Ch 7 Assessment Flashcards

1
Q

Practice Exam 1

The counseling department at a university is interested in measuring the relationship between the GRE scores of students entering the program and the students’ grade point average upon graduation. They discover that the correlation between the two measures is .60. What is the amount of variability shared between grade point average and GRE:
Select one:

A. 0.8

B. 0.6
C. 0.36

D. 0.06

A

The Correct Answer is: C

Shared variability, or the amount of variability shared by two variables, is equal to the square of the correlation coefficient (r) of the two variables, or r2. If the correlation is .60, then the amount of shared variability is .602, or .36.

The correct answer is: 0.36

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2
Q

A junior high school counselor gives an IQ test to a 13-year old student. The student scores very high on the test. The counselor would expect the student to have:
Select one:

A. below-average athletic ability

B. average athletic ability

C. above-average athletic ability

D. no interest in athletics

A

The Correct Answer is: B

Notice that the question asked what the counselor would “expect.” In appraisal, an expected value is the value you think a variable would take on, assuming only the information you are given. There is no consistent correlation between most IQ tests and athletic ability. If there is no correlation between two variables, then the value you expect for the second variable based on the first variable is the mean. The best answer, then, is the one that reflects average athletic ability. Think about it this way: if you know absolutely nothing about a person, you would assume they’re average. If IQ and athletic ability were strongly correlated, however, the answer would be “a” (if they were negatively correlated) or “c” (if they were positively correlated).

The correct answer is: average athletic ability

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3
Q

A career counselor gives all of her new clients a measure of career maturity that scores people on a 100-point scale from 1 to 100. After collecting data on over 100 clients, she notices that the scores are normally distributed. The mean score is 65, indicating a level of moderate career maturity. The standard deviation of scores is 10. Based on this information, she would expect that 68% of her clients will have scores between:

A. 1 and 100

B. 35 and 95

C. 45 and 85

D. 55 and 75

A

The Correct Answer is: D

In a normally distributed distribution, approximately 68% of scores will be in the range of one standard deviation below the mean and one standard deviation above the mean. In this case, the standard deviation is 10 and the mean is 65. One standard deviation below the mean is 55 and one standard deviation above the mean is 75. So, the career counselor would expect about two-thirds, or 68%, of the scores to be in this range.
The correct answer is: 55 and 75

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4
Q

A client at a vocational development center is taking a test to help determine her career interests. The function of this test could be best described as:

A. prediction

B. discrimination

C.monitoring

D. evaluation

A

The Correct Answer is: B

Vocational or career interest tests (and all interest tests for that matter) are considered to be used for the purpose of discrimination (i.e., determining what category a person belongs in).
The correct answer is: discrimination

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5
Q

The developer of a new career interest inventory gives a copy of the inventory to a group of career counselors and asks each of them to rate the value of each of the items on a seven-point scale. The test developer is trying to assess:

A. internal consistency reliability

B. construct validity

C. criterion-related validity

D. content validity

A

The Correct Answer is: D

By having experts in a particular domain judge the value of the items, the test developer is trying to assess the content validity of the test. Also, note the similarity between the words “value” and “validity.”
The correct answer is: content validity

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6
Q

An expectancy table is used to interpret an examinee’s test score in terms of his or her:

A. expected outcome on a criterion
B. standing in a normative group

C. expected “true” test score

D. mastery of the test content

A

The Correct Answer is: A

An expectancy table provides examinees’ likely outcome on a criterion measure, given their score on a predictor measure.
The correct answer is: expected outcome on a criterion

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7
Q

You are working as a consultant for a large corporation. The president of the company tells you that there is something wrong with the test he is giving to applicants for upper management positions. Specifically, many applicants who have failed the test and have been turned down for positions have gone on to be great successes at other companies. Apparently, the test yields too many:.
Select one:

A. true negatives

B. true positives

C. false negatives
D. false positives

A

The Correct Answer is: C

This test does not have criterion-related validity since applicants who have been rejected were later proved to be successful. Thus, the test yields too many false rejections (false negatives).

The correct answer is: false negatives

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8
Q

A test designed to measure levels of alcohol intoxication yields high scores for examinees who are under the influence of marijuana, PCP, and caffeine. The test lacks:
Select one:

A. differential validity
B. divergent validity

C. predictive validity

D. content validity

A

The Correct Answer is: A

Differential validity means correlation in one classification category only. This test cannot correlate one category (alcohol intoxication) only since marijuana, PCP and caffeine are included in the measurement for alcohol. (b) Divergent or discriminant validity is a method for assessing a test’s construct validity. A test has discriminant validity when it has low correlations with measures designed to assess unrelated traits. (c) Predictive validity is a type of criterion-related validity determined by correlating predictor scores with subsequently-obtained criterion scores. (d) Content validity is the extent to which a test adequately samples the domain of information, knowledge, or skill that it purports to measure.

