Chads bio quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

From which of the following glands is the prolactin hormone secreted?

A. Hypothalamus
B. Anterior pituitary
C. Adrenals
D. Posterior pituitary

A

B. Anterior pituitary

Prolactin is a protein hormone that is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland from lactotropes. The primary function of prolactin is to develop the female breast tissue to promote lactation during pregnancy. One of the common questions related to prolactin is how this hormone is suppressed in women that are not pregnant. The hypothalamus produces dopamine, and then secretes this dopamine into the anterior pituitary gland. Dopamine acts as an inhibitory chemical to the lactotropes. Due to the decrease in dopamine levels in pregnant women, prolactin can be secreted.

The increase in prolactin secreting has a positive correlation with estrogen, breast-feeding, stress, sleep, and dopamine antagonist like high blood pressure meds.

Note: Prolactin is the only anterior pituitary gland hormone that has a suppression brake from the hypothalamus. Thus, if the stalk from the hypothalamus were cut, all anterior pituitary hormone levels would decrease except for prolactin.

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2
Q

When blood is pumped from the left atrium to the left ventricle, what is that name of the valve that it passes through

A. Left AV Valve
B. Mitral
C. Bicuspid Valve
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

All three names mean the same thing

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3
Q

What side of the heart receives oxygenated blood?

A

Left side = Oxygenated blood

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4
Q

Which side of the heart is the bicuspid valve located? What are 2 more names for the valve?

A

Bicuspid valve = Left side where oxygenated blood is

Bicuspid = Mitral = Left AV valve

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5
Q

Stabilizing selection is the opposite of:

A. Disruptive selection
B. Sexual selection
C. Directional selection
D. Negative selection
E. Purifying selection
A

A. Disruptive selection

Stabilizing selection is the opposite of disruptive selection. Disruptive selection selects for the extreme phenotypes rather than the common ones like stabilizing selection. The most well known example of disruptive selection is Darwin’s study of finches. In this study the finches with average beaks were unable to survive while finches with beaks that adapted well to nature were able to produce more offspring and attain more food.

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6
Q

When an Enzyme that requires a cofactor to properly function has one, it is referred to as

A. Holenzyme
B. Apoenzyme
C. Apoprotein
D. Narrowenzyme
E. Both C & D
A

A. Holenzyme

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7
Q

In the dihybrid cross of AABB x aabb, how many different phenotypes are expressed in the F1 progeny

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
E. 16
A

A. 1

In the dihybrid cross of AABB x aabb, there is only 1 different phenotype expressed in the F1 progeny—Dominant traits. All of the F1 progeny will be heterozygous for both traits (AaBb), which means that there will only be one phenotype expressed.

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8
Q

How many different alleles are there possible for blood types

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
A

C. 3

There are three different alleles are possible for blood types; IA, IB, and i. Anytime that you see superscripts or primes used it refers to codominance, so IA and IB are codominant, while i is the recessive allele.

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9
Q

The urea cycle occurs in:

A. The liver
B. The kidney
C. The pancreas

A

A. The liver

Metabolic functions of the liver:

Glucose:
- Gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver and involved the conversion of sugar to glucose. The liver also stores glycogen, for example in postprandial periods. Therefore, it is a glucose buffer in the body.

Fatty acids:

  • lipid metabolism via fatty acid oxidation
  • conversion of carbohydrates to lipids for storage in adipose tissue
  • synthesizes lipoproteins, cholesterol and phospholipids
  • produces bile acid from cholesterol

Protein:

  • synthesizes ALL of the nonessential amino acids
  • Does not synthesize immunoglobulins
  • Synthesizes albumins and clotting factors (this determines plasma oncotic pressure)

Ammonia:
- critical in ammonia disposal from protein catabolism

  • the urea cycle occurs in the liver and then the urea is excreted by the kidneys

** The majority of the blood arriving at the liver is venous, supplied by the portal vein

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10
Q

A GH secreting tumor in a 5 year old likely results in:

A. Pituitary Gigantism
B. Acromegaly
C. Pituitary dwarfism
D. Marfan syndrome
E. Achondroplasia
F. none of the above
A

A. Pituitary Gigantism

Pituitary giant: excess GH delays fusion of epiphyseal plates
Acromegaly: excess GH after fusion of epiphyseal plates
Pituitary dwarf: insufficient GH resulting in premature fusion of epiphyseal plates

Marfan: collagen abnormality
Achondroplasia: common in dwarfs, cartilage abnormality

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11
Q

What is the difference between:

A. Pituitary Gigantism
B. Acromegaly
C. Pituitary dwarf

A

Pituitary Gigantism occurs when excess GH is secreted in childhood

Acromegaly occurs when excess GH is secreted during adulthood

Pituitary dwarf: insufficient GH resulting in premature fusion of epiphyseal plates

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12
Q

How many different phases of growth occur in a cell that undergoes mitosis

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
A

C. 3

There are three different phases of growth that occur in cells which undergoes mitosis. The G1, G2, and S phases all have growth occurring in the cells.

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13
Q

The sinoatrial node is located in the

A. Right atrium
B. Right Ventricle
C. Left Atrium
D. Left Ventricle
E. Interventricular septum
A

A. Right atrium

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14
Q

Chief cells secrete large quantities of what?

A. Pepsinogen
B. Pepsin
C. Mucous
D. Instrinsic factor
E. None of the above
A

A. Pepsinogen

Answer: Chief cells secrete large quantities of pepsinogen. Pepsinogen is the predominant organic constituent of gastric juice. It is the inactive form (zymogen) of pepsin, which degrades food proteins into peptides.

Motility of the stomach is mainly spontaneous rhythmic contractions, with contractions being more powerful in the antral area. The vagus causes relaxation of the stomach. Vagal stimulation causes pepsinogen, mucus, HCO3-, intrinsic factor and gastric H+ secretion. Emptying of the stomach is triggered by many factors acting through neuronal and endocrine stimulations (the enterogastric reflex). Stimulatory factors include parasympathetic stimulation and an increase in the volume and fluidity of contents within the stomach. Inhibitory factors include fat, low pH, hypertonicity and distention of the duodenum. Additionally, sympathetic stimulation will inhibit emptying of the stomach. The stomach is lined by folded columnar epithelium, forming gastric pits that are ducts, which glands empty into. Just below the lwer esophageal sphincter is the small cardiac glandular region that secretes mainly mucous. Below this region is the oxyntic or parietal gland region where acid is secreted. Lastly, the region in the distal portion of the stomach (just below the gastric notch) is the pyloric gland region. Oxyntic glands secrete HCl, pepsinogen, intrinsic factor and mucous. Additionally, oxyntic glands contain enterochromaffin-like (ECL) cells that secrete histamine, and D cells that secrete somatostatin. Pyloric glands secrete mucous mainly, along with gastrin from G cells (enteroendocrine cells).

