Ch 9, 11, 12, 13 Flashcards

1
Q

A recent security evaluation concluded that your company’s network design is too consolidated.
Hosts with wildly different functions and purposes are grouped together on the same logical area of the network. In the past, this has enabled attackers to easily compromise large swaths of network hosts. What technique(s) do you suggest will improve the security of the network’s design, and why?

A

In general, you should start implementing some form of network segmentation to put hosts with the same security requirements within segregated zones. For example, the workstations in each business department can be grouped in their own subnets to prevent a compromise of one subnet from spreading to another. Likewise, with VLANs, you can more easily manage the logical segmentation of the network without disrupting the physical infrastructure (i.e., devices and cabling)

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2
Q

You are discussing a redesign of network architecture with a client, and they want to know what the
difference between an extranet and Internet is. How can you explain it?

A

The Internet is an external zone where none of the hosts accessing your services can be assumed trusted
or authenticated. An extranet is a zone allowing controlled access to semi-trusted hosts, implying some sort of authentication. The hosts are semi-trusted because they are not under the administrative control of the organization (as they are owned by suppliers, customers, business partners, contractors, and so on).

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3
Q

Why is subnetting useful in secure network design?

A

Subnet traffic is routed, allowing it to be filtered by devices such as a firewall. An attacker must be able to gather more information about the configuration of the network and overcome more barriers to launch successful attacks.

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4
Q

How can an enterprise DMZ be implemented?

A

By using two firewalls (external and internal) around a screened subnet, or by using a triple-homed firewall (one with three network interfaces).

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5
Q

What type of network requires the design to account for east-west traffic?

A

This is typical of a data center or server farm, where a single external request causes multiple cascading requests between servers within the data center. This is a problem for a perimeter security model, as funneling this traffic up to a firewall and then back to a server creates a performance bottleneck.

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6
Q

Why might an ARP poisoning tool be of use to a threat actor performing network reconnaissance?

A

The attacker could trick computers into sending traffic through the attacker’s computer (performing a MitM/onpath attack) and, therefore, examine traffic that would not normally be accessible to him (on a switched network).

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7
Q

How could you prevent a malicious attacker from engineering a switching loop from a host connected to a standard switch port?

A

Enable the appropriate guards (portfast and BPDU Guard) on access ports.

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8
Q

What port security feature mitigates ARP poisoning?

A

Dynamic ARP inspection—though this relies upon DHCP snooping being enabled.

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9
Q

What is a dissolvable agent?

A

Some network access control (NAC) solutions perform host health checks via a local agent, running on the host. A dissolvable agent is one that is executed in the host’s memory and CPU but not installed to a local disk.

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10
Q

True or false? Band selection has a critical impact on all aspects of the security of a wireless network?

A

False—band selection can affect availability and performance but does not have an impact in terms of either confidentiality or integrity.

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11
Q

The network manager is recommending the use of “thin” access points (aka antennas) to implement the wireless network. What additional appliance or software is required and what security advantages should this have?

A

You need a wireless controller to configure and manage the access points. This makes each access point more tamper-proof as there is no local administration interface. Configuration errors should also be easier to identify

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12
Q

What is a pre-shared key?

A

This is a type of group authentication used when the infrastructure for authenticating securely (via RADIUS, for instance) is not available. The system depends on the strength of the passphrase used for the key

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13
Q

Is the WPS (aka WPA) a suitable authentication method for enterprise networks?

A

No, an enterprise network will use RADIUS authentication. WPS (aka WPA) uses PSK and there are weaknesses in the protocol.

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14
Q

You want to deploy a wireless network where only clients with domain-issued digital certificates can
join the network. What type of authentication mechanism is suitable?

A

EAP-TLS is the best choice because it requires that both server and client be installed with valid certificates.

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15
Q

Why are many network DoS attacks distributed?

A

Most attacks depend on overwhelming the victim. This typically requires a large number of hosts, or bots.

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16
Q

What is an amplification attack?

A

Where the attacker spoofs the victim’s IP in requests to several reflecting servers (often DNS or NTP servers).
The attacker crafts the request so that the reflecting servers respond to the victim’s IP with a large message,
overwhelming the victim’s bandwidth.

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17
Q

What is meant by scheduling in the context of load balancing?

A

The algorithm and metrics that determine which node a load balancer picks to handle a request.

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18
Q

What mechanism provides the most reliable means of associating a client with a particular server
node when using load balancing?

A

Persistence is a layer 7 mechanism that works by injecting a session cookie. This is generally more reliable than the layer 4 source IP affinity mechanism.

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19
Q

True or false? A virtual IP is a means by which two appliances can be put in a fault tolerant
configuration to respond to requests for the same IP address?

A

True

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20
Q

What field provides traffic marking for a QoS system at layer 3?

A

Layer 3 refers to the DiffServ field in the IP header.

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21
Q

What vulnerabilities does a rogue DHCP server expose users to?

A

Denial of service (providing an invalid address configuration) and spoofing (providing a malicious address configuration—one that points to a malicious DNS, for instance).

