ventricles is the purkinje fibers
True
True/ False: The AV node starts each heart beat and is often called the pacemaker of the heart
False (it is the SA node)
True/False: The average heart beats approx 75 times per minute at rest
True
True/False: During ventricular diastole, the bicuspid valve and tricuspid valves are closed
False (AV valves are open)
True/False: Cardiac output is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by the systolic blood pressure.
False (it is stroke volume X heart rate)
True/False: Reductions in venous return cause reductions in both stroke volume and cardiac output
True
True/False: An increased firing of the paradympathetic nervous system causes increased cardiac output.
False (it slows it)
True/False:Smooth Muscle and elastic tissue in a blood vessel wall is found primarily in the tunica media
True
True/False: Capillaries are composed of tunica intima.
True
True/False: Exchanges between blood and tissue cells occur in the capillary beds.
True
True/False: When the precapillary sphincters are closed, blood flows through the shunts and bypasses the tissue cells.
True
True/False: The portion of the aorta in the abdominopelvic cavity is known as the thoracic aorta.
Falsa ( It is the abdominal aorta)
True/False: The three branches of the aortic arch are the brachiocephalic trunk, left common corotid artery, and the left subclavian artery.
True
True/False: The brachial artery branches to form the femoral and popliteal arteries.
False
True/False: The common iliac vein drains blood from the inferior vena cava
True
True/False: Veins draining the head and arms empty into e inferior vena cava.
False
True/False: The hepatic veins drain the blood from the liver and returns it to the inferior vena cava.
true
True/False: The circle of willis involves blood flow through the liver.
False
True/False: The major vessels involved with hepatic portal circulation are the inferior and superior mesenteric arteries, the splenic artery, and the left gastric artery.
False (it is the veins, not the arteries)
True/False: The umbilical vein carries blood rich in oxygen & nutrients to the fetus.
True
True/False: In fetal circulation blood travels directly fron the right atrium to the left atrium through the foramen ovale.
True
True/False: Diastolic pressure in the pressure in the arteries at the peak of contraction.
false (at rest)
True/False: an increase in blood vessel diameter causes arterial blood pressure to decrease
True
True/False: Hypotension is diastolic pressure below 100mm Hg
False (it is systolic pressure below 100)
True/False: Blood cells and proteins typically can not pass directly across the walls of the capillaries and are thus prevented from leaving or entering the capillaries.
True
Which chamber if the heart has the thickest wall?
Left ventricle
What is the discharging chamber on the left side of the heart?
Left ventricle
Which heart chamber contains the Sinoatrial node?
Right atrium
Which heart chamber pumps blood to the pulmonary trunk
Right ventricle
Which heart chamber contains the bicuspid valve on the roof of this chamber?
Left Ventricle
Which chamber of the heart does the coronary sinus empty blood from cardiac circulation
right atrium
The 4 pulmonary veins return oxygenated blood to this chamber of the heart
Left atrium
What is the outmost layer surrounding the heart that anchors it to the sternum and diapragm?
Fibrous pericardium
What is the outmost serous membrane layer that is deep to the fibrous pericardium yet superficial to the visceral pericardium?
Parietal pericardium
The epicardium of the heart is synonomous with this serous membrane layer of the heart.
Visceral Pericardium
Clogging of the heart’s vessels with fatty buildup is ________.
Coronoary atherosclorosis
Abnormal heart sounds are ________.
Heart murmurs
Twisted dialated veins resulting from overworked valves are _______
Varicose veins
Bacterial infection of the endocardium is _______
Endocarditis
Chest pain resulting from a loss of oxygen to the myocardium is _______
Angina pectoris
Inflammation of the pericardium surrounding the heart is called _______.
pericarditis
Heart attack is also called _______.
Myocardial infarction
Which vessels carry blood away from the heart?
Arteries
What vessels return blood to the heart?
Veins
The superior and inferior vena cava are classified as what kind of vessels?
Veins
The aorta is classified as what kind of vessel?
Artery
These vessels have thicker and heavier tunica media.
arteries
Nutrient and gas exchange happens is these vessels.
Capillaries
Blood pressure is low in these vessels.
