Chap 9-12 Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

The gland that produces thymosin is the?

A

Thymus

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2
Q

The gland that produces melatonin is the ?

A

Pineal Gland

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3
Q

Te gland at produces testosterone is the ?

A

Testes

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4
Q

The gland that produces insulin and glucogon is the ?

A

Pancreas

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5
Q

The gland that acts as an antagonist to the thyroid gland is the ?

A

Parathyroid Gland

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6
Q

The gland that hangs from a stalk from the hypothalamus is the ?

A

Pituitary gland

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7
Q

The gland that is the major producer of female hormones is the ?

A

Ovaries

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8
Q

The gland that is primarily responsible for body metabolism is the ?

A

Thyroid

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9
Q

The gland situated around the thyroid that operates entirely under humoral control is the ?

A

Thymus

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10
Q

The hormones that operate by direct gene activation are steroid hormones and __________?

A

Thyroid hormone

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11
Q

Hormones that are released in response to changing blood levels are controlled by ___________ stimuli.

A

Humoral

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12
Q

The protein hormone released by the anterior pituitary responsible for maitaining milk production in breast feeding females is _______?

A

Prolactin

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13
Q

The target organ of thyrotropic stimulating hormone (TSH) is the _________ gland.

A

Thyroid

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14
Q

Alcohol surpresses the production of this hormone, ___________, which normally promotes water retention and prevents dehydration.

A

Mineralocorticoids

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15
Q

Thyroxine is known by an alternate name, ______, due to the # of iodine atoms it contains

A

T4

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16
Q

Calcitonin is made by the ___________ of the thyroid gland.

A

Parafollicular cells

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17
Q

Mineralocorticoids regulate the concentration of ________ and ________ ions in our blood.

A

Sodium and Potassium

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18
Q

Cortisone and cortisol and types of ________ produced by the middle cortical layer of the adrenal gland.

A

glucocorticoids

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19
Q

The enzyme produced by the kidneys when blood pressure drops, which causes the release of aldosterone, is called _________?

A

Renin

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20
Q

Male sex hormones produced by the adrenal cortex are called __________ .

A

Androgens

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21
Q

Generalized hyposecretion of all adrenal cortex hormones leads to ____________

A

Addison’s disease.

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22
Q

Hypersecretion of glutocorticoids, often caused by a tumor results in __________

A

Cushing’s syndrome

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23
Q

Another name for Epinephrine is ___________

A

Adrenaline

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24
Q

Insulin and glucagon are both hormones that are produced by the _______________.

A

Pancreatic islets

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25
Q

glucagon acts as an antagonist to a hormone called _________.

A

Insulin

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26
Q

When blood glucose levels are too high, e beta cells of e pancreas release __________ to decrease levels.

A

Insulin

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27
Q

A hormone called __________ is believed to play an important part in establishing the body’s day-night cycle.

A

melatonin

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28
Q

A hormone called __________ plays an important role in incubating a special group of white blood cells.

A

Thymosin

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29
Q

The hormone produced by the male testes which is responsible for sperm production is __________

A

Androgens

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30
Q

Home pregnancy tests check for a hormone in the female’s urine called ____________.

A

Progesterone

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31
Q

Which body system produces chemical messengers?

A

The endocrine system

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32
Q

What changes take place during the binding of a hormone to it’s target cells

A

plasma membrane permeability changes, enzymes are activated or inactivated, mitosis is stimulated, proteins are synthesized in the cell.

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33
Q

Prostaglandins are ?

A

lipid hormones manufactured in the cell plasma membranes

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34
Q

Because steroids are lipid soluble they can do the following:

A

diffuse through plasma membranes of target cells, enter the nucleus, bind to receptor proteins within the nucleus, & activate genes to transcribe mRNA for protein synthesis.

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35
Q

Most endocrine organs are organs prodded into action by other hormones, this type of stimulus is called:

A

hormonal stimulus

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36
Q

Tropic hormones do what?

A

Stimulate other endocrine glands to secrete hormones

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37
Q

Growth hormone does what?

A

promotes growth in long bones and skeletal muscles

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38
Q

What hormones are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland

A

Growth hormone, prolactin, Follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, thyroid stimulating hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone

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39
Q

The hormone that stimulates follicle development in female overies and sperm development in male testes is _______.

A

Follicle stimulating hormone

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40
Q

Hypersecretion of growth hormone after a long bone has ended (as an adult) growth is called ________

A

acromegaly

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41
Q

Releasing and inhibiting hormones produced by the hypothalumus influence the activities of the ________ and _________.

A

Adrenal Gland and Thyroid Gland

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42
Q

An enlargement of the thyroid gland resulting from a deficiency of dietary iodine is called _______.

A

Goiter

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43
Q

What are functions of oxytocin?

A

Stimulate uterine contrations, stimulate breast milk production, labor induction, and postpartum bleeding control

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44
Q

Diabetes insipidus is caused by hyposecretion of _______

A

antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

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45
Q

What hormone prods the thyroid to release thyroxin?

A

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

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46
Q

Alcohol inhibits the secretion of ________.

A

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

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47
Q

The thyroid is located ____________.

A

Below the adams apple

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48
Q

The body’s major metabolic hormone is called _______

A

Thyroid hormone

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49
Q

The element necessary in the diet for proper thyroid function is __________

A

iodine

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50
Q

Hyposecretion of thyroxine in childhood leads to a disease called _________

A

cretinism

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51
Q

What hormones regulate calcium levels in the body?

A

Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone

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52
Q

What hormone, released by the heart, prevents aldosterone release in order to lower blood pressure?

A

Atrial Natriuretic peptide (ANP)

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53
Q

What hormones are released by the adrenal medulla?

A

Epiniphrine and norepiniphrine

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54
Q

Rising blood levels of aldosterone cause the kidney tubules to __________

A

reabsorb sodium

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55
Q

Tetany resulting from uncontrolled muscle spasms may indicate a malfunction of the _________

A

parathyroid glands

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56
Q

The enzyme produced by the kidneys when blood pressure drops, stimulating a release of aldosterone is called _________

A

Renin

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57
Q

Glucocorticoids do ____________?

A

help resist long term stress, increase blood glucose levels, decrease edema, suppress inflammation

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58
Q

Hyposecretion of the adrenal cortex hormones results in skin bronzing, feeling burn out and suppression of the immune system. This condition is known as _________.

A

Addison’s disease

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59
Q

The flight or fight response is triggered by the release of __________

A

epinephrine

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60
Q

What are sone of the actions of catecholamines?

A

stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system, increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, increased blood glucose levels

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61
Q

Insulin is produced by the cells of the pancreatic islets called _______.

A

Beta cells

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62
Q

What hormone decreases blood glucose?

A

Glucogon

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63
Q

The pancreas is located where?

A

Close to the stomach

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64
Q

The pineal gland produces what hormone?

A

Melatonin

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65
Q

The hormone that appears to help regulate our sleep-wake cycles is ________.

A

melatonin

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66
Q

Estrogens do the following:

A

stimulate menstruation, help maintain pregnancy, prepares the uterus to receive a fertilized egg.

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67
Q

What are some of the effects of testosterone

A

deepening of the voice, growth of facial hair, sperm production, development of heavy bones and muscles

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68
Q

Sex hormones produced by the overies and testes are______

A

protein hormones

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69
Q

The cells in the testes that produce testosterone are called ________.

A

gonadotropic cells

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70
Q

What hormone is produced by the placenta that stimulates the ovaries to continue producing estrogen and progesterone?

A

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)

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71
Q

Cholecystokin (CCK) and secretin are two hormones produced by the ________.

A

duodenum of the small intestine

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72
Q

True/False: The study of hormones and endocrine organs is known as immunology

A

False

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73
Q

True/False: All hormones can arouse and bring about changes in all cells of the human body

A

False

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74
Q

True/False: Most hormones are regulated by negative feedback mechanisms.

A

True

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75
Q

True/False: Hormones that are secreted in response to other hormones are prodded by hormonal stimuli.

A

True

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76
Q

True/False: Hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary are actually made by e hypothalamus

A

False

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77
Q

True/False: Hypersecretion of growth hormone during childhood leads to pituitary dwarfism

A

False

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78
Q

True/False: The target of prolactin is the female breast

A

True

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79
Q

True/False: Neurosecretory cells transport oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone to the anterior pituitary gland for storage.