The correct answer is: differential validity

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9
Q

Which of the following is not a major section of the Standards for Education and Psychological Testing (1999)?
Select one:

A. test construction, evaluation, and documentation

B. fairness in testing

C. testing applications

D. tests and assessments in use and in development

A

The Correct Answer is: D

The Standards for Education and Psychological Testing (1999) were developed jointly by the American Educational Research Association, the American Psychological Association, and the National Council on Measurement in Education. This document addresses professional and technical issues of test development and test use in education, psychology, and employment.

D. CORRECT Choices A, B, and C comprise the three major parts of the Standards. The Standards do not cover actual, specific tests in use or development.

The correct answer is: tests and assessments in use and in development

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10
Q

Aptitude tests are to achievement tests as __________ is to ability to perform a task.
Select one:

A. general ability
B. ability to learn a task

C. previous learning

D. any of the above

A

The Correct Answer is: B

In the past it was presumed that aptitude tests measured innate abilities and achievement tests measured learning experiences. Research (e.g., Goh and McElhorn, 1992) has shown, however, that innate ability and environmental factors account for the same amount of variability in both achievement and aptitude tests. The currently accepted distinction between the two forms of testing is that aptitude tests measure a person’s potential capacity for future learning and achievement tests measure what a person has already learned; i.e., his/her developed capacity (Walsh and Betz, 1990). The distinction between these two types of tests is not absolute, however, and some authors (e.g., Aiken, 1985) recommend that the term “ability test” be used to refer to both forms of testing, with “ability” being defined as a person’s capacity to perform a task.

A. Incorrect “General ability” is too broad.
B. CORRECT “Ability to learn a task” is the only good answer offered.
C. Incorrect “Previous learning” has much to do with achievement, while previous learning also affects aptitude.
D. Incorrect Only B is correct.

The correct answer is: ability to learn a task

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11
Q

Each item on a 60-item math test is given equal weight. Scores are computed by taking the fraction of correct items divided by total number of items, and converting that fraction to a decimal number. For example, a person who answered 45 out of 60 correct got a score of .75. Person X got a score of .70 on this test. If Person X’s score were converted to percentage correct, what would the new score be?
Select one:

A. 0.7

B. 0.45

C. it depends on the distribution of scores

D. there is not enough information provided to be able to answer this question

A

The Correct Answer is: A

This question requires both that you understand the concept of a percentage, and figure out that the question is much less complex than it might appear to be.

A. CORRECT The heart of the question is, “.70 out of 1.00 is equal to what percentage?” If you know what a percentage is, it is very easy to derive the answer–70%.

The correct answer is: 0.7

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12
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about the General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB)?
Select one:

A. it involves both paper-and-pencil and performance tests

B. it provides scores on factors that cover both intellectual and manual aptitude

C. it is used for vocational counseling and job placement

D. it includes personality assessment

A

The Correct Answer is: D

The General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB) was developed by the United States Employment Service for use with high school students and adults for vocational counseling and job placement and referral. It consists of eight paper-and-pencil and four apparatus tests that provide scores on nine factors: general learning ability, verbal aptitude, numerical aptitude, spatial aptitude, form perception, clerical perception, motor coordination, finger dexterity, and manual dexterity.

D. CORRECT The GATB does not assess personality.
The correct answer is: it includes personality assessment

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13
Q

As a result of the court’s decision in Griggs v. Duke Power, employers must:
Select one:

A. be able to demonstrate the relationship between selection tests scores and job performance

B. not use IQ tests for selection or placement purposes under any condition

C. provide examinees with a copy of any test used for decision-making purposes if requested

D. not use selection instruments that yield different scores for different groups of applicants (e.g., males and females)

A

The Correct Answer is: A

Griggs v. Duke Power Company (1971) set a number of standards for using tests. For instance, it required companies to prove, when challenged, that their selection tests are valid.
A. CORRECT This is the only correct answer. See above.

