Ch 10, 16, 19 QA Flashcards

1
Q

What is a Content Filer?

A

It restricts web use to authorized site only.

i.e. schools or company

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2
Q

How does a proxy server work?

A

On a store-and-forward model that deconstructs each packs, analyzes, removes suspicious content, rebuilds, forwards it on

i.e. A system has broken down a packet containing malicious content, and erases the suspicious content, before rebuilding the packet.

Filter traffic between user & internet. Added protection like a firewall/filter. Its a server with its own IP address like a computer but its like a gate between your house & the world

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3
Q

How to configure a packet filtering firewall?

A

Specify a group of rules (ACL) defining the type of data in the pack and take action when the packet matches the rule.
i.e. A system admin builds rules based on source IP addresses allowing access to an intranet
Stateless (no info kept, can cause load balancer issues)

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4
Q

What is an application firewall?

A

Inspects packets & analyzes HTTP headers & code.
Try to id if code matches a pattern in its threat database
Stateful (tracks info, allow established & related traffic if a new connection accepted)

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5
Q

What is an appliance firewall?

A

Monitors all traffic passing into and out of a network segment, stand-alone hardware firewall

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6
Q

How does a transparent proxy server work?

A

aka forced or inline
it intercepts client traffic without reconfiguring the proxy server address

A server that intercepts the connection between an end-user or device and the internet. It is called “transparent” because it does so without modifying requests and responses

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7
Q

What does a network admin do with a non-transparent proxy server?

A

Configure the client with a proxy server address & port number to use it

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8
Q

What is a caching server?

A

Does not require client-side configuration (transparent proxy server) Client is unaware of the server which redirects client requests without modification.
Saves web pages & requests for offline access

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9
Q

A network administrator wants to use a proxy server to prevent external hosts from connecting directly with application servers. Which proxy server implementation will best fit this need?

A

Reverse Proxy Server
Deployed on the network edge, it protects server from direct contact with client requests from the public network (internet)

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10
Q

A system administrator wants to install a mechanism to conceal the internal IP addresses of hosts on a private network. What tool can the administrator use to accomplish this security function?

A

A NAT gateway translates between a local and public network by substituting private IPs for a public IP and forwarding the requests to the public Internet, thereby concealing private addressing schemes.

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11
Q

What does a Virtual firewall do?

A

Virtual firewalls often enact east-west security and zero-trust microsegmentation design paradigms. Virtual firewalls can inspect traffic as it passes from host-to-host or between virtual networks, rather than routing that traffic up to a firewall appliance and back.

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12
Q

How are firewall ACL’s configured?

A

On the principle of least access/least privilege

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13
Q

What is a function and two problems with a NIDS?

A

Network-based Intrusion Detection System
ID & Log hosts and application the admin can analyze
High chance of false positives & false negatives
Does not block traffic during an attack

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14
Q

When implementing a NIDS, which sensor deployment is ideal if concern is for overloads and resiliency in case of a power loss?

A

Passive TAP (test access point) - monitor port receives every frame (corrupt or not) and load does not effect copying

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15
Q

What is important to use when deploying an active TAP?

A

A model with a backup power, because an active TAP will fail during power loss

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16
Q

What does an aggregation TAP do?

A

It rebuilds the upstream & downstream channels into a single channel, but will drop frames under a heavy load

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17
Q

Are SPAN/mirror port sensors reliable?

A

Not completely, a switched port analyzer aka mirror may drop frames when under a heavy load or frames with errors will not be mirrored.

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18
Q

What is a mirror port?

A

Setup one port to copy (mirror) packets

A switch sends those copies to another port to be analyzed

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19
Q

What to consider when using a signature-based intrusion detection system?

A

The signatures & rules need to be updated regularly to protect against threat types

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20
Q

Which system produces false positives & may block legitimate activity?

A

NBAD - Network behavior & anomaly detection engines use heuristics to create a baseline.
(creates false positives & negatives until it reaches “normal”)
Behavioral-based detection engines recognize baseline traffic/events generating an incident when anything deviates

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21
Q

What system can detect zero-day attacks?

A

Behavioral-based detection software identifies zero-day, insider threats, and other malicious activity that has a signature which deviates from the baseline

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22
Q

Which of the following solutions best addresses data availability concerns that may arise with the use of application-aware next-generation firewalls (NGFW) and unified threat management (UTM) solutions?

A

SWG - secure web gateway
NGFW & UTM provide high confidentiality and integrity but lower throughput reduces availability.
Use SWG as a content filter so security solutions for server traffic are treated differently from user traffic.

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23
Q

What does an IPS do?

A

Intrusion Prevention Systems are positioned like firewalls at borders between network zones, providing an active response to network threats.

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24
Q

What does a TAP do?

A

Active or Passive Test Access Points are a hardware devices inserted into a cable to copy frames for analysis

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25
Q

Which product can help fine-tune a firewall and appliance setting?

A

NIDS (network-based intrusion detection system)
Analyzing NIDS logs lets an administrator tune firewall rulesets, remove or block suspect hosts and processes from the network or deploys additional security controls to mitigate identified threats.