Veins
These vessels have thinner walls and transport oxygen poor blood
Veins
Some of these larger vessels have valves to prevent backflow
Veins
Venules drain into these tiny vessels
capillaries
True/False: The average heart beats approx 75 times per minute at rest
True
True/False: During ventricular diastole, the bicuspid valve and tricuspid valves are closed
False (AV valves are open)
True/False: Cardiac output is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by the systolic blood pressure.
False (it is stroke volume X heart rate)
True/False: Reductions in venous return cause reductions in both stroke volume and cardiac output
True
True/False: An increased firing of the paradympathetic nervous system causes increased cardiac output.
False (it slows it)
True/False:Smooth Muscle and elastic tissue in a blood vessel wall is found primarily in the tunica media
True
True/False: Capillaries are composed of tunica intima.
True
True/False: Exchanges between blood and tissue cells occur in the capillary beds.
True
True/False: When the precapillary sphincters are closed, blood flows through the shunts and bypasses the tissue cells.
True
True/False: The portion of the aorta in the abdominopelvic cavity is known as the thoracic aorta.
Falsa ( It is the abdominal aorta)
True/False: The three branches of the aortic arch are the brachiocephalic trunk, left common corotid artery, and the left subclavian artery.
True
True/False: The brachial artery branches to form the femoral and popliteal arteries.
False
True/False: The common iliac vein drains blood from the inferior vena cava
True
True/False: Veins draining the head and arms empty into e inferior vena cava.
False
True/False: The hepatic veins drain the blood from the liver and returns it to the inferior vena cava.
true
True/False: The circle of willis involves blood flow through the liver.
False
True/False: The major vessels involved with hepatic portal circulation are the inferior and superior mesenteric arteries, the splenic artery, and the left gastric artery.
False (it is the veins, not the arteries)
True/False: The umbilical vein carries blood rich in oxygen & nutrients to the fetus.
True
True/False: In fetal circulation blood travels directly fron the right atrium to the left atrium through the foramen ovale.
True
True/False: Diastolic pressure in the pressure in the arteries at the peak of contraction.
false (at rest)
True/False: an increase in blood vessel diameter causes arterial blood pressure to decrease
True
True/False: Hypotension is diastolic pressure below 100mm Hg
False (it is systolic pressure below 100)
True/False: Blood cells and proteins typically can not pass directly across the walls of the capillaries and are thus prevented from leaving or entering the capillaries.
True
Which chamber if the heart has the thickest wall?
Left ventricle
What is the discharging chamber on the left side of the heart?
Left ventricle
Which heart chamber contains the Sinoatrial node?
Right atrium
Which heart chamber pumps blood to the pulmonary trunk
Right ventricle
Which heart chamber contains the bicuspid valve on the roof of this chamber?
Left Ventricle
Which chamber of the heart does the coronary sinus empty blood from cardiac circulation
right atrium
The 4 pulmonary veins return oxygenated blood to this chamber of the heart
Left atrium
What is the outmost layer surrounding the heart that anchors it to the sternum and diapragm?
Fibrous pericardium
What is the outmost serous membrane layer that is deep to the fibrous pericardium yet superficial to the visceral pericardium?
Parietal pericardium
The epicardium of the heart is synonomous with this serous membrane layer of the heart.
Visceral Pericardium
Clogging of the heart’s vessels with fatty buildup is ________.
Coronoary atherosclorosis
Abnormal heart sounds are ________.
Heart murmurs
Twisted dialated veins resulting from overworked valves are _______
Varicose veins
Bacterial infection of the endocardium is _______
Endocarditis
Chest pain resulting from a loss of oxygen to the myocardium is _______
Angina pectoris
Inflammation of the pericardium surrounding the heart is called _______.
pericarditis
Heart attack is also called _______.
Myocardial infarction
Which vessels carry blood away from the heart?
Arteries
What vessels return blood to the heart?
Veins
The superior and inferior vena cava are classified as what kind of vessels?
Veins
The aorta is classified as what kind of vessel?
Artery
These vessels have thicker and heavier tunica media.
arteries
Nutrient and gas exchange happens is these vessels.
Capillaries
Blood pressure is low in these vessels.
