Ch18 Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

disease

A

a disturbance in the normal functioning of an organism

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2
Q

infectious disease

A

any disease caused by a microbe

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3
Q

communicable diseases
What is the opposite called? (easy)

A

infectious diseases that can be transmitted between individuals

non-communicable diseases

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4
Q

contagious disease

A

a communicable disease that can be transmitted easily

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5
Q

What types of diseases are:
Tetanus
AIDS
measles
How are they all alike?

A

non-communicable
communicable
contagious
All are infectious diseases (caused by microbes)

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6
Q

zoonotic diseases
(give an example)

A

caused by microbes naturally in animals that cause disease when transmitted to humans

rabies

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7
Q

pathogen
pathogenesis
infection

A

a microbe that causes disease
the way in which a pathogen causes disease
the replication of a pathogen in/on a host

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8
Q

symptoms
signs

A

disease state apparent to the patient (difficult to quantify)
disease state noticed by an outside party

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9
Q

Primary pathogens
Opportunistic pathogens

A

produce disease readily anytime (like “Bacillus anthracis”/”Yersinia pestis”)

cause disease only under certain circumstances (like “Candida albicans” in a WEAKENED immune system)

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10
Q

People with HIV disease represents the largest group of people with ____________.

A

weakened immune systems

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11
Q

Is poliovirus an opportunistic or primary pathogen?

A

primary

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12
Q

case to infection (CI) ratio

A

the number of people infected that develop the disease

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13
Q

What is the CI ratio of :
Measles?
Poliovirus?

A

.95 (95% of people with the measles virus will develop the disease)

<.01 (less than 1% of people infected will develop the disease)

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14
Q

pathogenicity
virulence

What is the pathogenicity of species in the:
Shigella genus?
Salmonella genus?

A

The ability of a microbe to cause disease (measurement)
The intensity of the disease caused by the microbe

high pathogenicity (the ingestion of a few cells can cause disease)
low pathogenicity (ingestion of 1000s of cells causes disease)

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15
Q

Give an example of a strain with high virulence

A

1918 strain of influenza

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16
Q

What may account for differences in virulence?

Can the virulence of one pathogenic species to another be compared? Why/Why not?

A

genetic differences between strains of a pathogen

Not really, diseases that cause different symptoms, make it hard to figure out which is more serious or not (page 628)

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17
Q

attenuation

A

decrease in the virulence of a pathogen

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18
Q

What provides more accurate/objective measures of virulence?

A

The LD50 (amount of pathogen/toxin that kills about 50% of test subjects)

The ID50 (amount of pathogen/toxin that infects about 50% of test subjects)

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19
Q

What is the LD50 of the Tetanus Toxin?
Vibrio cholerae?

What does this indicate

A

about 0.001 μg kg−1
about 250 μg kg−1
(Tetanus toxin is 250,00 times more potent; lower values = higher potency)

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20
Q

carrier

A

one that becomes infected but shows no symptoms (and may transmit to others); asymptomatic

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21
Q

how to microbes cause disease (generally)

A

(1) entry in host
attachment/invasion of specific cells
evade host defenses
obtain nutrients from host
leave the host
(like a robber coming to steal and dipping)

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22
Q

virulence factors

A

products that boosts the ability of a pathogen to cause disease

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23
Q

what determines the host range of a pathogen?
what can alter this?
(give an example)

A

the ability to attach, invade, and replicate within a host
molecular changes in the pathogen

canine parvoviruses (CPV2a & CPV2b)

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24
Q

antigenic variation

A

a host immune system evasion mechanism; pathogen alters surface antigens so as to prevent host recognition;

thus the avoidance of elimination

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25
Q

latent infection
When does reactivation occur?
What type of virus does this

A

the genome/micobr is present within the cells but does not produce new virions (if so, very few)

when host experiences some cellular stress

herpes virus

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26
Q

autophagy

A

the induction of cell death by the host to limit virus spread, though intracellular degradatipn

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27
Q

apoptosis

A

induction of cell death by host, resulting in cell suicide through DNA fragmentation

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28
Q

necrosis

A

host-induced cell death that results in cell rupture/ release of toxic cell contents

causing more damage/ inflammation
(unlike apoptosis quietly dying)

this occurs when cells are injured by structural damage/ loss of oxygen (due to trauma/ infection)

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29
Q

What is the difference between apoptosis and necrosis?

A

Necrosis causes collateral damage to other healthy cells

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30
Q

What do viruses commonly do relative to apoptosis to ensure virions are produced?

A

prevent apoptosis early in infection cycle
induce apoptosis late in infection cycle

OR infection through apoptotic body formation

31
Q

restriction-modification system

What can pathogens do to evade this system

A

methylation (adding methyl groups) of host DNA to avoid self-cleavage by restriction enzymes
`
unmethylated DNA OF Invading pathogens may be cleaved and degraded by host restriction enzymes

inhibit host cell inhibition enzymes
methylated DNA prior to cleavage

32
Q

CRISPR-Cas

A

an adaptive immune system existing in most bacteria/ archaea, preventing infection

the system allows researchers to alter DNA

33
Q

Cas9
Cas13

A

(protein most used by researchers) targets dsDNA
targets RNA

34
Q

toxins
what component of gram+ bacteria can act as a toxin
gram-?

A

substances produced by an organism that damage the host

lipoteichoic acid
lipopolysaccharide

35
Q

Do viruses produce toxins? If not, how so?