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15
Q

Electrons move from PS I and PS II directly to

A. Calvin Benson Cycle
B. Photolysis
C. Primary Electron Acceptor
D. Secondary Electron Acceptor
E. Electron Transport Chain
A

C. Primary Electron acceptor

Electrons move from PS I and PS II directly to a primary electron acceptor. The electrons are energized or excited when the PS I and/or the PS II absorb energy from the sun, which excited the electrons and energizes them to move towards the primary electron acceptor. There are many electron acceptors in the process of photosynthesis, however, the reason the name primary is used is because it is the first electron acceptor after the excitation of electrons from the photosystems.

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16
Q

If a new species forms without a geographic barrier, which of the following would not be a possibility

A. Polyploidy
B. Balanced Polymorphism
C. Hybridization
D. Allopatric Speciation
E. Sympatric Speciation
A

D. Allopatric Speciation

If a new species forms without a geographic barrier, Allopatric Speciation would not be a possibility. Allopatric speciation occurs when there is a geographic barrier, but Sympatric Speciation occurs when there is not one present. Hybridization, Balanced Polymorphism, and Polyploidy are all types of Sympatric speciation collectively.

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17
Q

Enzymes that need a cofactor to properly function but are lacking one are called

A. Holoenzymes
B. Narrowenzymes
C. Apoenzymes
D. Apoproteins
E. Both Apoenzymes or Apoproteins
A

E. Both Apoenzymes or Apoproteins

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18
Q

Enzymes involved in digestion are found in the

A. Pancreas
B. Liver
C. Small intestine
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

Enzymes involved in digestion are found in the pancreas, liver, and small intestine. Not all of the same enzymes are found in each structure, however, they all do produce enzymes that are involved in digestion.

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19
Q

Which of the following is an example of neutral variation

A. Rabbit color
B. Hybrid corn
C. Fingerprints of Humans
D. Dog breeds

A

C. Fingerprints of Humans

The fingerprints of humans are a common example of neutral variation. There is nothing selective about the variation in human fingerprints, yet there is variation. Nothing in the world will select for one type of fingerprint variation over another.

neutral variation: differences in DNA sequence that do not confer a selective advantage or disadvantage; recessive alleles in diploid eukaryotes.

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20
Q

Hemophilia is

A. Easier to inherit as a male
B. Easier to inherit as a female
C. The same to inherit in both male and female
D. Is an example of pleiotropy
E. Is an example of epistasis
A

A. Easier to inherit as a male

Hemophilia is easier to inherit as a male. Being that Hemophilia is an x-linked and recessive gene, it takes the inheritance of both of a female’s x-chromosomes to possess hemophilia. With males only having one x-chromosome, whatever gene is present on the x-chromosome is expressed even though it is a recessive gene. Therefore, hemophilia is more prevalent in males than females.

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21
Q

What two genetic disorders are necessary for a male cat to be Calico?

i. Klinefelter Syndrome
ii. Cri Du Chat Syndrome
iii. Down Syndrome
iv. Turner Syndrome
v. X-inactivatio

A. 5,4
B. 5,3
C. 5,2
D. 2,3
E. 5,1
A

E. 5,1

The calico cat is a result of x-inactivation, that is one of the X chromosomes out of the two is a Barr body and inactive. This causes some of the genes to be turned on and others to be turned off, rendering the cat spotted or calico in color throughout. Calico cats are typically not males, because in order for a male to be calico it must have XXY chromosomes; it must have two X chromosomes but also be a male. This is what is commonly referred to as Klinefelter’s Syndrome, and results in the male calico cat when combine with x-inactivation.

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22
Q

The pairing of homologous chromosomes during meiosis is specifically referred to as ______.

A. Tetrads
B. Bivalents
C. Synapsis
D. Chiasma
E. Crossing over
A

C. Synapsis

The pairing of homologous chromosomes during meiosis is specifically referred to as synapsis. Another term to remember is tetrads, which is what the actual pairs are themselves referred to as. The pairing up is synapsis, the pairs themselves are tetrads.

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23
Q

In plants, meiosis generates ______ instead of gametes

A. Sporophytes
B. Gametophytes
C. Zygotes
D. Sporangias
E. Spores
A

E. Spores

In plants, meiosis generates spores instead of gametes. Spores are haploid cells similar to the gametes of humans, however, they then go on further to divide by mitosis and become a sort of super structure called a gametophyte.

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24
Q

_______ have the ability to determine specific traits that have the potential to be passed on from parents to their offspring

A. Alleles
B. Gene Pairs
C. Locus
D. Codes
E. Phenotypes
A

A. Alleles

Alleles have the ability to determine specific traits that have the potential to be passed on from parents to their offspring. An allele is simply a specific variation of a gene. In flowers for example, you might see a white allele and a green allele. The white allele codes for white flowers, while the green allele codes for green flowers.

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25
Q

The majority of mutations

A. Are helpful
B. Are neutral
C. Lead to founder’s effect
D. Are harmful

A

B. Are neutral

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26
Q

What is the correct order of oxygen flow for the respiratory system in humans?

i. Alveolus
ii. Oxygen transported through red blood cells
iii. Trachea
iv. Pharynx

A

4,3,1,2

Pharynx –> Trachea –> alveolus –> RBCs

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27
Q

The pH and electrical difference that is built up across the thylakoid membrane of chloroplasts is comparable to the pH and electrical difference that is built up across the _________ of mitochondria

A. Phospholipid membrane
B. Cellular Membrane
C. Outer compartment
D. Crista Membrane
E. Mitochondrial Membrane
A

D. Crista Membrane

The pH and electrical difference that is built up across the thylakoid membrane of chloroplasts is comparable to the pH and electrical difference that is built up across the crista membrane of mitochondria. The protons are accumulated in the outer compartment, but the pH and electrical difference occurs across the crista membrane.

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28
Q

Energy in the heterotrophy theory first came primarily from

A. Earthquakes
B. UV light
C. The Moon
D. Volcanoes

A

B. UV light

Energy in the heterotrophy theory first came primarily from UV light—Ultraviolet light. There were said to be other energy producers such as lightning, but the primary source of energy was said to be UV light.

The Heterotroph Hypothesis is the proposal that the first living organism was a HETEROTROPH
- endosymbiotic theory (simulating early earth)

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29
Q

Chief cells release ______, while parietal cells release ______

A. Pepsinogen, acid
B. Pepsin, acid
C. Acid, Pepsin
D. Acid, Pepsinogen

A

A. Pepsinogen, acid

Chief cells release pepsinogen while parietal cells release acid. Pepsinogen is an inactive form (zymogen) of pepsin, which is then signaled by acid from the parietal cells to turn into pepsin. This is done in order to breakdown proteins in the stomach.

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30
Q

How does blood move through the veins

A. Heart contractions
B. Active Transport
C. Skeletal muscle movement
D. Purkinje Fibers

A

C. Skeletal muscle movement

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31
Q

Which part of the mitochondria does conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA occur in?