A

False

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80
Q

True/False: Antidiuretic hormone inhibits urine production and promotes water reabsorption by the kidneys

A

True

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81
Q

True/False: Vaspressin in another name for antidiuretic hormone

A

True

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82
Q

True/False: Hyposecretion of FSH or LH leads to sterility in both males and females

A

True

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83
Q

True/False: Thyroid hormone targets all cells of the body

A

True

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84
Q

True/False: Diabetes insipidus is caused by hyposecretion of insulin.

A

False

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85
Q

True/False: Thyroid hormone is actually two iodine- containing hormones called T3 and T4

A

True

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86
Q

True/False: Thyroid hormone is actually two iodine- containing hormones called T3 and T4

A

True

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87
Q

True/False: Thyroid hormone is actually two iodine- containing hormones called T3 and T4

A

True

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88
Q

True/False: Thyroxine is converted to triiodothyronine at target tissues to promote metabolism

A

True

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89
Q

True/False: Calcitonin is produced by the follicular cells of the thyroid gland

A

False

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90
Q

True/False: Parathyroid hormone is the most important regulator of blood calcium concentration

A

True

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91
Q

True/False: Calcitonin is a hormone antagonist to parathyroid hormone in regulation of blood calcium levels

A

True

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92
Q

True/False: Mineralocorticoids help regulate both water and electrolyte balance in the body fluids

A

True

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93
Q

True/False: The adrenal glands are similar to the pituitary gland in that they have both glandular and neural tissue.

A

True

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94
Q

True/False: The adrenal cortex is made up of neural tissue.

A

True

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95
Q

True/False: Glucocorticoids, glucogon, and epiniphrine are hyperglycemic hormones

A

False

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96
Q

True/False: Both male and female sex hormones may lead to masculinization in both men and women

A

True

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97
Q

True/False: Both male and female sex hormones are produced by the adrenal cortex throughout life in relatively small amounts.

A

True

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98
Q

True/False: The adrenal medulla and posterior pituitary are bo composed of nervous tissue

A

True

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99
Q

True/False: Adrenaline is also known as epinephrine

A

True

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100
Q

True/False: Aldosterone raises blood glucose levels throu the breakdown of fats and proteins

A

False

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101
Q

True/False: Melatonin production peaks during the night to help regulate the body’s day/night cycle.

A

True

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102
Q

True/False: They thymus gland is located in the neck wrapped around the trachea.

A

False

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103
Q

True/False: The ovaries release estrogen and progesterone in response to gonadotropic hormones from the pituitary gland.

A

True

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104
Q

True/False: The placenta is a temporary organ formed in the uterus of pregnant women.

A

True

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105
Q

Matching Endocrine gland to Hormones:

A
Growth Hormone- Anterior Pituitary
Prolactin- Anterior Pituitary
Adrenocortictropic hormone - Anterior Pituitary
Thyroid Stimulating hormone - Anterior pituitary
Luteinizing hormone- anterior pituitary
Oxytocin - Posterior Pituitary
Antidiuretic hormone- Posterior pituitary
Follicle stimulating hormone- Anterior pituitary
Thyroxine - Thyroid
Calcitonin- thyroid
Parathyroid hormone - parathyroids
Aldosterone- adrenal cortex
Cortisone - adrenal cortex
catecholamines- adrenal medulla
glucocorticoids - adrenal cortex
insulin- pancreatic islets
glucagon- pancreatic islets
melatonin - pineal gland
thymosin- thymus
human chorionic gonadotropin- placenta
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106
Q

Match action to hormone:

A

stimulates contraction of the uteris and milk reflex- oxytocin
lowers blood calcium- calcitonin
involved in daily & seasonal bio rhythms - melatonin
stimulates thyroid to produce thyroxine-thyroidstimulating hormone
promotes reabsorption of sodium by kidneys- mineralocorticoids
lowers blood glucose levels- insulin
raises blood glucose, constricts vessels, increase metabolism- glucagon
stimulates testes & ovaries to produce hormones- follicle stimulating hormone

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107
Q

Explain 2 major chemical classifications of hormones

A

There are amino acid based hormones which include proteins, peptides, and amines. These hormones are known as organic substances. The other classification is steroids that are made up of cholesterol. These hormones are known as a chemical substance.

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108
Q

Describe 3 types of stimuli that activate endocrine organs

A

First there are hormonal stimuli which is the most common type. Hormonal stimulis is when the endocrine organs are prodded into action by other hormones. The second stimulus is humoral stemuli which changes blood levels in certain ions and nutrients that will then stimulate hormone release. Last, there are neural stimuliwhich occurs in isolated cases. This stimulus occurs when nerve fibers stimulate hormone release.

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109
Q

Explain the pituitary-hypothalamus relationship

A

The pituitary hangs off of the stalk of the anterior surface of the hypothalamus. The pituitary has two parts, the anterior and the posterior lobes and the hypothalamus is ultimately what allows the 2 sides to communicate

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110
Q

Discuss the roles of hormones in maintaining blood calcium levels

A

There are two hormones that take part in maintaining blood calcium levels. The first hormone is calcitonin which is produced by they thyroid gland. This hormone decreases blood calcium levels by causing calcium to be deposited into the bones. The second hormone is parathormone(parthyroid hormone) which is the most important regulator of blood calcium levels. This hormone is released by the parathyroid glands to stimulate bone estruction in order to break down the bone matrix and release calcium into thr blood

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111
Q

Explain the causes and effects of menopause

A

As women age, the effeciency of the ovaries begins to decline which causes menopause. During menopause the reproductive organs begin to atrophy and women are no longer able to beat children.

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112
Q

A child thats extremely small for his age, shows signs of mental retardation, hair is thinning, and had dry skin would probaby have a diagnosis of _____________.

A

Cretinism

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113
Q

Explain why drinking alcohol would be a poor choice for someone who just participated in a strenuous physical activity on a hot day

A

Because alcohol inhibits the the antidiuretic hormone, which regulates the water content in the blood by inhibiting urine production and causes the kidneys to absorb more water

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114
Q

Discuss how renin and angiotensin II help restore low blood pressure to normal

A

Renin is an enzyme that is produced by the kidneys when blood pressure drops. Renin causes a reaction that forms angiotensin II which in turn is a potent stimulator of aldosterone release. Aldosterone and atrial natriuretic peptide both have an important role in blood pressure and blood volume.

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115
Q

If someone has developed Type 2 diabetes des it mean that their pancreas doesn’t work at all?

A

Not exactly, kidney tubules are not reabsorbing glucose fast enough in which glucose spills into the urine.

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116
Q

Explain negative feedback and how it regulates blood levels of the various hormones.

A

Negative feedback is when hormone secretion is triggered by some internal or external stimulus to raise hormone levels. The rising hormone levels inhibit hormone release. Also, blood levels of many hormones vary only within a very narrow range. That is how it regulates blood levels.

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117
Q

Explain why not all organs are target organs for all hormones.

A

In order for a cell to respond to a hormone it must have specific protein receptors on it’s plasma membrane or in it’s inferior for that hormone to attach and bind. The hormone can only influence the cell when binding occurs

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118
Q

Explain how the nervous and endocrine system differ.

A

The nervous system is built for speed, thus, using nerve impulses to prod muscles and glands into action. The endocrine system uses chemical messengers called hormones which are released in the blood that travels throughout the body.

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119
Q

What is the most common cause of hypersecretion of endocrine organs

A

The most common cause od hyperscretin by the endocrine system is a tumor in the adrenal medulla. The adrenal medulla is part of the sympathetic nervous system so when you are stressed out the adrenal medulla is stimulated which causes the adrenal medulla to literally dump it’s hormones into the blood stream.

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120
Q

The most common type of leukocyte is a __________.

A

neutrophil

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121
Q

The type of leukocyte that fights allergies and parasitic worms __________.

A

eosinophil

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122
Q

Normal blood pH falls in a range between ____ and ______.

A

7.35 to 7.45

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123
Q

The plasma protein that contributes to osmotic pressure of blood is __________.

A

Albumin

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124
Q

The iron containing protein found in RBC’s that transports the majority of oxygen carried in the blood is _________.