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26
Q

What does a UTM do?

A

Unified threat management products centralize security controls, so it may not perform as well as a device with a single dedicated security function

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27
Q

How does an IPS differ from an IDS?

A

An IDS is passive, but an instruction prevention system can provide an active response to any network threat it matches

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28
Q

Name two types of SIEM log collection?

A

Agent-based (install agent on host to filter data that goes to the SIEM server for analysis & storage)

Listener/Collection - parse and normalize each log/monitoring source after configuring hosts to push updates to SIEM using syslog or SNMP

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29
Q

What is log aggregation?

A

Normalizing data from different sources to its consistent & searchable but does not refer to a type of log collection

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30
Q

What is packet capture?

A

Data captures from network sensors/sniffers plus netflow sources that provides both summary statistics about bandwidth and protocol usage and the opportunity for detailed frame analysis

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31
Q

When does SIEM need AI & ML the most?

A

Analysis and Report Review
SIEM links events or data points (observables) into a meaningful indicator of risk or IoC

AI & Machine Learning drive correlation efforts for automated analysis

32
Q

How does data aggregation work?

A

With SIEM, it normalizes data from different sources so its consistent and searchable

33
Q

What is the first task of SIEM?

A

To collect data inputs from multiple sources (agent-based log collection, sensor/sniffer data, listener/collector protocols) such as syslog & SNMP (simple network management protocol)

34
Q

How does SIEM improve on traditional log management?

A

Performs correlation, linking observables (data points) into a meaningful indicator of risk or IoC

35
Q

What handles the problem from the volume of alerts overwhelming an analysts’ ability to respond.

A

SOAR - security orchestration, automation, & response

Alone or with SIEM, machine learning used for incident response & threat hunting

36
Q

Where does SIEM collect data from?

A

Agent-based, listener/collection, sensor (sniffer) to collect packet captures & traffic flow data

37
Q

True or False? As they protect data at the highest layer of the protocol stack, application-based firewalls have no basic packet filtering functionality.

A

False, all firewalls perform basic packet filtering (by IP address, protocol type, port number, and so on)

38
Q

What distinguishes host-based (personal) software firewall from a network firewall appliance?

A

A personal firewall software can block processes from accessing a network connection as well as applying filtering rules. fi

A personal firewall protects the local host only, while a network firewall filters traffic for all hosts on the segment behind the firewall.

39
Q

What is usually the purpose of the default rule on a firewall?

A

Block any traffic not specifically allowed (implicit deny).

40
Q

True or false? Static NAT means mapping a single public/external IP address to a single private/ internal IP address.

A

True

41
Q

What is NAT?

A

A NAT gateway is a service that translates between the private addressing scheme used by hosts on the LAN and the public addressing scheme used by router, firewall, or proxy server on the network edge

42
Q

What is the purpose of SIEM

A

Security information and event management (SIEM) products aggregate IDS alerts and host logs from multiple sources, then perform correlation analysis on the observables collected to identify indicators of compromise and alert administrators to potential incidents.

43
Q

Does Syslog perform all the functions of a SIEM

A

No, syslog allows remote hosts to send logs to a server, but syslog does not aggregate/normalize the log data or run correlation rules to identify alertable events.

44
Q

What areas of a business or workflow must you examine to assess multiparty risk?

A
Supply Chain dependencies
Customer relations (in case of a cyber incident disrupting business)
45
Q

What risk type arises from shadow IT?

A

Shadow IT is the deployment of hardware, software, or cloud services without the sanction of the system owner (typically the IT department). The system owner will typically be liable for software compliance/licensing risks.

46
Q
What metric(s) could be used to make a quantitative calculation of risk due to a specific threat to a
specific function or asset?
A

Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) or Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE). ALE is SLE multiplied by ARO (Annual Rate of Occurrence).

47
Q

What factors determine the selection of security controls in terms of an overall budget?

A

The risk (as determined by impact and likelihood) compared to the cost of the control. This metric can be calculated as Return on Security Investment (ROSI).

48
Q

What type of risk mitigation option is offered by purchasing insurance?

A

Risk transference.

49
Q

What is a risk register?

A

A document highlighting the results of risk assessments in an easily comprehensible format (such as a heat map or “traffic light” grid). Its purpose is for department managers and technicians to understand risks associated with the workflows that they manage.

50
Q

What is control risk?

A

Control risk arises when a security control is ineffective at mitigating the impact and/or likelihood of the risk factor it was deployed to mitigate. The control might not work as hoped, or it might become less effective over time.

the chance it will screw up

51
Q

What factor is most likely to reduce a system’s resiliency?

A

Single points of failure.

52
Q

True or false? RTO expresses the amount of time required to identify and resolve a problem within a single system or asset.

A

True

53
Q

What is measured by MTBF?

A

Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) represents the expected reliability of a product over its lifetime.

54
Q

What is a tabletop exercise?

A

A discussion-based drill of emergency response procedures. Staff may role-play and discuss their responses but actual emergency conditions are not simulated.

55
Q

Why are exercises an important part of creating a disaster recovery plan?