A. Matrix
B. Outer Compartment
C. Crista
D. Outer Membranous layer

A

A. Matrix

The matrix part of the mitochondria is the inner fluid part, which is where the Krebs Cycle also occurs in.

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32
Q

What is the correct order of events in an action potential?

  1. K+ Pump opens
  2. Na + Pump opens
  3. Depolarization
  4. Hyperpolarization

None of the above

A. 2->3->1->4
B. 1->3->2->4
C. 2->4->1->3
D. 1->4->2->3

A

A. 2->3->1->4

  1. Na+ enters cell
  2. Na+ Channels open
  3. Na+ Channels close, K+ Channels open
  4. K+ channels close, Na+/K+ pump activates
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33
Q

Amoeba’s digest their food primarily by

A. Organ Systems
B. Phagocytosis
C. Gizzard
D. Endocytosis
E. Pinocytosis
A

B. Phagocytosis

Amoeba’s digest their food primarily by phagocytosis. Food is engulfed in amoebas via phagocytosis and is then further enclosed into food vacuoles. Vacuoles merge with lysosomes and food that is not used is eliminated from the vacuoles.

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34
Q

If five cells were to undergo meiosis, how many daughter cells would result

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
E. 40
A

D. 20

If five cells were to undergo meiosis, 20 daughter cells would result. In regards to mitosis, mitosis generates two cells from each parent. Wiith Meiosis, meiosis generates four cells from each parent (with each containing half of the genetic material as the parent.

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35
Q

When blood moves through blood vessels, this is an example of:

A. Passive transport
B. Active Transport
C. Osmosis
D. Plasmolysis
E. Bulk Flow
A

E. Bulk Flow

When blood moves through blood vessels this is an example of bulk flow. Another common example of bulk flow is urination. Think of one way movement of a substance in response to a pressure or force that is exerted.

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36
Q

Water is very good at regulating drastic changes in temperature. This is necessary for cells because temperature changes can be very injurious to the structures of macromolecules. Which characteristic of water is this?

A. Cohesion
B. Adhesion
C. Surface tension
D. Solubility
E. Heat capacity
A

E. Heat capacity

Heat capacity is a property of water that allows it to maintain a constant temperature. This heat capacity plays an important role in the human body. Think about a large body of water and how it takes a ton of heat to change the temperature just a few degrees. Or think about how your body is able to cool itself down by sweat or releasing of water. Without this property of water, we would be in big trouble.

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37
Q

When the stomach’s water, food, and gastric juice come together and combine they are termed _______

A. Gastric Acid
B. Chyme
C. Bile
D. Pepsin
E. Lipase
A

B. Chyme

When the stomach’s water, food, and gastric juice come together and combine they are termed chime. Chyme turns into a creamy liquid that you would expect if you mixed water, food, and gastric juice together. This mixing allows for better digestion.

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38
Q

In Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

A. Mating is nonrandom
B. There must be genetic drift
C. Mutations must occur
D. There must be no natural selection
E. All of the above
A

D. There must be no natural selection

In Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium there must be no natural selection. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium which is also known as genetic equilibrium occurs when allele frequencies remain constant throughout each generation. In order for this to occur, there cannot be any natural selection, there must be no genetic drift, no mutations, and mating cannot be isolated and must be random.

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39
Q

The production and secretion of which of the following hormones will be inhibited in the presence of somatostatin?

A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
C. Gastrin
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

Somatostatin is a hormone that regulates the production and secretion of endocrine hormones in the body. This hormone is on a biofeedback loop that secretes hormone when endocrine hormones are low in the blood, and it is inhibited when endocrine hormones are found in excess in circulation. The major action of this hormone is to inhibit the production of insulin, glucagon, gastrin, and other endocrine hormones.

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40
Q

What are the three parts of a DNA Nucleotide?

  1. Glycerol Backbone
  2. Nitrogenous Base
  3. Phosphate Group
  4. Deoxyribos
A. 1, 2, 4
B. 1, 2, 3, 4
C. 2, 3, 4
D. 1, 2, 3
E. 1, 3, 4
A

C. 2, 3, 4

Nucleotides are the monomers of DNA. They consist of a phosphate group, a deoxyribose (five Carbon sugar), and a nitrogenous base. There are four nitrogenous bases in DNA; Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, and Thymine. Glycerol backbones are commonly seen in lipids such as phospholipids and triglycerides.

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41
Q

When a white haired dog mates with a black haired dog, their puppies have a mix of both white and black hair. This is an example of

A. Incomplete Dominance
B. Complete Dominance
C. Codominance
D. Epistasis
E. Pleiotropy
A

C. Codominance

When a white haired dog mates with a black haired dog, their puppies have a mix of both white and black hair. This is an example of codominance. Codominance simply means that both traits are dominant and expressed. Instead of having grey hair (incomplete dominance), and one having black hair only (complete dominance), both are expressed (codominance).

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42
Q

Darwin’s theory of natural selection is based on all of the following except

A. Large resources
B. Survival of the fittest
C. Individual competition
D. Population stability
E. Reproductive potential
A

A. Large resources

Darwin’s theory of natural selection is based on survival of the fittest, individual competition, population stability, and reproductive potential. It is not based on a large amount of resources, but rather the limited amount of resources available to a certain species.

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43
Q

Wavy hair amongst humans is an example of

A. Incomplete Dominance
B. Complete Dominance
C. Codominance
D. Epistasis
E. Pleiotropy
A

A. Incomplete Dominance

Wavy hair amongst humans is an example of incomplete dominance. In humans neither straight or curly hair is completely dominant over the other, so when the heterozygous form is present, instead of taking the dominant form it takes a form in the middle—wavy hair.

Codominance simply means that both traits are dominant and expressed. Instead of having grey hair (incomplete dominance), and one having black hair only (complete dominance), both are expressed (codominance).

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44
Q

Genetic material or segments of DNA that are sited on chromosomes and give trait instructions are termed

A. Alleles
B. Genes
C. Locus
D. Codes
E. Phenotypes
A

B. Genes

Genetic material or segments of DNA that are sited on chromosomes and give trait instructions are termed genes. Again word associations will really help you remember terms on test day, which is why it is good to associate genes with genetic material.

Genes = Genetic material

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45
Q

Order the steps of photosynthesis from first to last:

i. Photosystem I
ii. Photosystem II
iii. Calvin Benson Cycle
iv. Noncyclic Photophosphorylation

A

2, 1, 4, 3

PSII –> PSI –> Noncyclic phosphorylation –> Calvin Benson Cycle

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46
Q

Most chemical reactions

A. Never go to completion
B. Go to completion
C. Involve the transferring of hydrogen
D. Are exothermic
E. Are endothermic
A

A. Never go to completion

Rather than going to a full completion, most reactions reach a point of equilibrium, which is more energetically favorable.

