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Alya Cards Pathology Robbins basis > Ch 8 > Flashcards

Ch 8 Flashcards

1
Q

Non DNA containing organisms (class)

A

Prions

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2
Q

What is the difference btw gram pos vs neg in cell membrane?

A

Gram pos: one phospholipid layer (neg has 2)

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3
Q

What colour do gram negative bacteria take?

A

Red

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4
Q

What is a general rule regarding gram stain and shape of bacteria

A

Most bacilli are gram negative
Most cocci and gram positive

Therefore gram negative cocci - Neisseria

Gram positive bacillus - Corny Mike’s List of Basic Cars

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5
Q

What are the gram positive rods/bacilli

A

Corney Mike’s list of basic cats

Corney bacterium
Mycobacteria
Listeria
Bacillus
Nocardia

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6
Q

Endotoxins are exclusively secreted by which gram bacteria

A

Gram negative

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7
Q

What test detects viral load?

A

Polymerase chain reaction PCR

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8
Q

Chlamydiae forms ____ (shape) in its infectious form

A

Elementary body

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9
Q

Best test to diagnose mycobacteria/Nocardia?

A

Acid-fast stain

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10
Q

Silver stain is used to diagnose 3

A

Fungi
Legionella
P. Jirovecii

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11
Q

Mucicarmine is used to DX 1

A

Cryptococcus

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12
Q

Giemsa stain is used to diagnose 3

A

Parasites: Campylobacter, leishmania, malaria

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13
Q

What is the most common opportunistic pathogen infecting CNS in AIDS patients?

A

Toxoplasmosis

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14
Q

Toxoplasma causes (side) chorioretinitis in newborn

A

Unilateral

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15
Q

Diagnosis of toxoplasmosis?

A

Serology mainly
BX of affected tissues may show tachyzoites

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16
Q

What is Chagas Disease?

A

Caused by Trypanosoma Cruzi. Mainly effects heart (sudden death/arrythmia)

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17
Q

How does T. Cruzi invade host?

A

Through skin or mucous membranes transmitted by triatomine bugs

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18
Q

What is the metabolically active form of C. Trachomatis?

A

Reticulate body

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19
Q

Syphilis is caused by (organism)

A

T Pallidum

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20
Q

What mechanism allows T Pallidum to persist against host defense’s?

A

Outer membrane has TprK allows recombination with TprK gene: antigenic diversity

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21
Q

What is the main immune response in Syphilis?

A

T cells CD4+, Th1

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22
Q

How does Syphillic chancre spread?

A

Lymphatics and/or hematogenous

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23
Q

What is primary syphillis?

A

3 weeks post infection
Development of raised lesion (chancre)

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24
Q

What is secondary syphilis?

A

Occurs 2-10 weeks after chancre
1.Development of painless superficial lesions to skin and mucosa (palms, soles)
2. Fever
3. Lymphadenopathy
4. Neurosyphilis

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25
Q

Diagnosis of syphillis 2

A

Serology: cardiolipin- cholesterol-lecithin antigen (via Rapid Plasma Reagin,
VDRL tests)

Treponemal test: best for late/tertiary syphillis
Treponemal and non treponemal: for secondary and primary

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26
Q

What is tertiary syphillis?

A
  1. Cardiovascular (aortitis)
  2. Neurosyphilis
  3. Gummas in bone, skin, mucous membranes
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27
Q

What is benign tertiary syphillis?

A

Gummas forming in bone, skin, mucous membranes

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28
Q

What is congenital syphillis types? Sx

A
  1. Infantile: first 2 yrs of life. Nasal discharge in first few months.
  2. Tardive: desquamating bullous rash, hands and feet, mouth, hepatomegaly, skeletal.
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29
Q
A

Herpes blister

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30
Q

Skin

A

Secondary syphillis in dermis (endothelial proliferation, lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate)

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31
Q

What is unique about schistosoma infecting through skin?

A

Can dissolve adhesive proteins which hold keratinocytes together. Infection through unbroken skin

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32
Q

What are the characteristics of skin that can defend against microbes 4

A

Physical barrier
Fatty acids
Low PH
Defensins - small peptides toxic to bacteria

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33
Q

Which organism infects neutropenic patients?