Veins
These vessels have thinner walls and transport oxygen poor blood
Veins
Some of these larger vessels have valves to prevent backflow
Veins
Venules drain into these tiny vessels
capillaries
Essay: ) Trace the path of a drop of blood, starting at the right atrium and returning to the right atrium, through the pulmonary and systemic circuits of the cardiovascular system. Identify the chambers, valves, and vessels (except specific systemic blood vessels that are not directly associated with the heart), and indicate whether the blood is oxygenated or deoxygenated in each area.
From the right atrium, blood flows through the right AV valve and into the right ventricle, from there blood flows through the pulmonary semilunar valves and into the pulmonary arteries. Next the blood flows to the lungs and returns from the lungs to the heart through the pulmonary veins into the left atrium. Next blood passes through the left AV valve into the left ventricle. Lastly, blood will pass thorough the aortic semilunar valve before entering the aorta and going out the the rest of the body.
Essay: Identify the five major parts of the intrinsic conduction system of the heart in their normal order, beginning with the pacemaker.
SA Node > AV Node > AV Bundle > Bundle Branches > Purkinje Fibers.
Essay: Discuss the events that are taking place in the cardiac cycle during the left ventricular systole. Indicate whether the other heart chambers are in systole or diastole and whether they are filling or emptying of blood. If they are emptying, state where the blood is going. If they are filling with blood, state where the blood is coming from. Include an explanation of which valves are open and which valves are closed, in addition to whether the coronary system is filling or emptying of blood.
uring Ventricular systole (contraction) pressure increases in the ventricles and the AV valves shut. During ventricular systole the atria are in diastole (rest) and they are filling with blood. The pressure in the ventricle is higher than the artieries leaving the heard so the semilunar valves are forced open and blood rushes out of the ventricle.
Essay: Define peripheral resistance. Explain several factors that cause it to increase and its effect on arterial blood pressure.
Paeripheral resistance is the amount of friction the blood encounters as it flows though the blood vessels. The factors that effect it include the sympathetic nervous system that causes vasoconstriction, The kidneys, temperature, different chemicals, and diet.
Explain the role of valves in heart functioning.
The atrioventricular valves (AV) valves separate the atrium form the ventricles. These valves prevent back flow into the atria when the ventricles contract. The other valves are the semilunar valves which prevent blood from back flowing into the ventricles.
Essay: Name two shunts that bypass the lungs in a fetus. Briefly explain the structures these shunts connect.
The two shunts are the foramen ovale and the ductus arteriosus. The foramen ovale shunts the blood so that blood directly goes from the right atrium into the left atrium. The ductus arteriosus connects the aorta and the pulmonary trunk.
Essay: Describe the two types of pressures controlling fluid movement in a capillary bed. Explain the role of each pressure in fluid movement.
The two types of pressure controlling fluid in the capillary beds are blood pressure and osmotic pressure. In the arterial end of the capillary blood pressure is more than osmotic pressure and fluid tend to leak out into the interstitial fluid because of not only the pressure but also due to blood has a higher solute concentration than interstitial fluid. At the venous end of the capillary blood pressure is lower than osmotic pressure so the fluid is drawn into the venout end.
Lymph fluid and some plasma proteins originate (escape) from the ___________.
Capillary Beds
Excess accumulations of fluid which impair the exchange of materials within the tissues, is called ______.
Edema
The two large ducts in the thoracic region that drain lymph are called the ________ and ___________.
Right Lymphatic Duct and Thoracici Duct.
The three regions of the body that contain large collections of lymph nodes are the ______, ________, and ________.
Inguinal, Axillary, and Cervical Regions
The role of the ________ in the lymphatic system is to remove worn out blood cells and return some of the product of the liver.
Spleen
Peyer’s patches and the tonsils are part of the collection of small lymphoid tissues that protect the upper respiratory and digestive tracts from infection and are referred to as ___________.
Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue (MALT)
Harmful or disease causing microorganisms form which nonspecific defenses protect the body are called ___________.
Pathogens
List the four most common indicators of acute inflammation:
Redness, Heat, Swelling, and Pain
The third line of defense involves the adaptive response mediated by the __________
Specific Defense System
The binding of complement proteins to certain sugar or proteins on a foreign cell’s surface is called ___________.
Complement Fixation
Chemical secreted by white blood cells and macrophages called _________ help to increase the body’s present temperature to promote a fever.