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47
Q

Which of the following vessels is the heart’s largest

A. Inferior Vena Cava
B. Aorta
C. Right Pulmonary Artery
D. Left Pulmonary Vein
E. Superior Vena Cava
A

B. Aorta

The aorta is the heart’s largest vessel. When thinking about this it makes perfect sense as it is the only vessel leaving the heart with oxygenated blood. The ascending and descending aortas collectively transport this oxygenated blood to different tissues throughout the body

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48
Q

Which of the following statements is correct concerning evolution

A. Microevolution looks at changes over a long period of time among groups of different but related species.
B. Macroevolution looks at changes over a short amount of time and among a single species.
C. Charles Darwin published his theories before Lamarck
D. Darwinism has advanced to what is now known as modern evolutionary synthesis

A

D. Darwinism has advanced to what is now known as modern evolutionary synthesis

Darwinism has advanced to what is now known as modern evolutionary synthesis. Darwin believed that evolution occurred through natural selection. Charles Darwin published his theories after Lamarck did. Macroevolution looks at changes over a long amount of time and among a group of species. Microevolution looks at changes over a short period of time among a single species and/or new ones that develop as a result.

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49
Q

How many H+ ions are needed to pass through an ATP synthase in order to generate one ATP

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
A

C. 3

Three H+ ions are needed to pass through an ATP synthase in order to generate one ATP. Because ADP is recycled from the Calvin Benson cycle, ADP is energized by the passing of H+ ions through ATP synthases (which are channel proteins), generating ADP to go to ATP. ADP ? ATP

50
Q

Large variation in species occurs because of all of the following except

A. Mutations
B. Outbreeding
C. Random joining of gametes
D. Inbreeding
E. Crossing over
A

D. Inbreeding

Large variation in species occurs because of all of the following except inbreeding. When a species inbreeds, they are not allowing selecting similar traits, which limits the variation among species. Outbreeding has the opposite effect on a species and allows for large amounts of genetic variation. Mutations, the random joining of gametes, and crossing over are all major sources of genetic variation among species.

51
Q

An amino acid excludes which of the following

A. Amino Group
B. Carboxyl Group
C. R Group
D. Hydrogen Atom
E. All of the Above are included in the structure of an amino acid
A

E. All of the Above are included in the structure of an amino acid

When thinking about the structure of an amino acid, I always break down the root words. The first word is Amino, so think amino group. The second group is Acid, so I think carboxylic Acid. Now all amino acids have both of these groups, but they also have a single Hydrogen and R-group. It is the R-group that determines the specific amino acid. The answer is thus E, all of the above.

52
Q

Which of the following enzymes is involved with the chemical breakdown of proteins

A. Amylase
B. Lipase
C. Pepsin
D. Bile

A

C. Pepsin

Pepsin is involved with the chemical breakdown of proteins, as it is the enzyme that activates it.. Anything with the term “pep” in it refers to proteins so this is fairly easy to remember. Peptic ulcers, peptides, poly-peptide chains, pepsin, pepsinogen, etc. This protein breakdown initially occurs in the stomach.

53
Q

A female horse mating with a male donkey is an example of

A. Inbreeding
B. Outbreeding
C. Gene flow
D. Genetic drift
E. The founder effect
A

B. Outbreeding

A female horse mating with a male donkey is an example of outbreeding. If a male horse was to mate with his sister that would be an example of inbreeding. Outbreeding occurs between species that are distantly related, and what forms is a hybrid of some sort (example mule).

54
Q

Cells walls develop _______ the plasma membrane.

A. Outside
B. Inside
C. Within
D. All of the above

A

A. Outside

Cell walls develop outside the plasma membrane. Remember that cell walls are not found in animal cells.

55
Q

Because photophosphorylation requires light to make ATP and NADPH, it is often referred to as

A. Light-Independent Reactions
B. Dark Reactions
C. Light-Dependent Reactions
D. Photolysis

A

C. Light-Dependent Reactions

Because photophosphorylation requires light to make ATP and NADPH, it is often referred to as light-dependent reactions. Light-dependent reactions take the energy from the sunlight and electrons from the splitting of water to make both ATP and NADPH, which are both energy rich molecules. Photophosphorylation is dependent upon light.

56
Q

The Calvin Benson cycle is said to “fix” what chemically unreactive molecule

A. Oxygen
B. Carbon Monoxide
C. Hydrogen Peroxide
D. ADP
E. Carbon Dioxide
A

E. Carbon Dioxide

The Calvin Benson Cycle fixes chemically unreactive carbon dioxide. Sometimes it is best to just simplify photosynthesis by thinking about the major input and output molecules. Plants take in energy (sunlight), water, and the carbon dioxide that we breathe out, while they produce oxygen and storable energy in the form of sugars. Carbon dioxide is referred to as being chemically unreactive and is a waste product of human respiration; the good news is that plants fix our waste product into usable energy.

57
Q

When looking at a heterozygous plant, you notice that its color is pink. What two parental alleles could have combined to give rise to this specific phenotype?

A. Both red
B. Both white
C. Both pink
D. Red and White
E. All of the above are possible
A

D. Red and White

When looking at a heterozygous plant, you notice that its color is pink. The possible parental alleles that gave rise to this specific phenotype are red and white. Knowing that the plant is heterozygous, you know that both alleles are hetero or different. Therefore you couldn’t have two pink alleles, or two white alleles, or two red alleles giving rise to the pink color, it would have to be two different alleles.

When two alleles give rise to a phenotype that neither has, there is no dominant or recessive behavior, and this is better known as incomplete dominance.

58
Q

Which of the following chemicals is heavily involved in killing bacteria, and activating many digestive enzymes in the digestive system

A. CO3
B. HCl
C. CO2
D. H2O
E. CCl4
A

B. HCl

HCl is heavily involved in killing bacteria and activating many digestive enzymes in the digestive system. The stomach itself has to produce a mucus layer to protect itself from the digestive process that occurs. If the stomach is unable to protect itself, the result can be peptic ulcers.

59
Q

In animals cells cleavage furrows form, giving rise to each plasma membrane. In plant cells, a _______ forms, giving rise to each plasma membrane

A. Cell Wall
B. Cell Plate
C. Cleavage Furrow
D. Cell Cycle
E. Mitotic Spindle
A

B. Cell Plate

In animals cells cleavage furrows form, giving rise to each plasma membrane. In plant cells, a cell plate forms, giving rise to each plasma membrane.

60
Q

A cell is divided by Meiosis, one would expect the copied cell to have ______ of the amount of genetic material that the parent cell contains

A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
E. 200%
A

B. 50%

When a cell is divided by Meiosis, the copied cells have 50% of the amount of genetic material that the parent cell contains. During meiosis, sex cells are created (50% composition) and later come together to form a zygote (50+50=100% composition).