A

Aspergillus sp

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34
Q

Which infection is opportunistic in AIDS?

A

P. Jirovecii

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35
Q

What immunoglobulin is secreted in stomach? Source?

A

IgA - Peyer’s patches

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36
Q

Which Candida causes oral thrush?

A

Candida albicans

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37
Q

Which infections can impair lung ciliary activity? 2

A

Bortadella pertussis
M. Pneumonia

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38
Q

Which infections can be transmitted through breast milk?

A

CMV
HIV
Hep B

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39
Q

How does influenza evade immune system?

A

Antigenic switching - has RNA segments that can recombinate

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40
Q

What does S. Pneumonia release to prevent phagocytosis?

A

Protein A - binds Fc portion of ab. Ab cannot bind to phagocyte receptors

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41
Q

How do some organisms resist cytokines/chemokines?

A

Release homologues IFN A/B/G to act as decoys; inhibition of JAK/STAT pathway or produce proteins that inhibit PKR (Protein kinase R)

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42
Q

What does IFN for viruses?

A

Inhibits viral replication

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43
Q

Which part of immune system does HIV infect?

A

CD4+ T cells

44
Q

What is the mediator of ‘T cell exhaustion’?

A

Programmed cell death protein (PD-1)

45
Q

What does PD-1 do immunity?

A

Maintains self tolerance to antigens

46
Q

What is the mechanism of onset of rheumatic heart disease?

A

Streptococcal M protein antibodies cross reacts with cardiac protein

47
Q

What infection are Burns patients at risk of?

A

P. Aureginosa

48
Q

How does botulism cause paralysis?

A

A-B toxin inhibits synaptic release in neurons (does NOT kill neurons)

49
Q

How does gram negative endotoxin LPS cause damage?

A

LPS binds to CD14 (LPS/CD14 complex). Complex then binds to TLR4

50
Q

Lipoteichoic acid from gram positive bacteria bind to?

A

TLR2

51
Q

E. Histolica: type of necrosis, organs affected

A

Colon and liver abscesses
Liquefactive necrosis

52
Q

Which organism causes diarrhoea, and can invade liver (abscess)?

A

Entamoeba histolyca

53
Q

What symptom does giardia cause?

A

Watery diarrhea

54
Q

Symptoms of typhoid?

A

Splenomegaly (no hepatomegaly or abscesses)

55
Q

What is the characteristic finding in scrapings of primary syphillis (Treponema)?

A

Obliterative endaritis with perivascular lymphocytes and plasma cells

56
Q

Gummatous inflammation is seen in which types of syphillis?

A

Tertiary or congenital

57
Q

Which common infection binds to ICAM-1?

A

Rhinovirus

58
Q

What is cystecerosis?

A

Caused by taenia solium
Eating raw pork
Penetrate gut into brain - cysts

59
Q

How does polio spread?

A

Fecal oral

60
Q

How does polio cause paralysis?

A

Invades from mouth to anterior horn cells bulbar nuclei

61
Q

What are the symptoms of Leishmania donovani? Places?

A

Middle East, Africa or South Asia, Latin America
Hepatosplenomegaly
Lymphadenopathy
Hyperpigmentation of skin
Pancytopenia

62
Q

What does Leishmania invade (immune cells)?

A

Macrophages

63
Q

Seen in HIV patient. DX?

A

CMV infection (Cytoplasmic inclusions)

64
Q

Shigellosis vs Histolytica colonic ulcers?

A

Shigellosis in superficial (does not invade lamina propria)

65
Q

Organism involved with colonic ulcers and development of Reiters in HLA 27 positive people?

A

Shigella flexneri

66
Q

Presentation of C.Diphteria infection 3

A

Inflammatory membrane (tonsils, larynx)
Myocarditis
Neuropathy

67
Q

What is Rocky mountain spotted fever?

A

Rickettsia
Vasculitis type rashes (trunk, palms/soles), thrombosis, necrosis of skin
From ticks

68
Q

Organism associated with skin anaesthesia?

A

M. Leprae

69
Q

Klebsiella is known for which complication?

A

Abscess formation

70
Q

Bronchopneumonia and abscess formation is characteristic of which infection?