A

Hemoglobin

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125
Q

The inherited type of anemia that causes spiky and sharp red blood cells is _________

A

sickle cell anemia

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126
Q

A red blood cell disorder caused by a life at high altitude is called ___________

A

(Secondary) Polycythemia

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127
Q

White blood cells are also called _______

A

leukocytes

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128
Q

Process by which white blood cells travel through the wall of blood vessels is termed ___________

A

Diapedis (leaping across)

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129
Q

Abnormally high levels of white blood cells causes a condition known as __________

A

Leukemia

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130
Q

White blood cells containing granules and lobed nuclei are classified as __________

A

Granulocytes

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131
Q

The stem cell that gives rise to all formed elements is the __________

A

Hemocytoblast

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132
Q

The process by which bleeding is stopped is called __________

A

Hemostasis

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133
Q

A thrombus (clot that develops in an unbroken blood vessel) that has broken away from a vessel wall and is freely floating in e blood stream is called _________

A

Embolus

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134
Q

When antibodies bind to antigens on foreign blood types, clumping or ___________ occurs.

A

Agglutination

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135
Q

The universal donor type that can donate to any blood group type is _____?

A

O

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136
Q

The blood type that contains antigens A and B is ______

A

AB

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137
Q

If you carry the Rh antigen, you are referred to as _______~

A

Rh+

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138
Q

The condition in wuch maternal antibodies cross the placenta and destroy the baby’s RBCs is called ______________.

A

Hemolytic disease of the newborn.

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139
Q

The condition in which fetal RBC’s are destroyed faster than the liver can rid the body of breakdown products of hemoglobin is called _________.

A

Physiologic Jaundice

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140
Q

The matrix of blood is called _______

A

Plasma

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141
Q

In a centrifuged blood sample, the buffy coat between the formed elements and the plasma contains___________

A

Leukocytes and platlets

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142
Q

What are physical characteristics of blood?

A

Sticky, opaque, heavier than water, alkaline

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143
Q

Hemocrit is e percentage of ________

A

erythrocytes in the blood

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144
Q

What is the most abundant formed element?

A

erythrocytes

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145
Q

Erythrocytes lack a _______ and most ________.

A

nucleus and most organelles

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146
Q

Normal whole blood contains _________ g of hemoglobin per 100mL

A

12-18

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147
Q

Which of the following red blood cell disorders may result from life at a higher altitude

A

p o l y c y t h e m i a

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148
Q

white blood cells differ from red blood cells because they contain_________.

A

a nucleus and most organelles

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149
Q

What red blood cell disorder may result form life at a higher altitude?

A

polycythemia

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150
Q

leukocytosis most likely indicates________

A

bacterial or viral infection

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151
Q

neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are classified as ________

A

granulocytes

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152
Q

what granulocyte produces histamine during the inflammatory response?

A

basophils

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153
Q

the most numerous white blood cells are________.

A

neutrophils

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154
Q

the type of leukocytes thst become macrophages in the tissue are __________.

A

monocytes

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155
Q

Platelets are fragments of multinucleate cells called ________.

A

megakaryocytes

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156
Q

where does hemotopoiesis produce new red blood cells?

A

red bone marrow

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157
Q

Erythropoeitin is a hormone produced by the kidneys in response to low levels of __________.

A

oxygen

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158
Q

The average functional lifespan of a red blood cells (RBC) is ________.

A

100-120 days

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159
Q

An immature RBC which contains some endoplasmic reticulum is called a _________.

A

reticulocyte

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160
Q

The hormone that regulates the rate of erythrocyte production is ___________.

A

erythropoietin

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161
Q

Megakaryocytes pinch off anucleate fragments called ______.

A

platelets

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162
Q

The series of reactions that stop blood flow following a cut is called _______.

A

coagulation

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163
Q

What is the proper sequence of hemostasis

A

Vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation

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164
Q

What chemical is released to bring about vasoconstriction during vascular spasm stage of hemostasis?

A

Serotonin

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165
Q

Blood normally clots in approximately_______ minutes.

A

3 to 6

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166
Q

Formation of an insoluble clot during hemostasis is termed ________.

A

coagulation

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167
Q

What insoluable fiber forms a mesh network and the basis for the formation of a clot during coagulation

A

fibrin

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168
Q

A clot that breaks away from a vessel wall and circulates freely wi thin the blood stream is called ___________.

A

embolus

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169
Q

Hemophilia is a type of what?

A

Blood clotting disorder

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170
Q

Bleeding disorders ofter occur from a lack of what vitamins?

A

Vitamin K

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171
Q

The ion essential for blood clotting is ________?

A

calcium

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172
Q

The organ largely responsible for the synthesis of clotting factor is the ________.

A

liver

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173
Q

Severe shock occurs with blood loss of ________.

A

Over 30%

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174
Q

A substance that stimulates the immune system to release antibodies is termed__________

A

Antigen

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175
Q

Process whereby the binding of antibodies to antigens causes RBCs to clump is called _______.

A

Agglutination

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176
Q

What blood type contains the A antigen only

A

Blood type A

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177
Q

The most common type of blood in the US population is ________

A

Type O

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178
Q

The Universal recepient has blood type________.

A

AB

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179
Q

Hemolysis most likely will occur when ___________.

A

an Rh negative person receives a second transfusion from a blood that is Rh positive

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180
Q

What blood type(s) can a person with type O recieve?

A

Type O

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181
Q

The immune serum used to prevent maternal sensitization to Rh antigens is __________.

A

RhoGAM

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182
Q

Which blood type carries no antigens?

A

Blood type O

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183
Q

Compatibility testing for agglutination of donor RBCs by the recipients serum is called ________.

A

cross matching

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184
Q

Physiologic jaundice occuring in newborns results from _____.

A

accumulation of destroyed fetal red blood cells

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185
Q

True/False: Normal blood pH is between 7.35 and 7.45

A

True

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186
Q

True/False: Blood plasma makes up the majority of blood content.

A

True

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187
Q

True/False: The temperature of blood is slightly lower than body temperature

A

False (it’s 100.4 or 38c)

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188
Q

True/False: Leukocytes are more numerous in blood than erythrocytes.

A

False

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189
Q

True/False: Amount of hemoglobin contained within a RBC determines its capacity to transport oxygen.

A

True

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190
Q

True/False: An excessive or abnormal increase in # of erythrocytes in blood is termed amemia.

A

False (polucythemia)

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191
Q

True/False:Basophils are the most numerous type of leukocyte

A

false (neutrophils)

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192
Q

True/False: All formed elements arise froma common type of stem cell called a hemocytoblast.

A

True

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193
Q

Normal blood volume in healthy males is 5-6 liters

A

True

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194
Q

True/False: Erythropoeitin is released to stimulate platelet production in response to inadequate amounts of oxygen in blood.

A

False (thrombopoietin)

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195
Q

True/False: Antigens are substances that body recognize as foreign.

A

True

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196
Q

True/False:A phlebotomist collects and processes blood samples for labratory analysis.

A

True

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197
Q

True/False: Blood type A can receive Blood types A and AB during a transfusion.

A

False (A & O)

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198
Q

True/False: Rh- related problems occur in pregnant Rh- women carrying an Rh positive baby.

A

True

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199
Q

True/False: Universal donors can receive blood groups A, B, AB, and O.

A

False, (Only O)

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200
Q

Excess # of these cells cause leukocytosis

A

leukocytes

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201
Q

Alternate name for white blood cells

A

leukocytes

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202
Q

Type of blood cell that contains a nucleus and organelles

A

Leukocyte

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203
Q

Type of cell that transports carbon dioxide

A

Erythrocyte

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204
Q

Type of cell produced in response to erythropoietin

A

erythrocytes

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205
Q

Cell fragments that form the rupture of megakaryocyte

A

platelets

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206
Q

Immature form of this cell is called a reticulocyte

A

erythrocyte

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207
Q

Type of cell that contains hemoglobin for gas transport

A

Erythrocyte

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208
Q

Most common type of blood cell

A

erythrocyte

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209
Q

type of cell fragment involved in hemostasis

A

platelets

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210
Q

Type of blood that contains no antigens

A

O

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211
Q

Type that possesses the A antigen only

A

A

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212
Q

Type that can only receive blood types B and O

A

B

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213
Q

Blood type that forms the anti A and Anti B antibodies

A

O

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214
Q

Bllod type known as the universal donor

A

O

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215
Q

Blood type known as the universal recipient

A

AB

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216
Q

Discuss why Martina, who has blood type A cannot receive blood type B during a transfusion.