Meiosis is commonly referred to as a reduction division, whereas mitosis is referred to as a replicating division

61
Q

Specialized proteins are involved in the diffusion of solutes across the plasma membrane, this is known as

A. Simple diffusion
B. Active transport
C. Plasmolysis
D. Countercurrent exchange
E. Facilitated Diffusion
A

E. Facilitated Diffusion

Facilitated diffusion involves the diffusion of solutes across the membrane through the aid and support of specific proteins. Keep in mind that the plasma membrane is selectively permeable, thus some things freely travel across like water, while others large molecules and many solutes do not without the help of other methods.

62
Q

The Glycocalyx that covers the outside of the plasma membrane

A. Is a protein coat
B. Provides points for cell-to-cell recognition
C. Consists of glycolipids and proteins
D. B & C
E. All of the Above
A

D. B & C

The Glycocalyx that covers the outside of the plasma membrane provides points for cell-to-cell recognition, consists of glycolipids and proteins, and is NOT a protein coat, but rather a carbohydrate (sugar) coat.

63
Q

ACTH is secreted by the:

A. anterior pituitary
B. posterior pituitary
C. hypothalamus

A

A. anterior pituitary

The function of the adrenal gland is determined by the ACTH stimulation test, where a dose of ACTH is administered exogenously. The serum cortisol level in a normal response should ride to over 20 ug/dl, around double of the baseline serum cortisol level. If there is an inadequate response, then the adrenal gland has reduced function. Stress causes an increase of cortisol excretion. The normal average hydrocortisone excreted is around 20 mg a day, but can increase upwards of 200 mg daily.

The anterior pituitary secreted ACTH. An increase of ACTH output is caused by the pituitary responding to stress. This therefore increases the production of glucocorticoids. ACTH can also be increased by a low level of circulating glucocorticoids (negative feedback) and vice versa. Patients that are on a large volume of steroids have decreased production of ACTH. It takes around a year in order to regain full function of the adrenal cortex.
- small doses (5mg of prednisone) will have suppressed adrenal cortex function within a month
- 20-30mg prednisone daily will have suppressed adrenal cortex function in a week
- high doses for a short term will not adversely affect the function of the adrenal cortex (around 1-3 days)
Adrenal insufficiency causes hyperpigmentation on the buccal and labial mucosa and other parts of the gingival. This is due to a marked increase in the production of ACTH, which stimulates melanocytes.

Adrenal insufficiency causes weight loss, weakness, nausea, vomiting, and orthostatic hypotention. Cardiovascular collapse can occur with patients with severe insufficiency. This is because they cannot increase steroid production in response to stress, and must have adequate steroid replacement in order to prevent adrenal crisis during surgery. Adrenal crisis must be overcome with an IV or IM inject

64
Q

The function of the adrenal gland can be determined by which test?

A

The ACTH test:

The anterior pituitary releases ACTH to the adrenal gland signaling it to release cortisol. During this test a doctor will inject you with ACTH to see if cortisol levels rise. If cortisol levels don’t rise then we know adrenal gland has reduced function

65
Q

What hormones are secreted from the adrenal cortex opposed to the adrenal medulla?

A

Cortex = Steroid hormones and androgens

  • glucocorticoids =cortisol
  • mineralocorticoids = aldosterone
  • Androgens = sex hormones (estrogen and testosterone)

Medulla = autonomic nervous system

  • epinephrine
  • norepinephrine
66
Q

What causes the anterior pituitary to release ACTH?

A

Stress

ACTH –> glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids

67
Q

What is the difference between glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids?

A

Glucocorticoids = cortisol

Mineralocorticoids = aldosterone

68
Q

Which of the following are types of genetic drift?

i. Bottleneck Population
ii. Mutations
iii. Gene Flow
iv. Sexual Selection
v. Founder Effect

A. 1,2
B. 1,3
C. 3,4
D. 2,3
E. 1,5
A

E. 1,5

A bottleneck population and Founder effect are two types of genetic drift.

Genetic drift occurs when there is drifting towards specific alleles being selected over another by the sole reason of chance/probability. Obviously the smaller the population, the more likely it is that there could be genetic drift occurring. I remember genetic drift by thinking of a line dividing one gene from another, and there being a large drift towards a side. Founder effect occurs when the “founder” of a population has an uncommon allele for a population that is then transferred throughout the population because of the limited size and gene pool. A bottleneck population occurs when some natural catastrophe wipes out much of a population, leaving genetic drift morel likely to occur.

69
Q

Say a person has a hypothetical gene that codes for hair and another for color. When the hair gene inactivates the hair color to be expressed, this is referred to as

A. Incomplete Dominance
B. Epistasis
C. Pleiotropy
D. Nondisjunction
E. Complete Dominance
A

B. Epistasis

Epistasis simply refers to the event where the results of one gene directly deals with the activation (or lack thereof) of another. If a hypothetical person has no hair, then hair color is irrelevant because its phenotype cannot be expressed.

Pleiotropy: the production by a single gene of two or more apparently unrelated effects.

70
Q

From which of the following organs is Vasopressin secreted?

A. Hypothalamus
B. Anterior pituitary
C. Posterior pituitary
D. Adrenals

A

C. Posterior pituitary

Antidiuretic hormone (Vasopressin) is one of the most commonly tested peptide hormones. It is important to know that this hormone is a peptide hormone that is produced in the hypothalamus and secreted from the posterior pituitary gland and that this hormone will conserve body water by reducing the amount of water lost in the urine. Antidiuretic hormone stimulates aquaporins in the kidney tubules causing water to remain in the body. Osmoreceptors are receptors in the hypothalamus that measures that amount of solutes in the blood. If the blood is thick with solutes, the body will secrete vasopressin in order to increase the amount of water in the blood to dilute the solute thick blood. One of the major effects of increased blood volume is an increase in blood pressure.

NOTE: 1- Alcohol and caffeine will decrease ADH leading to extra need to urinate, and smoking will increase vasopressin. 2- Sweating causes an increase in ADH due to the loss of blood volume. 3- If ADH is secreted in low amounts, diabetes insipidus with increased thirst and peeing will result. This form of diabetes can also occur due to hypoactivity of the posterior pituitary gland due to loss of ADH secretion.

71
Q

Where is vasopressin produced and where is it stored?

A

produced in the hypothalamus

stored in the posterior pituitary

72
Q

What type of hormone is vasopressin and what does it do?

A

Vasopressin is a peptide hormone (vasopressIN) and conserves body water by reducing the amount of water lost in the urine.

Osmoreceptors are receptors in the hypothalamus that measures that amount of solutes in the blood. If the blood is thick with solutes, the body will secrete vasopressin in order to increase the amount of water in the blood to dilute the solute thick blood. One of the major effects of increased blood volume is an increase in blood pressure.

73
Q

Why does alcohol make you pee so much?

How does sweating affect the amount of ADH being secreted?