A

Actinomyces israeli

71
Q

Falciparum: how does it invade?

A

Hepatocytes: cells rupture and merozoites invade RBC

72
Q

What is the presentation of S.hematobium infection?

A

Affects bladder (calcifications, granulomas)
Africa

73
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae: cause of lung haziness on XR?

A

Mononuclear infiltrates (monocytes, histiocytes)

74
Q

Mechanism of Clostridium tetany causing muscle spasms?

A

Cleavage of synaptobrevin in synaptic vesicles of neurons

75
Q

Subcutaneous crepitus associated with open wounds is usually caused by

A

Clostridium perferingence (gas gangrene)

76
Q

Organism?

A

Trypanosoma

77
Q

Coin lesions in lung caused by bird shit is caused by

A

H capsulatum

78
Q

Patient has diabetic ketoacidosis, develops facial pain and eye proptosis

A

Mucor sp

79
Q

What is the presentation of rotavirus?

A

Toddler <6 months
Diarrhea
Villous atrophy: cannot absorb sodium/water

80
Q

How does granuloma formation kill microbes?

A

Macrophages secrete nitric oxide

81
Q

Fever and haemolytic anaemia. RBC looks like this. DX?

A

Babesia

82
Q

What are the 3 types of chlamydia?

A

Primary
Secondary
Late

83
Q

What does primary chlamydia symptoms?

A

Small painless ulcer that heals

84
Q

What does secondary chlamydia present like?

A

Painful lymphadenopathy, rectal ulcers

85
Q

What does chlamydia at late stage present like?

A

Anogenital strictures and fibrosis

86
Q

Colon. DX?

A

Entamoeba histolyca ‘flask shaped’ ulcer

87
Q

How does Rickettsia spread?

A

Vector borne

88
Q

What makes older kids resistant to rotavirus?

A

IgA

89
Q

What is the presentation of congenital syphillis?

A

Still birth, hydrops
Saber shins, saddle nose, Hutchinson’s teeth
Diffuse rash
Lungs pale
Periosteitis, osteochondritis of femur/vertebrae

90
Q

Which cranial nerve is affected in congenital syphillis?

A

CN VIII

91
Q

How does Dengue haemorrhagic shock happen?

A

Previously infected person, gets reinfected

92
Q

What are the seudomonas virulence factors? 4

A

Exotoxin A
Exotoxin S
Phospholipase C
Fe compounds

93
Q

Pseudomonas: what effect does exotoxin A have?

A

Inhibits protein synthesis

94
Q

Pseudomonas: what effect does exotoxin S do?

A

Inhibits host cell growth

95
Q

Pseudomonas: what effect does phospholipase C do?

A

Degrades pulmonary surfactant

96
Q

Where does schistosoma lay in body? Effects on presentation?

A

Hepatic venules –>fibrosis–>portal HTN

97
Q

Presentation of Nocardia?

A

Contact with soil
Pneumonia–>brain, kidney, skin
Immunocompromised host

98
Q

What is an agglutination test?

A

Small particles (eg bacterial) are coupled with a reagent antibody/antigen. This is added to patient sample: agglutination will occur if target antibody/antigen/bacterial is present

99
Q

Agglutination of 32. Meaning?

A

The most dilute sample giving agglutination is 1/32 of initial

100
Q

What is complement fixation?

A

Diagnosis for fungal, viral infections (esp cocciodiomycosis)
Incubate specimen with known amounts of complement and antigen - degree of fixation

Measures IgM or IgG

Labour intensive, controls

101
Q

Which test is used for fungal or pyogenic meningitis?

A

Precipitation tets

102
Q

What is PCR?

A

Test that creates polymers of DNA and replicates them

103
Q

What polymerase is used in PCR?

A

TAQ polymerase

104
Q

What are the steps in PCR?

A

1.Denaturation (high temp to separate DNA)
2.Annealing (cooling so primers can bind to DNA)
3.Extension (synthesis of new stands)

105
Q

How to check that correct products are made through PCR?

A

Agarose gel electrophoresis

106
Q

What is the key concept of flow cytometry?

A

Hydrodynamic focusing

Alya Cards Pathology Robbins basis (12 decks)

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