A

​Martina cannot receive blood type B because her and a person with type B each have different antigens in their blood. Martina’s blood (type A) contains A antigens, and type B has B antigens. When the two blood types come together, the antigens in Martina’s blood will recognize the donor’s antigens as foreign. The antigens in Martina’s blood will then produce antibodies that will react with the donor’s blood. Martina (type A) produces anti-B antibodies, where as type B produces anti-A antibodies. Thus, Martina’s blood antigens will reject the donor’s blood and the antibodies produced will attack the donor’s, causing agglutination (clumping of the red blood cells) which will clog the blood vessels and cause death.

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217
Q

Discuss how the anatomy of a granulocyte differs from that of an agranulocyte

A

​A granulocyte is a type of white blood cell (leukocyte) that contains granules in the cytoplasm. There are three types of granulocytes: neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils. Each type of WBC has lobed nuclei; neutrophils have a multi-lobed nucleus, eosinophils’ nuclei are shaped like a telephone receiver, and basophils have figure-8 or s-shaped nuclei. Agranulocytes are WBCs that have no visible granules in the cytoplasm. Agranulocytes are lymphocytes and monocytes; lymphocytes have spherical nuclei and monocytes have large kidney-shaped nuclei.

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218
Q

Describe the three phases of normal blood clotting process

A

​In the first phase of the blood-clotting process, vascular spasms occur. This means that smooth muscle contracts to vasoconstrict (narrow) the injured blood vessel in order to decrease blood loss. Then, a platelet plug forms around the exposed collagen fibers of the injured blood vessel. The platelets release chemicals that make them stick together in order for the plug to form. Finally, the clotting factors in the blood’s plasma react with calcium ions to form thrombin, which helps trap the RBCs in a meshwork which forms the basis of the clot.

219
Q

Which situation do you predict to prompt the release of more erythrocytes into the blood: anemia or polycythemia? Explain

A

​Anemia would prompt the release of more erythropoietin into the blood, not polycythemia. Polycythemia means there is an abnormal increase in the number of RBCs in the blood; in contrast, anemia is a condition where not enough RBCs are present in the blood. Erythropoietin is a chemical that stimulates RBC production, so anemia would cause a need for more erythropoietin to be released into the blood.

220
Q

Describe the ABO and Rh groups

A

​Blood type ABO is known as the “universal recipient” because since it produces no antibodies, any blood type can be transfused because ABO blood will not recognize any other blood type as foreign. Rh blood types are named for a blood antigen originally found in Rhesus monkeys. When the antigen was discovered in humans, they were then able to determine if a person is A/B/AB/O and Rh- or Rh+. If a person is Rh+, their blood contains the Rh antigen along with whatever antigen is produced by their lettered blood type. Most Americans are Rh

221
Q

Explain the antigen-antibody response as it relates to blood groups

A

​Antigens are specific proteins that are formed in blood pertaining to an individual’s blood type. The antigens are what recognize a blood type during a transfusion and determine whether the donor’s blood will be accepted or rejected. If a type of blood is transfused that produces antigens other than the recipient’s, then the blood will be rejected and the recipient’s antigens will stimulate the production of antibodies. The antibodies will react with the donor’s blood and agglutinate, causing the two blood types to clump together which will lead to death. This is why it is crucial to match the donor’s blood type to the recipient’s.

222
Q

Discuss hemolytic disease of the newborn

A

Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when a pregnant woman has Rh- blood and is carrying a baby with Rh+ blood (due to the father being Rh+). By the time the first pregnancy is completed, the mother has become sensitized to the Rh+ antigens and will produce antibodies to react to them. Thus, if the mother becomes pregnant again with an Rh+ baby, her antibodies will destroy the baby’s RBCs. Hemolytic disease of the newborn can lead to brain damage in the infant and eventually may lead to death. The only way to prevent this disease is by treating the mother with an immune serum called RhoGAM immediately after giving birth for the first time.

223
Q

Layer of the heart wall that recieves stimulus foem the purkinje fibers

A

myocardium

224
Q

The partition where the bundle branches are located is ____________.

A

Intercentricular septum

225
Q

The heart is situated within the medial portion of the thoracic cavity, an indentation known as _______.

A

Mediastinum

226
Q

The visceral layer of serous pericardium is actually the sam elayer as the _________.

A

epicardium

227
Q

The 2 superior chamber of the heart are known as _______, while the two inferior discharging chambers are known as the _______.

A

atria, ventricles

228
Q

The valves located between the atria and ventricles are known as the ___________ valves

A

Atrioventricular (AV)

229
Q

Blood leaves the right ventricle through a large artery called the ____________.

A

Pulmonary artery

230
Q

The left atrium receives blood from the lungs via vessels identified as _________.

A

Pulmonary veins

231
Q

The tiny white cords that anchor the cusps or flaps of the endocardium to the walls of the ventricles are called the ________ __________

A

chordae tendineae

232
Q

Blood nourishing the myocardium with oxygenated blood comes from the vessels that branch off the aorta are called ______ ______.

A

coronary arteries

233
Q

The circulation from the heart to the lungs and back is known as _________ circulation

A

pulmonary

234
Q

The bicuspid valve is also referred to to as the ____________

A

Left AV valve or mitral valve

235
Q

The ventricles ________, the AV valves are closed

A

Contract

236
Q

The coronary veins empty blood from the myocardium into a large vein on the posterior side of the heart known as the _________.

A

Coronary sinus

237
Q

The sinoatrial node, located in the right atrium of the heart is often called the _______.

A

pacemaker

238
Q

A recording of the heart’s electrical activity is referred to as an _________.

A

electrocardiogram

239
Q

The first “lub” is caused by the closure of the _______ valves

A

AV

240
Q

The term that means heart contraction is _______.

A

systole

241
Q

During mid to late diastole, the pressure in the heart is _____.

A

low

242
Q

The average heart beats about ____ times per minute.

A

75

243
Q

Cardiac output is he product of _____ and ______

A

heart rate and stroke volume

244
Q

The hormones epinephrine and thyroxine will cause the heart rate to _____

A

increase

245
Q

Larger blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called _______.

A

arteries

246
Q

Type of tissue composing the tunica intima is ________, ________

A

endothelium, squamos epithelial

247
Q

Arteries are normally depicted as red whoe veins are colored blue. The exception to the rule are _________ arteries and veins.

A

Pulmonary

248
Q

The amount of blood being pumped out of each side of the heart in one minute is called _________

A

cardiac output

249
Q

Larger veins have _______ to prevent backflow of blood.

A

valves

250
Q

The largest artery in the body is the_________.

A

aorta

251
Q

The organs served by the renal arteries and veins are the _________.

A

kidneys

252
Q

The longest veins in thhe body drain e leg and are the ____________.

A

Great Saphenous Veins

253
Q

Th e single vessel that drains blood from the digestive tract organs to the liver is the _________

A

Hepatic Portal Vein

254
Q

Branches of the common carotid arteries , know as the _____________ travel through the neck into the skull through the temporal bone to supply the brain and cerebral arterial circle (circle of willis) with blood.

A

Internal Corotid Arteries

255
Q

The vessel that carries oxygenated and nutrient rich blood to the fetus is the unbilical _______.

A

Vein

256
Q

The flaplike opening in the interatrial septum of the fetus through which blood is shunted directly from the right atrium to the left atrium if the _________

A

foramen ovale

257
Q

The pressure blood exerts against the inner walls of the blood vessels in known as _________.

A

Blood Pressure

258
Q

The narrowing of blood vessels is known as __________.

A

vasoconstriction

259
Q

Fluid tends to be forced out of a capillary bed by _________ while __________ tends to draw fluid into the capillary bed

A

Blood pressure, osmotic pressure

260
Q

The pointed apex of the heart is oriented toward the_______.

A

Left Hip

261
Q

The layer of the heart wall synonomous with e visceral layer of the serous pericardium is _______.

A

epicardium

262
Q

Pulmonary circulation involves blood flow to and from the heart to the ________.

A

Lungs

263
Q

The right AV valve is known as the _________

A

tricuspid valve

264
Q

Pulmonary veins _________ ________ to the _________.

A

transport oxygenated blood to the heart

265
Q

What structure divides the left from the right ventricle

A

interventricular septum

266
Q

When ventricles contract the bicuspid valve prevent blood from flowing from the _______ to the _______

A

left ventricle to the left atrium

267
Q

The tricuspid valve is located between the _______

A

right atrium and right ventricle

268
Q

Deoxegynated blood is returned to the right side of the heart by the ________

A

Superior and Inferior Vena cava

269
Q

Does the pulmonary vein carry oxygenated blood?