A
  1. Alcohol and caffeine will decrease ADH leading to extra need to urinate, and smoking will increase vasopressin.
  2. Sweating causes an increase in ADH due to the loss of blood volume.
  3. If ADH is secreted in low amounts, diabetes insipidus with increased thirst and peeing will result. This form of diabetes can also occur due to hypoactivity of the posterior pituitary gland due to loss of ADH secretion.
74
Q

In which of the following ways are C4 photosynthesis and CAM photosynthesis similar

A. They both use PEP carboxylase in the fixation of CO2 to OAA
B. Malic Acid is transferred in both
C. Both use storage vacuoles to store the product of OAA
D. All of the above
E. None of the Above

A

A. They both use PEP carboxylase in the fixation of CO2 to OAA

C4 photosynthesis and CAM photosynthesis both use PEP carboxylase in the fixation of CO2 to OAA. This first step is critical and the same in both processes, however, the next steps that follow are slightly modified or different. C4 photosynthesis uses malate whereas CAM uses and stores the ionized form of malate called malic acid. Only CAM photosynthesis uses storage vacuoles to store the product of OAA, thus CAM is storing up for photosynthesis whereas C4 photosynthesis is transferring for photosynthesis… this is the key difference between the two versions of photosynthesis.

C4 = malate
CAM = malic acid
75
Q

The hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland are connected by which venous portal system?

A. hypophyseal
B. renal
C. hepatic
D. pituitary
E. they are not connected by a portal system
A

A. hypophyseal

76
Q

What type of genes cannot independently segregate

A. Linked Genes
B. Codominant Genes
C. Dominant Genes
D. Recessive Genes
E. Incomplete dominant Genes
A

A. Linked Genes

Linked genes cannot independently segregate. The reason that they cannot segregate is because they are located on the same chromosome and as a result cannot be physically separated. Genes that are physically close to each other are as a result inherited together.

77
Q

Sister chromatids are joined at which of the following

A. Centromere
B. Cytokinesis
C. Kinetochore
D. Centriole
E. Metaphase Plate
A

A. Centromere

Sister chromatids are joined at the centromere. The DNA material of a chromosome that is condensed is lined up in two strand-like shapes and is joined at the center of the chromosome with is called the centromere, making a shape that looks similar to a capital H.

78
Q

Which of the following hydrogen bonds is the longest in DNA

A. Bond of Adenine with Thymine
B. Bond of Guanine with Cytosine
C. Bond of Adenine with Uracil
D. Bond of Guanine with Thymine
E. Bond of Guanine with Uracil
A

A. Bond of Adenine with Thymine

Adenine and Thymine is a double bond, whereas the bond between Guanine and Cytosine is a triple bond. Triple bonds are stronger than double bonds, but the question asks, which bond is longer. Triple bonds are stronger because they hold the electrons tighter together than double bonds, thus they are shorter in length. So the hydrogen bond between Adenine and Thymine is the longest of the choices.

79
Q

Total lung capacity in humans

A. RV + VC
B. TV + IRV + EV
C. TV + IRV
D. TV + EV
E. RV + ERV
A

A. RV + VC

Total lung capacity in humans = RV + VC. RV stands for residual volume, which is the amount of air left in the lungs after the expiratory reserved volume (ERV). VC stands for vital capacity which is the total of the tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, and the expiratory reserve volumes together.

VC = TV + IRV + ERV

80
Q

Are all sperm cells equally competitive in the process of reproduction

A. No, Some contain a genetic composition that gives them a competitive advantage
B. Yes, All sperm cells are in fact equally competitive because they are genetically identical
C. No, there is a random joining of gametes
D. Yes, there is a random joining of gametes

A

A. No, Some contain a genetic composition that gives them a competitive advantage

While there certainly is a random joining of gametes, it cannot be stated that they are all equally competitive because they are not all of the same genetic composition. Some might have adaptations that make them faster swimmers than others for example.

81
Q

Which of the following types of glands is the parathyroid gland?

A. Exocrine
B. Endocrine
C. Lymph
D. Mesocrine

A

B. Endocrine

The parathyroid gland is a small endocrine gland that is found on the posterior surface of the thyroid gland. Humans usually have four parathyroid glands. These glands are responsible for making and secreting parathyroid hormone in response to decreased plasma calcium levels. The chief cells of the gland secrete parathyroid hormone. PTH is one of the few main hormones that are used to regulate calcium and phosphate metabolism, and thus is involved in the process of bone remodeling. PTH will increase the plasma-calcium levels, and decrease the plasma-phosphate levels. Calcium levels are increased due to an increase in bone breakdown caused by PTH. PTH works in three ways. First is it increases the removal of calcium from bone storage and increases the absorption of calcium by the GI tract. Second, PTH acts on the kidneys to decrease calcium excretion and increase the excretion of phosphate in the urine. Lastly it increases vitamin D production in the kidney, which in turn will increase the GI tracts ability to absorb calcium.
NOTE: Bone breakdown due to PTH is often first seen in head and neck radiographs in the dental office. If a person is deficient in calcium in their diet, PTH production and bone resorption will occur.

Calcitonin = decrease blood calcium

PTH = increase blood calcium

82
Q

Which of the following are involved in the contraction of the ventricles

A. Bundle of His
B. Purkinje Fibers
C. Sinoatrial Node
D. Atrioventricular Node

A

B. Purkinje Fibers

83
Q

LH stimulates secretion of _____________.

A. estrogen, progesterone
B. testosterone, progesterone
C. ACTH, testosterone
D. progesterone, estrogen, and testosterone
E. just estrogen
A

D. progesterone, estrogen, and testosterone
FSH

females: ovarian follicle development and estrogen secretion
male: stimulates spermatogenesis

LH

females: estrogen and ovulation stimulation, corpus luteum formation, and progesterone secretion
males: testosterone secretion

84
Q

Gills are effective in maximizing respiratory gas exchange because

A. Increase surface area
B. Help deliver waste oxygen
C. Maximize CO2 levels in the blood
D. All of the above

A

A. Increase surface area

Gills are effective in maximizing respiratory gas exchange because they increase the surface area, which in turn allows gas to be exchanged much more effectively. The gills help deliver waste carbon dioxide (not oxygen), and thus help maximize oxygen levels in the blood.

85
Q

During Anaphase, what moves the chromosomes apart, separating them to opposite poles

A. Actin
B. Proactin
C. Microtubules
D. Microfilaments

A

C. Microtubules

86
Q

Which law refers to the fact that homologous chromosomal pairs along with their genes separate during gamete formation?

A. Law of segregation
B. Law of chromosomes
C. Law of independent assortment
D. Law of multiplication

A

A. Law of segregation

87
Q

All of the following are true regarding the Thyroid EXCEPT:

A. It produces Thyroxine, T4, which is the stable form of Thyroid Hormone
B. Iodine deficiency can cause enlargement of Thyroid gland
C. Secretes Calcitonin, which raises blood calcium levels
D. It produces Triiodothyronine, T3, Which is the active form of Thyroid Hormone

A

C. Secretes Calcitonin, which raises blood calcium levels

While the Thyroid does produce Calcitonin it TONES down blood Calcium. This equates to calcium deposition. Parathyroid Hormone will increase blood calcium.