Pyrogens
Cells studded with protein molecules found on our own cells that do not trigger an immune response with us (but may within others) are called ___________.
Self Antigens
Troublesome small molecules or incomplete antigens that may mount an attack that is harmful rather than protective are called ___________
Hapten or Incomplete Antigens
Most B Cell clone members become ____________
Plasma Cells
The major role of ________ cells is to engulf antigens and present pieces of them to the cells that will deal with those fragments.
Antigen-Presenting
Active immunity to tetanus, whooping cough, and polio can be artificially acquired when we receive_______.
Vaccines
The Five major immunoglobulin classes are ____________.
IgM, IgA, IgD, IgG, IgE (MADGE)
The region of the antibody that varies from antibody to antibody is called the _________ region.
The Variable Region
Large Antigen-Antibidy complexes can become insoluble and settle out of a solution, a reaction called _________.
Precipitation
Killer T Cells, which kill virus- invaded body cells, are also called ___________.
Cytotoxic
Antigens that produce abnormally vigorous immune responses whereby the immune system causes tissue damage as it fights off a perceived threat that would otherwise be harmless are called ____________.
allergies or hypersensitivities
Systemic (bodywide) acute allergic response caused by allergens that directly enter the blood, as with certain bee stings or spider bites, is called ____________.
anaphylactic shock
AIDS cripples the immune system by interfering with the activity of cells called ___________
T Cells
A tropical disease that results when parasitic worms clog the lymphatic vessels is called ________________
elephantiasis
Lymph is largely composed of water that has escaped from _________.
blood
Lymph in the right leg rejoins blood flow in the __________
subclavian veins
Lymph from the left arm returns to the heart through the _____
Thoracic duct
What are some of the mechanisms that aids in lymph return
milking action of skeletal muscles, prssure changes within the thorax, smooth muscle contractions within the lymphatic vessles, presence of valves within the larger lymph vessels.
What structure carries lymph into a lymph node
afferent lymphatic vessel
Which lymphatic organ’s major job is to destroy worn out red blood cells and return some of the products to the liver?
spleen
What lymphoid tissue trap and remove bacteria entering the throat?
Tonsils
The thymus gland is most active during __________
adolescence
The lymph organ that programs T cells and functions at peak levels only during youth is the __________
Thymus
The lymph tissues found within the walls of the small intestine are called_________
Peyer’s patches
Where are the tonsils located?
Throat
Mucosa Associated lymphatic tissue (MALT) includes_________
tonsils, the appendix, and Peyer’s patches
The body’s first line of defense against the invasion of disease causing microorganisms is _________
skin and mucous membranes
The adaptive (specific) defense system issues at attack________
Specific to particular foreign substances
Of the following, which is not one of the body's nonspecific body defenses? intact skin antibody productin inflammatory response fever natural killer cells
antibody production
The process by which neutrophils are squeezed through the capillary walls during the inflammatory process is called _________
diapedesis
Which of e following is NOT one of the four most common indicators of the inflammatory response? Redness Heat Swelling Fever Pain
Fever
The migration of phagocytes and white blood cells to an inflamed area along a chemical gradient is called _________
chemitaxis
The inflammatory process begins with the release of chemicals, which do all of the following EXCEPT? dialate blood vessels attract phagocytes to the area stimulate release of lysozome cause capillary to become leaky activate pain receptors
Stimulate release of lysozomes
Membrane attack complexes (MAC) form holes in attacked cells causing them to burst, this is a result of ________
Complement Fixation
The body’s temperature regulating “thermostat” that can be reset upward in response to pyrogens is located in the ___________
hypothalamus
Fever has the effect of doing all of the following EXCEPT:
denaturing proteins
stimulating the liver and spleen to gather up iron and zinc
increasing metabolic rate of tissues
stimulating complement fixation
speeding up repair processes
Stimulating Complement Fixatin
The study of immunity is called ________
immunology
Are self antigens typically perceived as an antigen?
No
Humoral immunity is provided by the ________
Antibodies
Regardless of whether it it matures to be a B cell or a T cell, a lymphocyt that is capable of responding for a specific antigen by binding it is said to be ________
immunocompetent
The specific foreign substances that an individual’s immune system has the ability to recognize and resist is determined by __________.