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22
Q

Why is it vital to ensure the security of an organization’s DNS service?

A

DNS resolves domain names. If it were to be corrupted, users could be directed to spoofed websites. Disrupting DNS can also perform denial of service.

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23
Q

True or false? The contents of the HOSTS file are irrelevant as long as a DNS service is properly configured.

A

False (probably)—the contents of the HOSTS file are written to the DNS cache on startup. It is possible to edit the registry to prioritize DNS over HOSTS, though.

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24
Q

What is DNS server cache poisoning?

A

Corrupting the records of a DNS server to point traffic destined for a legitimate domain to a malicious IP address.

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25
Q

What are the advantages of SASL over LDAPS?

A

The Simple Authentication and Security Layer (SASL) allows a choice of authentication providers and encryption (sealing)/integrity (signing) mechanisms. By contrast, LDAPS uses Transport Layer Security (TLS) to encrypt traffic, but users still authenticate via simple binding. Also, SASL is the standards-based means of configuring LDAP security (& provides integrity)

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26
Q

What steps should you take to secure an SNMPv2 service?

A

Configure strong community names and use access control lists to restrict management operations to known hosts.

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27
Q

What type of attack against HTTPS aims to force the server to negotiate weak ciphers?

A

a downgrade attack

28
Q

A client and server have agreed on the use of the cipher suite ECDHE-ECDSA-AES256- GCM-SHA384 for a TLS session. What is the key strength of the symmetric encryption algorithm?

A

256-bit (AES).

29
Q

What security protocol does SFTP use to protect the connection and which port does an SFTP server listen on by default?

A

Secure Shell (SSH) over TCP port 22.

30
Q
Which port(s) and security methods should be used by a mail client to submit messages for delivery
by an SMTP server?
A

Port 587 with STARTTLS (explicit TLS) or port 465 with implicit TLS.

31
Q

When using S/MIME, which key is used to encrypt a message?

A

The recipient’s public key (principally). The public key is used to encrypt a symmetric session key and (for performance reasons) the session key does the actual data encoding. The session key and, therefore, the message text can then only be recovered by the recipient, who uses the linked private key to decrypt it.

32
Q

Which protocol protects the contents of a VoIP conversation from eavesdropping?

A

Encrypted VoIP data is carried over the Secure Real-time Transport Protocol (SRTP).

33
Q

True or false? A TLS VPN can only provide access to web-based network resources

A

False—a Transport Layer Security (TLS) VPN uses TLS to encapsulate the private network data and tunnel it over the network. The private network data could be frames or IP-level packets and is not constrained by application layer protocol type.

34
Q

What is Microsoft’s TLS VPN solution?

A

The Secure Sockets Tunneling Protocol (SSTP).
Port 443
VPN transport PPP traffic thru SSL/TLS with encryption + integrity

35
Q

What IPSec mode would you use for data confidentiality on a private network?

A

Transport mode with Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP). Tunnel mode encrypts the IP header information, but this is unnecessary on a private network. Authentication Header (AH) provides message authentication and integrity but not confidentiality

36
Q

Which protocol is often used in conjunction with IPSec to provide a remote access client VPN with user authentication?

A

Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP).

37
Q

What is the main advantage of IKE v2 over IKE v1?

A

Rather than just providing mutual authentication of the host endpoints, IKE v2 supports a user account
authentication method, such as Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

38
Q

What bit of information confirms the identity of an SSH server to a client?

A

The server’s public key (host key). Note that this can only be trusted if the client trusts that the public key is valid. The client might confirm this manually or using a Certificate Authority.

39
Q

What use is made of a TPM for NAC attestation?

A

The Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a tamper-proof (at least in theory) cryptographic module embedded in the CPU or chipset. This can provide a means to sign the report of the system configuration so that a network access control (NAC) policy enforcer can trust it.

40
Q

Why are OS-enforced file access controls not sufficient in the event of the loss or theft of a computer or mobile device?

A

The disk (or other storage) could be attached to a foreign system and the administrator could take ownership of the files. File-level, full disk encryption (FDE), or self-encrypting drives (SED) mitigate this by requiring the presence of the user’s decryption key to read the data.

41
Q

What use is a TPM when implementing full disk encryption?

A

A trusted platform module provides a secure mechanism for creating and storing the key used to encrypt the data. Access to the key is provided by configuring a password. The alternative is usually to store the private key on a USB stick.

42
Q

What countermeasures can you use against the threat of malicious firmware code?

A

Only use reputable suppliers for peripheral devices and strictly controlled sources for firmware updates.
Consider use of a sheep dip sandboxed system to observe a device before allowing it to be attached to a host in the enterprise network. Use execution control software to allow only approved USB vendors.

43
Q

What type of interoperability agreement would be appropriate at the outset of two companies
agreeing to work with one another?

A

A memorandum of understanding (MOU).

44
Q

What type of interoperability agreement is designed to ensure specific performance standards?