88
Q

The nuclear envelope of a cell is broken down during the mitotic phase of ________, while a nuclear envelope is formed during the mitotic phase of _______

A. Prophase, Telophase
B. Metaphase, Anaphase
C. Anaphase, Telophase
D. Telophase, Prophase
E. Prophase, Anaphase
A

A. Prophase, Telophase

89
Q

Where do the light reactions of photosynthesis take place

A. Granum
B. Grana
C. Mitochondria
D. Stroma
E. Thylakoid Membrane
A

E. Thylakoid Membrane

The light reactions of photosynthesis take place in the Thylakoid Membrane of the Chloroplast. The thylakoid membrane contains the electron transport chain, which involves the transporting of electrons through the excitation from the sunlight and carrier proteins. The thylakoid membrane works as a barrier to create a pH difference between the stroma and the thylakoid compartment, which aids in the generation of ATP.

90
Q

Which of the following correctly describes alcoholic fermentation

A. Pyruvate –> Acetaldehyde + CO2 Latex Formula Ethanol + NAD+
B. Pyruvate –> Ethanol + NAD+ Latex Formula Acetaldehyde + CO2
C. Pyruvate –> Lactate + CO2
D. Pyruvate –> Acetyl CoA + CO2 Latex Formula Ethanol

A

A. Pyruvate –> Acetaldehyde + CO2 Latex Formula Ethanol + NAD+

Going the method of anaerobic respiration, its goal is to replenish NAD+, which is why it is a product, and also produces the alcohol ethanol.

91
Q

A person with XO sex chromosomes has which of the following genetic disorders

A. Klinefelter Syndrome
B. Down Syndrome
C. Turner Syndrome
D. Cri Du Chat Syndrome
E. Hemophilia
A

C. Turner Syndrome

A person with XO sex chromosomes has turner syndrome. Because of nondisjunction, gametes can lack their sex chromosome or have an extra, which when absent is labeled as an O. In a person with turner syndrome, they are missing a chromosome from one parent and receive the X from either the father or the mother.

92
Q

When a female deer selects a male deer who wins a battle against another male deer, this is commonly known as

A. Genetic Drift
B. Gene Flow
C. Sexual Selection
D. Inbreeding
E. Founder Effect
A

C. Sexual Selection

This type of reproduction is a type of nonrandom mating rather than random mating.

93
Q

A cleavage furrow BEGINS to develop during which of the following mitotic phases

A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase

A

C. Anaphase

94
Q

What type of leukocytes are involved in defending the body from parasites and allergic inflammatory responses

A. Lymphocyte
B. Macrophage
C. Basophil
D. Neutrophil
E. Eosinophil
A

E. Eosinophil

95
Q

Plants cells lack which of the following structures?

A. Chloroplasts
B. Centrioles
C. Mitochondria
D. Peroxisomes
E. Ribosomes
A

B. Centrioles

96
Q

In which phase or period of the cell cycle is there rapid cell growth and PREPARATION of the genetic material for cellular division

A. S
B. G1
C. G2
D. Mitosis
E. Meiosis
A

C. G2

There are three different phases of Interphase during the cell cycle: G1, S, and the G2 phase. All three of these phases involve cell growth and are different, but the key words “preparation of the genetic material for cellular division” are referencing the period just before mitosis, which is the G2 phase.

97
Q

If a person has respiratory alkalosis, which of the following would be rushed out continually from their body?

A. Carbon dioxide
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Oxygen
D. Blood
E. Water
A

A. Carbon dioxide

Being that this person has respiratory alkalosis, their blood is too basic, which simply means that it is not acidic enough (not enough hydrogen ions). Since the hydrogen ions come from the bicarbonate ions that transport carbon dioxide, we know that there would be low levels of carbon dioxide in the blood due to the person continually pushing too much out of their body.

98
Q

Which of the following types of hormones is prolactin?

A. Steroid
B. Neurotransmitter
C. Protein
D. None of the above

A

C. Protein

Dopamine inhibits prolactin

99
Q

A praying mantis uses what type of respiratory mechanism

A. Gills
B. Lungs
C. Operculum
D. Tracheae
E. Open
A

D. Tracheae

The tracheae are simply chitin tubes that carry gas for exchange and are commonly found in insects as their primary means of gas exchange. Diffusion occurs in the moistened ending of the tracheae and gas is exchanged through spiracles.

100
Q

When a reaction is in a state of equilibrium

A. The rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction
B. The concentration of the reactants must equal the concentration of the products
C. There is no production of reactants or products
D. The forward reaction goes faster than the reverse reaction
E. All of the above

A

A. The rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction

101
Q

Identify the proper order of the blood clotting sequence in humans:

i. Platelets interact with collagen of ruptured blood vessel
ii. Blood clotting occurs
iii. Prothrombin is converted to thrombin
iv. Fibrinogen activated to fibri

A. 1,2,3,4
B. 1,3,4,2
C. 2,1,3,4
D. 2,3,4,1
E. 3,4,2,1
A

B. 1,3,4,2

platelets interact with collagen of ruptured blood vessel —–>prothrombin is converted to thrombin –> fibrinogen activated to fibrin –> and blood clotting occurs.

Prothrombin is converted to thrombin before fibrinogen is converted to fibrin

102
Q

Predators and prey often evolve together in

A. Convergent Evolution
B. Divergent Evolution
C. Parallel Evolution
D. Coevolution

A

D. Coevolution

In coevolution between a predator and prey, both evolve together because only specific prey survive while only certain predators are able to find food and survive.

103
Q

Which of the following structures control ventilation in humans

A. Posterior Pituitary
B. Anterior Pituitary
C. Medulla Oblongata
D. Parathyroid
E. Pancreas
A

C. Medulla Oblongata

104
Q

Which of the following is not an autosomal genetic defect

A. Sickle-Cell anemia
B. Tay-Sachs Disease
C. Turner Syndrome
D. Huntington’s Disease
E. Phenylketonuria
A

C. Turner Syndrome

Turner Syndrome is not an autosomal genetic defect, but rather a sex chromosome genetic defect. An autosomal chromosome refers to a non-sex chromosome. Turner syndrome involves the nondisjunction of sex chromosomes, whereas the other four genetic disorders are all autosomal.

105
Q

Cell walls are found in all of the following except?