Individual Genetic makeup
Lymphocytes are trained to be self tolerant of _________
body’s own cells
B cells develop immunocompetence in the _______
bone marrow
The specific type of acquired immunity that a fetus obtains from the maternal antibodies that cross the placenta is called _______,
naturally acquired passive immunity
What specific type of acquired immunity do vaccines provide?
artificially acquired active immunity
Vaccines are not for ________
snake bites
Immune sera are used for the following EXCEPT: tuberculosis rabies snake bites botulism tetanus
tuberculosis
Which portion of the antibody’s structure determines it’s antibody class?
Constant region
Does the constant region of the antibody form an antigen bonding site
No
Is IbB an antibody class
No
IgA is mainly found ___________
in mucus and secretions such as tears and saliva
Are chemotaxis a method by which antibodies inactive antigens?
No
the specific antibody class that has the ability to cross the placenta barrier and provide immunity to the fetus is _________
IgG
The process by which antibodies bind to specific sites on bacterial exotoxines (toxic chemicials secreted by bacteria) to block their harmful effects is called _________
neutralization
Antigen presentation is essential for the activation and clonsl selection of ________.
T cells
An isograft is a tissue graft donated by _______.
A identical twin
What is ofter used to treat allergies?
antihistimines
Allergic contact dermatitis following skin contact with poion ivy would normally lead to_______
delayed hypersensitivity
The relatively common autoimmune disease in which the thyroid gland produces excessive amounts of thyrozine is _______
Grave’s disease
Is AIDS an autoimmune disease
No
True/False: The lymphatic vessels and cardiovascular veins are similar in that they operate under low pressure and some larger ones have valves
True
True/False: Lymph flows in one direction only toward he heart.
True
True/False: The lymph nodes filter bacteria, viruses, and tumor cells from blood on it’s way back to the heart.
True
True/False: Lymph nodes have efferent vessels draining the node than afferent vessels bringing fluid into the node
False
True/False:The most important function of the thymus is to destroy worn out red blood cells and return some of e products to the liver
False
True/False: Natural killers are unique phagocytic defense cells that can kill cancer cells and virus infected body cells well before the immune system is activated
False
True/False: Injured cells release chemicals such as histamine and kinins that dilate vessels, attract phagocytes and active pain receptors
True
True/False: The final disposition of cell debris as inflammation subsides is performed by neutrophils
false
True/False:The non specific defense by which complement proteins attach to sugars or proteins on e surface of foreign cells is called complement fixation.
True
True/False: Chemicals secreted by white blood cells and macrophages exposed to foreign substances that can increase body temperature are called pyrogens
True
True/False: The study of immunity and the immune system is called endocrinology.
False
True/False: Like all blood cells, lymphocytes originate from hemocytoblasts contained within red bone marrow.
True
True/False:Macrophages arise from monocytes formed within bone marrow
False
True/False: Vaccines provide naturally acquired active immunity to diseases such. as pneumonia, diptheria, and measles
False
True/False: Artificially acquired passive immunity is conferred when one receives immune serum from poisonous snake bites.
True
True/False: Antibodies are also referred to as immunoglobulins
True
True/False: There are three major immunoglobulin classes IgM, IgA, and IgD.
False
True/False: The antibody a mother passes to ger fetus is IgM
False
True/False: The process that occurs when antibodies clump foreign cells is called agglutination.
True
True/False: Memory cells are decedents of activated B or T cells
False
True/False: Antigen presentation is essential for the activation of clonal selection of T cells
True
True/False: Tissue grafts harvested from an unrelated person are called xenografts.
False
True/False: Allografts are tissue grafts taken from an unrelated person
False
True/False: Allergies, or hypersensitivities, are normal immune responses
False
True/False: Anaphylactic shock, an acute systemic allergic response, causes vasodilatation and difficulty breathg
True
True/False: As people age, they become more resistant to the development of autoimmune and immunodeficiency diseases.