A

Yes

270
Q

Which valve gaurds the base of the aorta and opens when the ventricles are contracting?

A

Aortic semilunar valve

271
Q

what arteries directly branch off the left coronary artery?

A

Anterior interventricular and circumflex arteries

272
Q

The sinoatrial node is located in the _________.

A

Right Atrium

273
Q

What is the correct path for the transmission on an impulse in the intrinsic conduction system of the heart?

A

SA Node, AV Node, AV Bundle, Left & Right Bundle Branches, Purkinje Fibers

274
Q

Chest pain resulting from the loss of oxygen to the heart cells is called ________.

A

Angina Pectoris

275
Q

What valves are open and closed during ventricul systole?

A

AV Valves close, seminlumar valves open, blood rushes out of the ventricles, pressure in ventricles rises

276
Q

The Mitral valve is normally closed _______

A

When the ventricle is in systole

277
Q

A person who has a heart beat of 75 bpm and a stroke volume of 60 mL per beat has a cardiac output of ?

A

4500 mL/minute

278
Q

Describe the “lub lub” sound from the heart

A

1st sound is from the AV valves closing and is usually louder and longer, the 2nd sound is caused by the closure of the semilunar valves

279
Q

The volume of blood pumped out of each ventricle with each beat of the heart is know as _________

A

stroke volume

280
Q

The pathway for blood in the system vascular system is _____________

A

Arteries, arterioles, capillary beds, venules, veins

281
Q

What effect does epiniphrine have on the heart?

A

It increases heart rate

282
Q

What vessels carry blood away from the heart

A

veins

283
Q

A decreas in the venous return to the heart will in turn create a decrease in ________.

A

stroke volume and cardiac output

284
Q

What is the correct order from outer to inner layer of a blood vessel wall

A

Tunica externa, tunica media, tunica intima

285
Q

The right subcoavian and corotid arteries directly branch off the _________

A

ascending aorta

286
Q

Does the thoracic aorta receive blood directly fro the aortic arch?

A

no

287
Q

The external carotid artery serves the skin and muscles of the head and

A

Neck

287
Q

What artery supplies the first half of the large intestine?

A

Superior Mesenteric artery

288
Q

What is the proper pathway that blood flows from the aortic arch to the left arm?

A

Aortic arch, left subclavian artery, left acillary artery, left brachial artery

289
Q

The external carotid artery symptoms of skin and muscles of the head and ______

A

Neck

290
Q

The brachiocephalic vein returns blood to the ______

A

Superior vena cava

291
Q

The left and right renal veins empty blood from the ______

A

Kidneys

292
Q

The brachial vein ________

A

Drains blood from the radial and ulnar veins, Then empties blood into the axillary vein

293
Q

The umbilical vein carries_______

A

Oxygen and nutrients from the placenta to the fetus

294
Q

High fetal shunt bypasses the lungs by directly connecting the right and off atrium

A

Foamed ovals

295
Q

Is the renal artery a pressure point?

A

No

296
Q

Which blood vessel has the lowest blood pressure?

A

Veins

297
Q

The friction blood encounters as it flows through the vessels is called________.

A

Peripheral friction

298
Q

Generalized vasoconstriction occurs as a result of ________.

A

Increase in sympathetic nerve system firing

299
Q

What hormone promotes sodium ion reabsorption by the kidney in order to increase blood pressure and blood volume?

A

Aldosterone

300
Q

Are tight junctions a method or pathway I movement of substances traveling across the capillary wall?

A

No

301
Q

Substances tend to leave the blood stream at the arterial end of the capillary because_______

A

Blood pressure is higher at the arterial end of the capillary

302
Q

Coronary heart disease results from __________

A

Accumulation of fatty substances within blood vessels

303
Q

True/ False: the fibrous pericardium is superficial to the serous pericardium surrounding the heart.

A

True

304
Q

True/ False: The interact dial septum divides the two atria transversely.

A

False (longitudinally)

305
Q

True/ False:

A

.

306
Q

True/ False: The cordae tendoneae. Anchor on the semi lunar valves to the walls of the ventricles

A

False

307
Q

True/ False: The alternate name for the bicuspid valve is Mitral valve

A

True

308
Q

True/ False: the semilunar valves prevent the backflow of blood into the atria when the ventricles are contracting

A

False (they prevent backflow from the arteries back to the heart)

309
Q

True/ False: the alternate name for the bicuspid valve is the mitral valve.

A

True

310
Q

True/ False: The coronary sinus on the backside of the heart drains deoxygenated blood from the wall of the heart into the left atrium

A

False (into the right atrium)

311
Q

True/ False: Blood drained from the heart after cardiac circulation returns to the left atrium of the heart

A

False (the right atrium)

312
Q

True/ False: The part of the intrinsic Conduction system of the heart That directly supplies the walls of the ventricles is the purkinje fibers

A

True

313
Q

True/ False: The AV node starts each heart beat and is often called the pacemaker of the heart

A

False (it is the SA node)

314
Q

True/False: The average heart beats approx 75 times per minute at rest

A

True

315
Q

True/False: During ventricular diastole, the bicuspid valve and tricuspid valves are closed

A

False (AV valves are open)

316
Q

True/False: Cardiac output is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by the systolic blood pressure.

A

False (it is stroke volume X heart rate)

317
Q

True/False: Reductions in venous return cause reductions in both stroke volume and cardiac output

A

True

318
Q

True/False: An increased firing of the paradympathetic nervous system causes increased cardiac output.

A

False (it slows it)

319
Q

True/False:Smooth Muscle and elastic tissue in a blood vessel wall is found primarily in the tunica media

A

True

320
Q

True/False: Capillaries are composed of tunica intima.

A

True

321
Q

True/False: Exchanges between blood and tissue cells occur in the capillary beds.

A

True

322
Q

True/False: When the precapillary sphincters are closed, blood flows through the shunts and bypasses the tissue cells.

A

True

323
Q

True/False: The portion of the aorta in the abdominopelvic cavity is known as the thoracic aorta.

A

Falsa ( It is the abdominal aorta)

324
Q

True/False: The three branches of the aortic arch are the brachiocephalic trunk, left common corotid artery, and the left subclavian artery.

A

True

325
Q

True/False: The brachial artery branches to form the femoral and popliteal arteries.

A

False

326
Q

True/False: The common iliac vein drains blood from the inferior vena cava

A

True

327
Q

True/False: Veins draining the head and arms empty into e inferior vena cava.

A

False

328
Q

True/False: The hepatic veins drain the blood from the liver and returns it to the inferior vena cava.

A

true

329
Q

True/False: The circle of willis involves blood flow through the liver.

A

False

330
Q

True/False: The major vessels involved with hepatic portal circulation are the inferior and superior mesenteric arteries, the splenic artery, and the left gastric artery.

A

False (it is the veins, not the arteries)

331
Q

True/False: The umbilical vein carries blood rich in oxygen & nutrients to the fetus.

A

True

332
Q

True/False: In fetal circulation blood travels directly fron the right atrium to the left atrium through the foramen ovale.

A

True

333
Q

True/False: Diastolic pressure in the pressure in the arteries at the peak of contraction.

A

false (at rest)

334
Q

True/False: an increase in blood vessel diameter causes arterial blood pressure to decrease

A

True

335
Q

True/False: Hypotension is diastolic pressure below 100mm Hg

A

False (it is systolic pressure below 100)

336
Q

True/False: Blood cells and proteins typically can not pass directly across the walls of the capillaries and are thus prevented from leaving or entering the capillaries.

A

True

337
Q

Which chamber if the heart has the thickest wall?

A

Left ventricle

338
Q

What is the discharging chamber on the left side of the heart?

A

Left ventricle

339
Q

Which heart chamber contains the Sinoatrial node?

A

Right atrium

340
Q

Which heart chamber pumps blood to the pulmonary trunk

A

Right ventricle

341
Q

Which heart chamber contains the bicuspid valve on the roof of this chamber?

A

Left Ventricle

342
Q

Which chamber of the heart does the coronary sinus empty blood from cardiac circulation

A

right atrium

343
Q

The 4 pulmonary veins return oxygenated blood to this chamber of the heart

A

Left atrium

344
Q

What is the outmost layer surrounding the heart that anchors it to the sternum and diapragm?

A

Fibrous pericardium

345
Q

What is the outmost serous membrane layer that is deep to the fibrous pericardium yet superficial to the visceral pericardium?