A. Fungi
B. Protists
C. Plants
D. Bacteria
E. Cell walls are found in all of the above
A

E. Cell walls are found in all of the above

The development of cell walls also occurs outside of the cell membrane which is likewise important to note. There are differences between the cell walls of these four groups, for example cell walls of fungi often have chitin present whereas plants do not. They are instead composed of cellulose. Another note of importance is that cell walls are not found in animal cells

106
Q

The antlers of elk are an example of

A. Sexual selection
B. Directional selection
C. Disruptive selection
D. Negative selection
E. Stabilizing selection
A

A. Sexual selection

The antlers of elk are an example of sexual selection. This type of sexual selection is referred to specifically as male competitiveness. Male competitiveness favors males with high levels of strength and larger antlers, which leads to elk with larger antlers and strength being more favored in reproduction.

107
Q

ATP is generated by channel proteins in the membrane of the crista. These channel proteins are more specifically called _______

A. ATP Generators
B. ATP Synthases
C. Crista Synthases
D. Protein Synthases

A

B. ATP Synthases

Remember that ATP is generated by ATP Synthase in the membrane of CRISTA

108
Q

What is a key difference between cyclic photophosphorylation and Noncyclic photophosphorylation

A. Noncyclic photophosphorylation produces NADPH
B. Only Cyclic photophosphorylation produces energy rich molecules
C. There is no difference between cyclic and Noncyclic photophosphorylation
D. Only cyclic involves the transferring or movement of electrons

A

A. Noncyclic photophosphorylation produces NADPH

NADPH is an energy rich molecules that is then used in the Calvin-Benson cycle of photosynthesis. Cyclic photophosphorylation simply goes down the electron transport chain again to create more ATP, whereas Noncyclic proceeds to produce NADPH. More ATP is necessary in the Calvin-Benson Cycle than NADPH, which is why cyclic photophosphorylation is important in photosynthesis.

109
Q

The first step of Glycolysis requires the input of

A. 2 ATP
B. 2 NADH
C. 4 ATP
D. 2 Pyruvate

A

A. 2 ATP

2 ATP is the requirement for the first step of Glycolysis to take place (Glucose ? 2 PGAL). This energy investment stems from the fact that there is an energy requirement for shipping NADH across the mitochondrial membrane from the cytoplasm, which is where Glycolysis takes place.

110
Q

When a cell collapses due to water moving out of the cell, this is known as

A. Simple diffusion
B. Facilitated diffusion
C. Active transport
D. Countercurrent exchange
E. Plasmolysis
A

E. Plasmolysis

111
Q

If a person undergoes a blood transfusion and begins to experience symptoms such as blood in their urine, fever, and their skin turns yellow in color, they are most likely experiencing

A. Hemophilia
B. ABO incompatibility
C. Normal symptoms
D. Rh incompatibility
E. Anemia
A

B. ABO incompatibility

If a person has a blood type that is incompatible with the transfusion blood type, one will attack the other. For example, if a person has is type A blood type, antibodies will attack AB or B blood types from the type A blood. A person with type A blood can accept type A or type O blood.

112
Q

The smallest vessels moving away from the heart in humans are termed ______

A. Veins
B. Venules
C. Capillaries
D. Arterioles
E. Arteries
A

C. Capillaries

The smallest vessels moving away from the heart in humans are the capillaries. Arteries and arterioles both move away from the heart along with the capillaries, however the “smallest” vessel moving away from the heart are the capillaries, and not the others.

113
Q

Identify the correct order of digestion

A. Mouth ? Small intestine ? Large intestine
B. Large intestine ? Small intestine ? Stomach
C. Esophagus ? Large Intestine ? Small Intestine
D. Mouth ? Esophagus ? Pharynx

A

A. Mouth ? Small intestine ? Large intestine

It is important to note that the small intestine precedes the large intestine, and also that the esophagus proceeds after the pharynx in digestion.

114
Q

The law of segregation

A. Is a law that was discovered by Newton
B. Refers to the nonrandom segregation of alleles to offspring
C. Occurs during Mitosis
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

A

E. None of the above

The law of segregation is a law that was discovered by Gregory Mendel while using pea plants. This law refers to the “random” segregation of alleles to offspring and occurs during Meiosis I. Make sure that you understand the difference between the law of segregation and the law of independent assortment.

115
Q

How many different genotypes are available with blood

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
E. 8
A

D. 6

6 different genotypes are available with blood, they are as follows: ii, IAIA, IBIB, IAIB, IAi, and IBi.

116
Q

If a cancer drug was to inhibit mitosis, which phase would it primarily be targeting in regards to inhibition

A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Telophase
D. Anaphase

A

D. Anaphase

If a cancer drug was to inhibit mitosis, the phase that it would primarily be targeting in regards to inhibition would be anaphase because it would want to stop the pulling apart of chromosomes. Cancer drugs do this by disrupting the ability of microtubules in separating chromosomes at the metaphase plate.

117
Q

In the heterotroph theory for the origin of life, all of the following are true with the exception of

A. Inorganic molecules were formed from organic ones
B. The first cells could not make their own food
C. Cells became more and more complex over time
D. Little to no oxygen was present

A

A. Inorganic molecules were formed from organic ones

In the heterotroph theory for the origins of life inorganic molecules were not formed from organic ones, but rather organic molecules were said to form from inorganic ones. The first cells could not make their own food (they were called heterotrophs), cells became more and more complex over time, and little to no oxygen was present in the early atmosphere.

118
Q

When a cell has two copies of a chromosome, and these copies code for the same specific trait at the same specific genetic loci, they are referred to as

A. Heterozygous Pairs
B. Homozygous Pairs
C. Homologous Pairs
D. Heterologous Pairs
E. Phenotypic Pairs
A

C. Homologous Pairs

When a cell has two copies of a chromosome, and these copies code for the same specific trait at the same specific genetic loci, they are referred to as homologous pairs. Within each homologous pair, one chromosome is inherited from the mother, while the other chromosome is inherited from the father.

119
Q

If wolves were to immigrate into a population of coyotes and begin mating, this bringing in of new alleles is known as

A. Gene Flow
B. Founder Effect
C. Bottleneck Population
D. Genetic Drift
E. Mutations
A

A. Gene Flow

If wolves were to immigrate into a population of coyotes and begin mating, this bringing in of new alleles is known as gene flow. Because the wolves are introducing new alleles to the coyote population, this describes gene flow. When thinking of gene flow, think about genes flowing in or out of a population. In the opposite case of wolves leaving a coyote population, genes are flowing out.

120
Q

Natural Selection

A. Occurs when the strongest species survive
B. Occurs when the weakest species survive
C. Occurs when nature selects the most adaptive species
D. Was established my Mendel

A

C. Occurs when nature selects the most adaptive species

Remember that natural selection is not necessarily about the strongest species surviving, but rather the one that its environment selects to be the most adaptive in respect to it. The theory of natural selection was established by Charles Darwin.

121
Q

What causes the “lub-dup” sounds that the heart makes in the cardiac cycle

A. Closing of the AV valves and SA nodes
B. Closing of the SA valves and the pulmonary semilunar valve
C. Closing of the SA valves and the aortic semilunar valve
D. Closing of the AV valves and both semilunar valves

A

D. Closing of the AV valves and both semilunar valves