A

Generally not, they usually replicate within a cell

36
Q

For a pathogen to survive, what must they do? Why?

A

They must successfully transmit to other hosts, or other environments (as hosts eventually die)

37
Q

transmission

A

the spread of an infectious agent from its source to a new host

38
Q

direct transmission
indirect transmission

A

the spread of an infectious agent via physical contact between infected and susceptible individuals

the spread via other objects like water, food, etc.

39
Q

fomite

A

a contaminated inanimate object capable of spreading pathogens

40
Q

fecal-oral transmission
airborne/aerosol transmission

A

transmission in which pathogens excreted in feces of one individual is ingested by another

pathogens that replicate in the respiratory tract transmitted

41
Q

vector-borne transmission
mechanical transmission
biological transmission

A

an arthropod vector (like a mosquito/tick) carries a pathogen from one host to another

a type of transmission that involves a vector PHYSICALLY carrying pathogen (the vector does not get infected)

vector borne transmission where that vector gets infected

42
Q

sexual transmission
STIs

A

transmission that occurs through vaginal/anal/oral sex

sexually transmitted infections - infectious diseases spread through sex (like HIV)

43
Q

vertical transmission
horizontal transmssion

A

transmission that occurs from parent to child (what HIV can do)

transmission that occurs amongst members of a species

44
Q

zoonotic transfers
reservoir host
dead-end-hosts

A

transmission from an animal reservoir host to a human

species that a pathogen usually infects

incidental hosts for zoonotic transfers (not efficiently transferred from person to person) (like H5N1 influenza)

45
Q

epidemiology

A

the study of disease patterns in populations (like cancer, obesity, genetic diseases, etc.)

46
Q

morbidity rate
mortality rate

A

rate of disease
rate or death associated with diseases
(these rates are investigated by epidemiologists)

47
Q

a case

how are asymptomatic individuals identified as a case?

A

an individual that exhibits the disease/ infected but may/may not be showing signs/symptoms

through PCR, culture, or ELISA (diagnostic testing)

48
Q

incidence
prevalence
Which is larger? WHY?

A

of new cases appearing in a population during a SPECIFIC time period

total # of cases in a population at a particular point in time/ during a particular time period

prevalence since it includes both new/ preexisting cases

49
Q

What do measures of incidence and prevalence show?

A

tell the level of infectious disease in a population
allow comparisons between populations over time

50
Q

emerging diseases
emerging pathogens

A

known/unknown diseases with a recent significant increase in incidence

pathogens associated with emerging diseases

51
Q

endemic diseases/agents

A

one that is consistently present in a specific population (like rabies in North American foxes)

incidence can decrease/ increase depending on seasons, immunity, etc.

52
Q

epidemic
outbreak

A

incidence of a disease that significantly rises above normally expected for a population

An unexpected cluster of cases within a short period of time in a localized population
(to terms may be used interchangeably)

53
Q

pandemic

A

an epidemic affecting populations globally at the same time (concurrently)

made up of (interpandemic, alert, pandemic, and transition phase)

54
Q

T or F: cases of infectious diseases occur randomly.

A

False; they occur in patterns

55
Q

common source epidemic

A

an outbreak that occurs when the single source that infects the population is exposed

56
Q

incubation period

A

the period in which the pathogen enters and the illness appears

57
Q

T or F: Cases in common source epidemics tend to remain isolated NEAR the local source of infection

58
Q

propagated epidemic (page 647)

A

an outbreak that results from infection passing from one host to another indirectly or directly (like from COVID-19)

59
Q

What is the common trend of propagated outbreaks

A

and increase in incidence as people are getting infected, until reaching a peak,

where a good amount of people are infected, immune, or dead

60
Q

What is the difference between a common source epidemic (CSE) and a propagated epidemic (PE)

A

PEs continue to appear in more than one incubation period (as infected people spread to others, the case #s ^)

61
Q

What doesn’t epidemiology allow us to determine

A

Whether a specific microbe has a specific disease (only how infections spread through a population)

62
Q

Koch’s postulates

A

demonstrates that a specific microbe causes a specific disease

63
Q

According to Rob Koch, what criteria should be met to prove a microbe causes a disease?

A
  1. the microbe exists in every individual with the disease and account for signs/symptoms
  2. should not be associated with other diseases
  3. should cause same disease after being isolated
64
Q

Warren/Marshal

A

got nobel prize for proving stomach ulcers are caused by H. pylori

65
Q

What did Koch observe relative to pathogens and individuals?

A

Not all individuals react to pathogens in the same way

66
Q

molecular Koch’s postulates

A

by Stanley Farklow
virulence factor gene (VGF) should be present/ expressed

inactivation of VGF should = decreased virulance

reversion of VGF = virulence restoration

VGF should be expressed during an infection

resistance to VF must have protection

67
Q

pathogenicity islands (PAIs)

A

regions of chromosome that contain virulence factor genes

68
Q

T or F: Evolutionary pressure, it appears, has selected for the linkage of these individual virulence factor genes into a cohesive genetic structure

69
Q

How may an emerging/ new disease arise?

A

zoonotic transfer
microbe becomes more virulent
pathogen becomes resistant to antimicrobial drugs

70
Q

spillover

A

when an existing pathogen encounters a new population

71
Q

SIV (simian immunodeficiency virus)

A

HIV evolved from this, a virus found in various non-human primates throughout Africa

72
Q

clades

A

genetically distinct subtype of a species

73
Q

What causes Lyme disease?

A

the bacterium Borrelia burgdoferi