A

Parietal pericardium

346
Q

The epicardium of the heart is synonomous with this serous membrane layer of the heart.

A

Visceral Pericardium

347
Q

Clogging of the heart’s vessels with fatty buildup is ________.

A

Coronoary atherosclorosis

348
Q

Abnormal heart sounds are ________.

A

Heart murmurs

349
Q

Twisted dialated veins resulting from overworked valves are _______

A

Varicose veins

350
Q

Bacterial infection of the endocardium is _______

A

Endocarditis

351
Q

Chest pain resulting from a loss of oxygen to the myocardium is _______

A

Angina pectoris

352
Q

Inflammation of the pericardium surrounding the heart is called _______.

A

pericarditis

353
Q

Heart attack is also called _______.

A

Myocardial infarction

354
Q

Which vessels carry blood away from the heart?

A

Arteries

355
Q

What vessels return blood to the heart?

A

Veins

356
Q

The superior and inferior vena cava are classified as what kind of vessels?

A

Veins

357
Q

The aorta is classified as what kind of vessel?

A

Artery

358
Q

These vessels have thicker and heavier tunica media.

A

arteries

359
Q

Nutrient and gas exchange happens is these vessels.

A

Capillaries

360
Q

Blood pressure is low in these vessels.

A

Veins

361
Q

These vessels have thinner walls and transport oxygen poor blood

A

Veins

362
Q

Some of these larger vessels have valves to prevent backflow

A

Veins

363
Q

Venules drain into these tiny vessels

A

capillaries

364
Q

True/False: The average heart beats approx 75 times per minute at rest

A

True

365
Q

True/False: During ventricular diastole, the bicuspid valve and tricuspid valves are closed

A

False (AV valves are open)

366
Q

True/False: Cardiac output is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by the systolic blood pressure.

A

False (it is stroke volume X heart rate)

367
Q

True/False: Reductions in venous return cause reductions in both stroke volume and cardiac output

A

True

368
Q

True/False: An increased firing of the paradympathetic nervous system causes increased cardiac output.

A

False (it slows it)

369
Q

True/False:Smooth Muscle and elastic tissue in a blood vessel wall is found primarily in the tunica media

A

True

370
Q

True/False: Capillaries are composed of tunica intima.

A

True

371
Q

True/False: Exchanges between blood and tissue cells occur in the capillary beds.

A

True

372
Q

True/False: When the precapillary sphincters are closed, blood flows through the shunts and bypasses the tissue cells.

A

True

373
Q

True/False: The portion of the aorta in the abdominopelvic cavity is known as the thoracic aorta.

A

Falsa ( It is the abdominal aorta)

374
Q

True/False: The three branches of the aortic arch are the brachiocephalic trunk, left common corotid artery, and the left subclavian artery.

A

True

375
Q

True/False: The brachial artery branches to form the femoral and popliteal arteries.

A

False

376
Q

True/False: The common iliac vein drains blood from the inferior vena cava

A

True

377
Q

True/False: Veins draining the head and arms empty into e inferior vena cava.

A

False

378
Q

True/False: The hepatic veins drain the blood from the liver and returns it to the inferior vena cava.

A

true

379
Q

True/False: The circle of willis involves blood flow through the liver.

A

False

380
Q

True/False: The major vessels involved with hepatic portal circulation are the inferior and superior mesenteric arteries, the splenic artery, and the left gastric artery.

A

False (it is the veins, not the arteries)

381
Q

True/False: The umbilical vein carries blood rich in oxygen & nutrients to the fetus.

A

True

382
Q

True/False: In fetal circulation blood travels directly fron the right atrium to the left atrium through the foramen ovale.

A

True

383
Q

True/False: Diastolic pressure in the pressure in the arteries at the peak of contraction.

A

false (at rest)

384
Q

True/False: an increase in blood vessel diameter causes arterial blood pressure to decrease

A

True

385
Q

True/False: Hypotension is diastolic pressure below 100mm Hg

A

False (it is systolic pressure below 100)

386
Q

True/False: Blood cells and proteins typically can not pass directly across the walls of the capillaries and are thus prevented from leaving or entering the capillaries.

A

True

387
Q

Which chamber if the heart has the thickest wall?

A

Left ventricle

388
Q

What is the discharging chamber on the left side of the heart?

A

Left ventricle

389
Q

Which heart chamber contains the Sinoatrial node?

A

Right atrium

390
Q

Which heart chamber pumps blood to the pulmonary trunk

A

Right ventricle

391
Q

Which heart chamber contains the bicuspid valve on the roof of this chamber?

A

Left Ventricle

392
Q

Which chamber of the heart does the coronary sinus empty blood from cardiac circulation

A

right atrium

393
Q

The 4 pulmonary veins return oxygenated blood to this chamber of the heart

A

Left atrium

394
Q

What is the outmost layer surrounding the heart that anchors it to the sternum and diapragm?

A

Fibrous pericardium

395
Q

What is the outmost serous membrane layer that is deep to the fibrous pericardium yet superficial to the visceral pericardium?

A

Parietal pericardium

396
Q

The epicardium of the heart is synonomous with this serous membrane layer of the heart.

A

Visceral Pericardium

397
Q

Clogging of the heart’s vessels with fatty buildup is ________.

A

Coronoary atherosclorosis

398
Q

Abnormal heart sounds are ________.

A

Heart murmurs

399
Q

Twisted dialated veins resulting from overworked valves are _______

A

Varicose veins

400
Q

Bacterial infection of the endocardium is _______

A

Endocarditis

401
Q

Chest pain resulting from a loss of oxygen to the myocardium is _______

A

Angina pectoris

402
Q

Inflammation of the pericardium surrounding the heart is called _______.

A

pericarditis

403
Q

Heart attack is also called _______.

A

Myocardial infarction

404
Q

Which vessels carry blood away from the heart?

A

Arteries

405
Q

What vessels return blood to the heart?

A

Veins

406
Q

The superior and inferior vena cava are classified as what kind of vessels?

A

Veins

407
Q

The aorta is classified as what kind of vessel?

A

Artery

408
Q

These vessels have thicker and heavier tunica media.

A

arteries

409
Q

Nutrient and gas exchange happens is these vessels.

A

Capillaries

410
Q

Blood pressure is low in these vessels.

A

Veins

411
Q

These vessels have thinner walls and transport oxygen poor blood

A

Veins

412
Q

Some of these larger vessels have valves to prevent backflow

A

Veins

413
Q

Venules drain into these tiny vessels

A

capillaries

414
Q

Essay: ) Trace the path of a drop of blood, starting at the right atrium and returning to the right atrium, through the pulmonary and systemic circuits of the cardiovascular system. Identify the chambers, valves, and vessels (except specific systemic blood vessels that are not directly associated with the heart), and indicate whether the blood is oxygenated or deoxygenated in each area.

A

From the right atrium, blood flows through the right AV valve and into the right ventricle, from there blood flows through the pulmonary semilunar valves and into the pulmonary arteries. Next the blood flows to the lungs and returns from the lungs to the heart through the pulmonary veins into the left atrium. Next blood passes through the left AV valve into the left ventricle. Lastly, blood will pass thorough the aortic semilunar valve before entering the aorta and going out the the rest of the body.

415
Q

Essay: Identify the five major parts of the intrinsic conduction system of the heart in their normal order, beginning with the pacemaker.

A

SA Node > AV Node > AV Bundle > Bundle Branches > Purkinje Fibers.

416
Q

Essay: Discuss the events that are taking place in the cardiac cycle during the left ventricular systole. Indicate whether the other heart chambers are in systole or diastole and whether they are filling or emptying of blood. If they are emptying, state where the blood is going. If they are filling with blood, state where the blood is coming from. Include an explanation of which valves are open and which valves are closed, in addition to whether the coronary system is filling or emptying of blood.

A

uring Ventricular systole (contraction) pressure increases in the ventricles and the AV valves shut. During ventricular systole the atria are in diastole (rest) and they are filling with blood. The pressure in the ventricle is higher than the artieries leaving the heard so the semilunar valves are forced open and blood rushes out of the ventricle.

417
Q

Essay: Define peripheral resistance. Explain several factors that cause it to increase and its effect on arterial blood pressure.

A

Paeripheral resistance is the amount of friction the blood encounters as it flows though the blood vessels. The factors that effect it include the sympathetic nervous system that causes vasoconstriction, The kidneys, temperature, different chemicals, and diet.

418
Q

Explain the role of valves in heart functioning.