False
Peyer’s patches are located ________
On the left side of the abdominal cavity
Tonsils trap and remove bacteria and pathogens entering the ______
throat
This function of the spleen is to _________
Filter and cleanse the blood of bacteria, viruses, and other debris
Location of the thymus gland
Overlying the heart
Located in the wall of the small intestines
Peyer’s patches
Located in the pharnyx (throat)
tonsils
Any substance capable of provoking an immune response
antigen
Small proteins that bind with receptors on healthy cells to promote protein synthesis and prevent viruses from binding
Interferon
Chemicals secreted by white blood cells and macrophages to raise the body’s temperature
pyrogens
Chemicals released by natural killer cells to cause cell lysis
perforins
Harmful or disease causing microorganisms
pathogens
Proteins secreted by activated B cells in response to an antigen
antibodies
Sticky substance in the respiratory and digestive tracts that trap microorganisms.
Mucus
believed to be cell surface receptor of immunocompetent B Cells
IgD
First immunoglobulin class released to plasma by plasma cells during primary response
IgM
Main antibody of primary and secondary responses
IgG
Triggers release of histamine
IgE
Potent agglutinating agent
IgM
Crosses placenta and provides passive immunity to fetus
IgG
Explain the origin and pathway of lymph.
Extremely porous, blind-ended lymphatic capillaries pick up excess tissue fluid leaked from the blood capillaries. The fluid (lymph) flows into the larger lymphatics and finally into the blood vascular system through the right lymphatic duct and the left thoracic duct.
Essay: Describe how the lymphatic and cardiovascular systems are similar in structure and function.
Like veins of the cardiovascular system, lymphatic vessels are thin walled, and the larger ones have valves. Lymph is transported by the same mechanisms that aid return of venous blood- the milking action of the skeletal muscles and pressure changes in the thorax during breathing. In addition, smooth muscle in the walls of the larger lymphatics contracts rhythmically, actually helping to “pump” the lymph along.
Essay: How do the innate and adaptive immune systems differ in their responses to foreign substances? Explain.
The innate defense system responds immediately to protect the body from all foreign substances; We come fully equipped with our innate defenses. Unlike the innate defenses, which are always prepared to defend the body, the adaptive system must first “meet” or be primed by an initial exposure to a foreign substance (antigen) before it can protect the body against the invader.
Essay: Identify the four most common indicators and major symptoms of an acute inflammatory response and explain their origins.
Dilation of the blood vessels increases the blood flow to the area, accounting for the redness(1) and heat(2) observed. Increases permeability of the capillaries allows plasma to leak from the blood into the tissue spaces, causing local edema or swelling(3) that also activates pain(4) receptors in the area.
Essay: List and describe the cells and chemicals the body uses as its second line of defense.
Phagocytes- Engulf and destroy pathogens that breach surface membrane barriers.
Natural killer cells- Promote cell lysis by direct cell attack against virus-infected or cancerous body cells.
Inflammatory Response- Prevents spread of injurious agents to adjacent tissues, disposes of pathogens and dead tissue cells, and promotes tissue repair; releases chemical mediators that attract phagocytes (and immune cells) to the area.
Antimicrobial proteins- (1) Complement- Group of plasma proteins that lyses microorganisms and intensifies inflammatory response. (2) Interferons- Proteins releases by virus-infected cells that protect uninfected tissue cells from viral takeover; mobilize immune system.
Fever- Systematic response triggered by pyrogens; high body temp inhibits multiplication of bacteria and enhances body repair processes.
Essay: Describe the four major types of transplant grafts.
utografts- Tissue grafts transplanted from one site to another in the same person.
Isografts- Tissue grafts donated by an identical twin.
Allografts- Tissue grafts taken from a person other than an identical twin.
Xenografts- Tissue grafts harvested from a different animal species.
Essay: Explain two current ideas that attempt to explain why self-tolerance breaks down in autoimmune disorders
New self-antigens appear- Such “hidden” antigens are found in sperm cells, the eye lens, and certain proteins in thyroid gland. In addition, “new self-antigens” may appear as a result of gene mutations that change structure of self-proteins or as a result of alterations in self-proteins by hapten attachment or by bacterial or viral damage.
Foreign antigens resemble self-antigens- For instance, antibodies produced during an infection caused by streptococcus bacteria are known to cross-react with heart antigens, causing damage to both the heart muscle and its valves, as well as to joints and kidneys. This age-old disease is called rheumatic fever.