A

Full-scale or functional exercises can identify mistakes in the plan that might not be apparent when drafting procedures. It also helps to familiarize staff with the plan.

56
Q

Name the 5 steps in a Risk Management Process

A

1) Identify Mission Essential Functions (could cause the whole company to fail)
2) Identify Vulnerabilities (systems & assets)
3) Identify threats (sources & actors, why vulnerability exploited)
4) Analyze business Impacts (likelihood vulnerability will be activated by a threat & impact)
5) Identify Risk Response (id countermeasures for each risk & cost for extra security)

57
Q

Management of a company practices qualitative risk when assessing a move of systems to the cloud. How does the company indicate any identified risk factors?

A

Qualitative risk assessment uses categories or classifications such as Irreplaceable, High Value, Medium Value, and Low Value.

58
Q

What is EF?

A

An Exposure Factor (EF) is the percentage of the asset value that would be lost in the event of an incident.

59
Q

Management of a company identifies priorities during a risk management exercise. By doing so, which risk management approach does management use?

A

Risk posture is the overall status of risk management. Risk posture shows which risk response options management can identify and prioritize.

60
Q

Define inherent risk?

A

The result of a quantitative or qualitative analysis is a measure of inherent risk. Inherent risk is the level of risk before attempting any type of mitigation.

61
Q

Define risk avoidance?

A

Risk avoidance means that management halts the activity that is risk-bearing. For example, management may discontinue a flawed product to avoid risk.

62
Q

What is MTD?

A

The Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD) is the longest period of time a business function outage may occur without causing irrecoverable business failure.

63
Q

Difference between RTO & RPO

A

Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is the period following a disaster an individual IT system may remain offline. It also represents the amount of time it takes to identify there is a problem and perform a recovery.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is the amount of data loss a system can sustain, measured in time. If a database is destroyed and has an RPO of 24 hours, the data can be recovered to a point not longer than 24 hours before the database was infected.

64
Q

What is WRT?

A

Work Recovery Time (WRT) is the additional time that it takes to restore data from backup, reintegrate different systems, and test overall functionality. This can also include briefing system users on any changes or different working practices so that the business function is again fully supported.

65
Q

What is KPI?

A

Key Performance Indicators (KPI) determines the reliability of each asset. Main KPIs include MTBF and MTTR.

66
Q

A company determines the mean amount of time to replace or recover a system. What has the company calculated?

A

Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) is a measure of the time taken to correct a fault to restore the system to full operation. This is also known as a mean time to replace or recover and is important in determining the overall Recovery Time Objective (RTO).

67
Q

What is the difference between the role of data steward and the role of data custodian?

A

The data steward role is concerned with the quality of data (format, labeling, normalization, and so on). The data custodian role focuses on the system hosting the data assets and its access control mechanisms

68
Q

What range of information classifications could you implement in a data labeling project?

A

One set of tags could indicate the degree of confidentiality (public, confidential/secret, or critical/top secret).
Another tagging schema could distinguish proprietary from private/sensitive personal data.

69
Q

To what data state does a trusted execution environment apply data protection?

A

Data in processing/data in use.

70
Q

You take an incident report from a user trying to access a REPORT.docx file on a SharePoint site. The
file has been replaced by a REPORT.docx.QUARANTINE.txt file containing a policy violation notice.
What is the most likely cause?

A

This is typical of a data loss prevention (DLP) policy replacing a file involved in a policy violation with a tombstone file.

71
Q

Define Data Owner

A

A data owner has the ultimate responsibility for maintaining the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information asset.
The owner is responsible for labeling the asset and ensuring it is protected with appropriate controls.

72
Q

Define Data Custodian

A

A data custodian is responsible for managing the system where data assets are stored, including responsibility for enforcing access control, encryption, and backup or recovery measures.

73
Q

Define Data Steward

A

The data steward is primarily responsible for data quality, such as ensuring data is labeled and identified with appropriate metadata and that data is collected and stored in a format with values that comply with applicable laws and regulations.

74
Q

Define Privacy Officer

A

The privacy officer is responsible for oversight of any Personally Identifiable Information (PII) assets managed by the company and ensures that the processing and disclosure of PII comply with the legal and regulatory frameworks.

75
Q

A new cloud-based application will replicate its data on a global scale, but will exclude residents of the European Union. Which concerns should the organization that provides the data to consumers take into consideration? (Select all that apply.)

A

Data sovereignty refers to a jurisdiction preventing or restricting processing and storage from taking place on systems that do not physically reside within that jurisdiction.

Storage locations might have to be carefully selected to mitigate data sovereignty issues. Most cloud providers allow a choice of data centers for processing and storage.

76
Q

What is IRM?

A

A benefit of IRM is that file permissions can be assigned for different document roles, such as author, editor, or reviewer. Each role can have specific access such as sending, printing, and editing.

Printing and forwarding of documents can be restricted even when the document is sent as a file attachment. This means that just because a document is forwarded it may not have printing capabilities.

Printing and forwarding of email messages can be restricted.

Not Immune to screen captures