A

The atrioventricular valves (AV) valves separate the atrium form the ventricles. These valves prevent back flow into the atria when the ventricles contract. The other valves are the semilunar valves which prevent blood from back flowing into the ventricles.

419
Q

Essay: Name two shunts that bypass the lungs in a fetus. Briefly explain the structures these shunts connect.

A

The two shunts are the foramen ovale and the ductus arteriosus. The foramen ovale shunts the blood so that blood directly goes from the right atrium into the left atrium. The ductus arteriosus connects the aorta and the pulmonary trunk.

420
Q

Essay: Describe the two types of pressures controlling fluid movement in a capillary bed. Explain the role of each pressure in fluid movement.

A

The two types of pressure controlling fluid in the capillary beds are blood pressure and osmotic pressure. In the arterial end of the capillary blood pressure is more than osmotic pressure and fluid tend to leak out into the interstitial fluid because of not only the pressure but also due to blood has a higher solute concentration than interstitial fluid. At the venous end of the capillary blood pressure is lower than osmotic pressure so the fluid is drawn into the venout end.

421
Q

Lymph fluid and some plasma proteins originate (escape) from the ___________.

A

Capillary Beds

422
Q

Excess accumulations of fluid which impair the exchange of materials within the tissues, is called ______.

A

Edema

423
Q

The two large ducts in the thoracic region that drain lymph are called the ________ and ___________.

A

Right Lymphatic Duct and Thoracici Duct.

424
Q

The three regions of the body that contain large collections of lymph nodes are the ______, ________, and ________.

A

Inguinal, Axillary, and Cervical Regions

425
Q

The role of the ________ in the lymphatic system is to remove worn out blood cells and return some of the product of the liver.

A

Spleen

426
Q

Peyer’s patches and the tonsils are part of the collection of small lymphoid tissues that protect the upper respiratory and digestive tracts from infection and are referred to as ___________.

A

Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue (MALT)

427
Q

Harmful or disease causing microorganisms form which nonspecific defenses protect the body are called ___________.

A

Pathogens

428
Q

List the four most common indicators of acute inflammation:

A

Redness, Heat, Swelling, and Pain

429
Q

The third line of defense involves the adaptive response mediated by the __________

A

Specific Defense System

430
Q

The binding of complement proteins to certain sugar or proteins on a foreign cell’s surface is called ___________.

A

Complement Fixation

431
Q

Chemical secreted by white blood cells and macrophages called _________ help to increase the body’s present temperature to promote a fever.

A

Pyrogens

432
Q

Cells studded with protein molecules found on our own cells that do not trigger an immune response with us (but may within others) are called ___________.

A

Self Antigens

433
Q

Troublesome small molecules or incomplete antigens that may mount an attack that is harmful rather than protective are called ___________

A

Hapten or Incomplete Antigens

434
Q

Most B Cell clone members become ____________

A

Plasma Cells

435
Q

The major role of ________ cells is to engulf antigens and present pieces of them to the cells that will deal with those fragments.

A

Antigen-Presenting

436
Q

Active immunity to tetanus, whooping cough, and polio can be artificially acquired when we receive_______.

A

Vaccines

437
Q

The Five major immunoglobulin classes are ____________.

A

IgM, IgA, IgD, IgG, IgE (MADGE)

438
Q

The region of the antibody that varies from antibody to antibody is called the _________ region.

A

The Variable Region

439
Q

Large Antigen-Antibidy complexes can become insoluble and settle out of a solution, a reaction called _________.

A

Precipitation

440
Q

Killer T Cells, which kill virus- invaded body cells, are also called ___________.

A

Cytotoxic

441
Q

Antigens that produce abnormally vigorous immune responses whereby the immune system causes tissue damage as it fights off a perceived threat that would otherwise be harmless are called ____________.

A

allergies or hypersensitivities

442
Q

Systemic (bodywide) acute allergic response caused by allergens that directly enter the blood, as with certain bee stings or spider bites, is called ____________.

A

anaphylactic shock

443
Q

AIDS cripples the immune system by interfering with the activity of cells called ___________

A

T Cells

444
Q

A tropical disease that results when parasitic worms clog the lymphatic vessels is called ________________

A

elephantiasis

445
Q

Lymph is largely composed of water that has escaped from _________.

A

blood

446
Q

Lymph in the right leg rejoins blood flow in the __________

A

subclavian veins

447
Q

Lymph from the left arm returns to the heart through the _____

A

Thoracic duct

448
Q

What are some of the mechanisms that aids in lymph return

A

milking action of skeletal muscles, prssure changes within the thorax, smooth muscle contractions within the lymphatic vessles, presence of valves within the larger lymph vessels.

449
Q

What structure carries lymph into a lymph node

A

afferent lymphatic vessel

450
Q

Which lymphatic organ’s major job is to destroy worn out red blood cells and return some of the products to the liver?

A

spleen

451
Q

What lymphoid tissue trap and remove bacteria entering the throat?

A

Tonsils

452
Q

The thymus gland is most active during __________

A

adolescence

453
Q

The lymph organ that programs T cells and functions at peak levels only during youth is the __________

A

Thymus

454
Q

The lymph tissues found within the walls of the small intestine are called_________

A

Peyer’s patches

455
Q

Where are the tonsils located?

A

Throat

456
Q

Mucosa Associated lymphatic tissue (MALT) includes_________

A

tonsils, the appendix, and Peyer’s patches

457
Q

The body’s first line of defense against the invasion of disease causing microorganisms is _________

A

skin and mucous membranes

458
Q

The adaptive (specific) defense system issues at attack________

A

Specific to particular foreign substances

459
Q
Of the following, which is not one of the body's nonspecific body defenses? 
intact skin
antibody productin
inflammatory response
fever
natural killer cells
A

antibody production

460
Q

The process by which neutrophils are squeezed through the capillary walls during the inflammatory process is called _________

A

diapedesis

461
Q
Which of e following is NOT one of the four most common indicators of the inflammatory response?
Redness
Heat
Swelling
Fever
Pain
A

Fever

462
Q

The migration of phagocytes and white blood cells to an inflamed area along a chemical gradient is called _________

A

chemitaxis

463
Q
The inflammatory process begins with the release of chemicals, which do all of the following EXCEPT?
dialate blood vessels
attract phagocytes to the area
stimulate release of lysozome
cause capillary to become leaky
activate pain receptors
A

Stimulate release of lysozomes

464
Q

Membrane attack complexes (MAC) form holes in attacked cells causing them to burst, this is a result of ________

A

Complement Fixation

465
Q

The body’s temperature regulating “thermostat” that can be reset upward in response to pyrogens is located in the ___________

A

hypothalamus

466
Q

Fever has the effect of doing all of the following EXCEPT:
denaturing proteins
stimulating the liver and spleen to gather up iron and zinc
increasing metabolic rate of tissues
stimulating complement fixation
speeding up repair processes

A

Stimulating Complement Fixatin

467
Q

The study of immunity is called ________

A

immunology

468
Q

Are self antigens typically perceived as an antigen?

A

No

469
Q

Humoral immunity is provided by the ________

A

Antibodies

470
Q

Regardless of whether it it matures to be a B cell or a T cell, a lymphocyt that is capable of responding for a specific antigen by binding it is said to be ________

A

immunocompetent

471
Q

The specific foreign substances that an individual’s immune system has the ability to recognize and resist is determined by __________.

A

Individual Genetic makeup

472
Q

Lymphocytes are trained to be self tolerant of _________

A

body’s own cells

473
Q

B cells develop immunocompetence in the _______

A

bone marrow

474
Q

The specific type of acquired immunity that a fetus obtains from the maternal antibodies that cross the placenta is called _______,

A

naturally acquired passive immunity

475
Q

What specific type of acquired immunity do vaccines provide?

A

artificially acquired active immunity

476
Q

Vaccines are not for ________

A

snake bites

477
Q
Immune sera are used for the following EXCEPT:
tuberculosis
rabies
snake bites
botulism
tetanus
A

tuberculosis

478
Q

Which portion of the antibody’s structure determines it’s antibody class?

A

Constant region

479
Q

Does the constant region of the antibody form an antigen bonding site

A

No

480
Q

Is IbB an antibody class

A

No

481
Q

IgA is mainly found ___________

A

in mucus and secretions such as tears and saliva

482
Q

Are chemotaxis a method by which antibodies inactive antigens?