A

A service level agreement (SLA). In addition, performance standards may also be incorporated in business partner agreements (BPAs).

45
Q

What is a hardened configuration?

A

A basic principle of security is to run only services that are needed

46
Q

True or false? Only Microsoft’s operating systems and applications require security patches.

A

False—any vendor’s or open source software or firmware can contain vulnerabilities that need patching.

47
Q

Antivirus software has reported the presence of malware but cannot remove it automatically. Apart from the location of the affected file, what information will you need to remediate the system manually?

A

The string identifying the malware. You can use this to reference the malware on the A-V vendor’s site and, hopefully, obtain manual removal and prevention advice.

48
Q

You are consulting with a medium-size company about endpoint security solutions. What advantages does a cloud-based analytics platform have over an on-premises solution that relies on signature updates?

A

Advanced persistent threat (APT) malware can use many techniques to evade signature-based detection. A cloud analytics platform, backed by machine learning, can apply more effective behavioral-based monitoring and alerting

49
Q

If you suspect a process of being used for data exfiltration but the process is not identified as
malware by A-V software, what types of analysis tools will be most useful?

A

You can use a sandbox with monitoring tools to see which files the process interacts with and a network monitor to see if it opens (or tries to open) a connection with a remote host.

50
Q

Other than cost, which factor primarily constrains embedded systems in terms of compute and networking?

A

Power—many embedded systems must operate on battery power, and changing the batteries is an onerous task, so power-hungry systems like processing and high bandwidth or long-range networking are constrained.

51
Q

What addressing component must be installed or configured for NB-IoT?

A

A LTE-based cellular radio, such as narrowband-IoT, uses a subscriber identity module (SIM) card as an identifier. This can either be installed as a plug-in card or configured as an eSIM chip on the system board or feature in a SoC design

52
Q

Why should detailed vendor and product assessments be required before allowing the use of IoT
devices in the enterprise?

A

As systems with considerable computing and networking functionality, these devices are subject to the same sort of vulnerabilities and exploits as ordinary workstations and laptops

53
Q

How does VDI work as a mobile deployment model?

A

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) allows a client device to access a VM. In this scenario, the mobile device is the client device.

54
Q

Company policy requires that you ensure your smartphone is secured from unauthorized access in
case it is lost or stolen. To prevent someone from accessing data on the device immediately after it
has been turned on, what security control should be used?

A

screen lock

55
Q

An employee’s car was recently broken into, and the thief stole a company tablet that held a great deal of sensitive data. You’ve already taken the precaution of securing plenty of backupsof that data. What should you do to be absolutely certain that the data doesn’t fall into the wrong hands?

A

Remotely wipe the device, also referred to as a kill switch.

56
Q

What is containerization?

A

A mobile app or workspace that runs within a partitioned environment to prevent other (unauthorized) apps from interacting with it

57
Q

What is the process of sideloading?

A

The user installs an app directly onto the device rather than from an official app store.

58
Q

Why might a company invest in device control software that prevents the use of recording devices within company premises?

A

To hinder physical reconnaissance and espionage.

59
Q

Why is a rooted or jailbroken device a threat to enterprise security?

A

Enterprise Mobility Management (EMM) solutions depend on the device user not being able to override their settings or change the effect of the software.

60
Q

How might wireless connection methods be used to compromise the security of a mobile device processing corporate data?

A

An attacker might set up some sort of rogue access point (Wi-Fi) or cell tower (cellular) to perform eavesdropping or man-in-the-middle attacks. For Personal Area Network (PAN) range communications, there might be an opportunity for an attacker to run exploit code over the channel.

61
Q

Why might enforcement policies be used to prevent USB tethering when a smartphone is brought to
the workplace?

A

This would allow a PC or laptop to connect to the Internet via the smartphone’s cellular data connection. This could be used to evade network security mechanisms, such as data loss prevention or content filtering.

62
Q

True or false? A maliciously designed USB battery charger could be used to exploit a mobile device
on connection.

A

True (in theory)—though the vector is known to the mobile OS and handset vendors so the exploit is unlikely to be able to run without user authorization

63
Q

What is meant by a public cloud?

A

A solution hosted by a third party cloud service provider (CSP) and shared between subscribers (multi-tenant).
This sort of cloud solution has the greatest security concerns.

64
Q

What type of cloud solution would be used to implement a SAN?

A

This would usually be described as Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS).

65
Q

What is a Type II hypervisor?

A

Software that manages virtual machines that has been installed to a guest OS. This is in contrast to a Type I (or
“bare metal”) hypervisor, which interfaces directly with the host hardware

66
Q

What is a VDE?

A

A Virtual Desktop Environment (VDE) is the workspace presented when accessing an instance in a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) solution. VDI is the whole solution (host server and virtualization platform, connection protocols, connection/session broker, and client access devices).

67
Q

What is the risk from a VM escaping attack?

A

VM escaping refers to attacking other guest OSes or the hypervisor or host from within a virtual machine. Attacks
may be to steal information, perform Denial of Service (DoS), infect the system with malware, and so on.