A

No

483
Q

the specific antibody class that has the ability to cross the placenta barrier and provide immunity to the fetus is _________

A

IgG

484
Q

The process by which antibodies bind to specific sites on bacterial exotoxines (toxic chemicials secreted by bacteria) to block their harmful effects is called _________

A

neutralization

485
Q

Antigen presentation is essential for the activation and clonsl selection of ________.

A

T cells

486
Q

An isograft is a tissue graft donated by _______.

A

A identical twin

487
Q

What is ofter used to treat allergies?

A

antihistimines

488
Q

Allergic contact dermatitis following skin contact with poion ivy would normally lead to_______

A

delayed hypersensitivity

489
Q

The relatively common autoimmune disease in which the thyroid gland produces excessive amounts of thyrozine is _______

A

Grave’s disease

490
Q

Is AIDS an autoimmune disease

A

No

491
Q

True/False: The lymphatic vessels and cardiovascular veins are similar in that they operate under low pressure and some larger ones have valves

A

True

492
Q

True/False: Lymph flows in one direction only toward he heart.

A

True

493
Q

True/False: The lymph nodes filter bacteria, viruses, and tumor cells from blood on it’s way back to the heart.

A

True

494
Q

True/False: Lymph nodes have efferent vessels draining the node than afferent vessels bringing fluid into the node

A

False

495
Q

True/False:The most important function of the thymus is to destroy worn out red blood cells and return some of e products to the liver

A

False

496
Q

True/False: Natural killers are unique phagocytic defense cells that can kill cancer cells and virus infected body cells well before the immune system is activated

A

False

497
Q

True/False: Injured cells release chemicals such as histamine and kinins that dilate vessels, attract phagocytes and active pain receptors

A

True

498
Q

True/False: The final disposition of cell debris as inflammation subsides is performed by neutrophils

A

false

499
Q

True/False:The non specific defense by which complement proteins attach to sugars or proteins on e surface of foreign cells is called complement fixation.

A

True

500
Q

True/False: Chemicals secreted by white blood cells and macrophages exposed to foreign substances that can increase body temperature are called pyrogens

A

True

501
Q

True/False: The study of immunity and the immune system is called endocrinology.

A

False

502
Q

True/False: Like all blood cells, lymphocytes originate from hemocytoblasts contained within red bone marrow.

A

True

503
Q

True/False:Macrophages arise from monocytes formed within bone marrow

A

False

504
Q

True/False: Vaccines provide naturally acquired active immunity to diseases such. as pneumonia, diptheria, and measles

A

False

505
Q

True/False: Artificially acquired passive immunity is conferred when one receives immune serum from poisonous snake bites.

A

True

506
Q

True/False: Antibodies are also referred to as immunoglobulins

A

True

507
Q

True/False: There are three major immunoglobulin classes IgM, IgA, and IgD.

A

False

508
Q

True/False: The antibody a mother passes to ger fetus is IgM

A

False

509
Q

True/False: The process that occurs when antibodies clump foreign cells is called agglutination.

A

True

510
Q

True/False: Memory cells are decedents of activated B or T cells

A

False

511
Q

True/False: Antigen presentation is essential for the activation of clonal selection of T cells

A

True

512
Q

True/False: Tissue grafts harvested from an unrelated person are called xenografts.

A

False

513
Q

True/False: Allografts are tissue grafts taken from an unrelated person

A

False

514
Q

True/False: Allergies, or hypersensitivities, are normal immune responses

A

False

515
Q

True/False: Anaphylactic shock, an acute systemic allergic response, causes vasodilatation and difficulty breathg

A

True

516
Q

True/False: As people age, they become more resistant to the development of autoimmune and immunodeficiency diseases.

A

False

517
Q

Peyer’s patches are located ________

A

On the left side of the abdominal cavity

518
Q

Tonsils trap and remove bacteria and pathogens entering the ______

A

throat

519
Q

This function of the spleen is to _________

A

Filter and cleanse the blood of bacteria, viruses, and other debris

520
Q

Location of the thymus gland

A

Overlying the heart

521
Q

Located in the wall of the small intestines

A

Peyer’s patches

522
Q

Located in the pharnyx (throat)

A

tonsils

523
Q

Any substance capable of provoking an immune response

A

antigen

524
Q

Small proteins that bind with receptors on healthy cells to promote protein synthesis and prevent viruses from binding

A

Interferon

525
Q

Chemicals secreted by white blood cells and macrophages to raise the body’s temperature

A

pyrogens

526
Q

Chemicals released by natural killer cells to cause cell lysis

A

perforins

527
Q

Harmful or disease causing microorganisms

A

pathogens

528
Q

Proteins secreted by activated B cells in response to an antigen

A

antibodies

529
Q

Sticky substance in the respiratory and digestive tracts that trap microorganisms.

A

Mucus

530
Q

believed to be cell surface receptor of immunocompetent B Cells

A

IgD

531
Q

First immunoglobulin class released to plasma by plasma cells during primary response

A

IgM

532
Q

Main antibody of primary and secondary responses

A

IgG

533
Q

Triggers release of histamine

A

IgE

534
Q

Potent agglutinating agent

A

IgM

535
Q

Crosses placenta and provides passive immunity to fetus

A

IgG

536
Q

Explain the origin and pathway of lymph.

A

Extremely porous, blind-ended lymphatic capillaries pick up excess tissue fluid leaked from the blood capillaries. The fluid (lymph) flows into the larger lymphatics and finally into the blood vascular system through the right lymphatic duct and the left thoracic duct.

537
Q

Essay: Describe how the lymphatic and cardiovascular systems are similar in structure and function.

A

Like veins of the cardiovascular system, lymphatic vessels are thin walled, and the larger ones have valves. Lymph is transported by the same mechanisms that aid return of venous blood- the milking action of the skeletal muscles and pressure changes in the thorax during breathing. In addition, smooth muscle in the walls of the larger lymphatics contracts rhythmically, actually helping to “pump” the lymph along.

538
Q

Essay: How do the innate and adaptive immune systems differ in their responses to foreign substances? Explain.

A

The innate defense system responds immediately to protect the body from all foreign substances; We come fully equipped with our innate defenses. Unlike the innate defenses, which are always prepared to defend the body, the adaptive system must first “meet” or be primed by an initial exposure to a foreign substance (antigen) before it can protect the body against the invader.

539
Q

Essay: Identify the four most common indicators and major symptoms of an acute inflammatory response and explain their origins.

A

Dilation of the blood vessels increases the blood flow to the area, accounting for the redness(1) and heat(2) observed. Increases permeability of the capillaries allows plasma to leak from the blood into the tissue spaces, causing local edema or swelling(3) that also activates pain(4) receptors in the area.

540
Q

Essay: List and describe the cells and chemicals the body uses as its second line of defense.

A

Phagocytes- Engulf and destroy pathogens that breach surface membrane barriers.
Natural killer cells- Promote cell lysis by direct cell attack against virus-infected or cancerous body cells.
Inflammatory Response- Prevents spread of injurious agents to adjacent tissues, disposes of pathogens and dead tissue cells, and promotes tissue repair; releases chemical mediators that attract phagocytes (and immune cells) to the area.
Antimicrobial proteins- (1) Complement- Group of plasma proteins that lyses microorganisms and intensifies inflammatory response. (2) Interferons- Proteins releases by virus-infected cells that protect uninfected tissue cells from viral takeover; mobilize immune system.
Fever- Systematic response triggered by pyrogens; high body temp inhibits multiplication of bacteria and enhances body repair processes.

541
Q

Essay: Describe the four major types of transplant grafts.

A

utografts- Tissue grafts transplanted from one site to another in the same person.
Isografts- Tissue grafts donated by an identical twin.
Allografts- Tissue grafts taken from a person other than an identical twin.
Xenografts- Tissue grafts harvested from a different animal species.

542
Q

Essay: Explain two current ideas that attempt to explain why self-tolerance breaks down in autoimmune disorders

A

New self-antigens appear- Such “hidden” antigens are found in sperm cells, the eye lens, and certain proteins in thyroid gland. In addition, “new self-antigens” may appear as a result of gene mutations that change structure of self-proteins or as a result of alterations in self-proteins by hapten attachment or by bacterial or viral damage.
Foreign antigens resemble self-antigens- For instance, antibodies produced during an infection caused by streptococcus bacteria are known to cross-react with heart antigens, causing damage to both the heart muscle and its valves, as well as to joints and kidneys. This age-old disease is called rheumatic fever.