The correct answer is: be able to demonstrate the relationship between selection tests scores and job performance

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14
Q

Prediction is to discrimination as predicting a client’s success in academic and career behaviors is to:
Select one:

A. evaluating how well intervention goals are being achieve

B. identifying a client’s level of career maturity

C. evaluating a client’s profile in relation to occupational and/or academic groups
D. assessing the content of a client’s career choice

A

The Correct Answer is: C

The major functions of testing in vocational/career counseling are prediction, discrimination, monitoring, and evaluation. Prediction and discrimination are relevant to the content of a client’s career choice, while monitoring is relevant to the process of a client’s career choice. In prediction, standardized test data are used to predict a client’s success in various areas, such as academic and career behaviors. Discrimination involves using tests and inventories to help the client learn what occupational and/or academic groups he/she resembles in terms of interests, values, personality traits, etc. Monitoring data are used to identify a client’s level of career maturity (i.e., readiness to make a career choice). Evaluation entails using tests to determine the effectiveness of an intervention (e.g., whether and to what extent intervention goals are being achieved).

C. CORRECT Based on the information above, you can see that the correct analogy is “prediction is to discrimination as predicting a client’s success in academic and career behaviors is to evaluating a client’s profile in relation to occupational and/or academic groups.”

The correct answer is: evaluating a client’s profile in relation to occupational and/or academic groups

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15
Q

In general, research has demonstrated that tests such as the Bayley Scales of Infant Development:
Select one:

A. are valid predictors of academic performance in grammar and high school

B. are valid for assessing the intelligence of children in the elementary grades

C. have little validity for predicting adult intelligence test scores

D. have moderate to high validity for predicting academic success

A

The Correct Answer is: C

Bayley’s test is designed to evaluate intelligence in infants and preschool children, ages 2-30 months.

C. CORRECT Tests such as the Baley are difficult to administer due to the short attention span and lack of interest in small children. Also, the abilities of infants are not stable. Therefore, infant intelligence tests have little validity for predicting future intelligence.

The correct answer is: have little validity for predicting adult intelligence test scores

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16
Q

Tests are widely used in industry to predict training and on-the-job success. Recent meta-analyses of research investigating the validity of tests in industrial settings have shown which of the following to be true about the validity of tests for predicting job performance ratings?

Select one:

A. interest inventories are more valid than either ability or personality tests

B. ability tests are more valid than either interest inventories or personality tests

C. interest inventories and ability tests are about equally valid and more valid than personality tests

D. interest inventories and personality tests are about equally valid and more valid than ability tests

A

Select one:

A. interest inventories are more valid than either ability or personality tests

B. ability tests are more valid than either interest inventories or personality tests
C. interest inventories and ability tests are about equally valid and more valid than personality tests

D. interest inventories and personality tests are about equally valid and more valid than ability tests

17
Q

Which of the following represents the best performance?
Select one:

A. percentile score of 90 in a normal distribution

B. T-score of 75

C. stanine score of 9
Incorrect

D. z-score of +3.0

A

The Correct Answer is: D

A z-score of +3.0 is three standard deviation units above the mean. By contrast, a T-score of 75 is 2.5 standard deviation units above the mean, a stanine score of 9 is two standard deviation units above the mean, and a percentile rank of 90 is (in a normal distribution) about 1.5 standard deviation units above the mean.

D. CORRECT See above.
The correct answer is: z-score of +3.0

18
Q

Scores on the GRE are reported in terms of a comparison between the examinee’s scores and the scores of others taking the test. Thus, the GRE is a _____________________ test.
Select one:

A. criterion-referenced test

B. content-referenced test

C. norm-referenced test

D. mastery test

A

The Correct Answer is: C

Norm-referenced interpretation involves comparing an examinee’s test scores with the scores from a normative sample. The sample provides a standard by which the test performance is interpreted.

A. Incorrect The scores on a criterion-referenced test are interpreted according to a predetermined standard rather than in terms of an examinee’s standing in a normative sample.
B. Incorrect The scores on a content-referenced test are also interpreted according to a predetermined standard.
C. CORRECT See above.
D. Incorrect A mastery test or a power test allows unlimited time for examinees to answer test questions. Mastery tests are designed to prevent examinees from receiving a perfect score.

The correct answer is: norm-referenced test

19
Q

A vocational counselor uses a test of career maturity to predict how much money a group of her most gifted students will be earning in ten years. The test would have more validity if:

Select one:

A. she gave the test to all of her students rather than just the gifted ones
Correct

B. it were a test of vocational interest rather than a test of vocational maturity

C. all of the items on the test asked questions that were very similar in form and content

D. it were given to a smaller group of students

A

The Correct Answer is: A

The more restricted the range (variability) of test scores, the lower the correlation coefficient.

A. CORRECT Including all of the students in the test would have increased the range of scores and, thereby, increased the validity coefficient the counselor obtained.
B. Incorrect Interest inventories are not good predictors of occupational (or educational) success, since job success (performance) is more closely related to ability than interests–i.e., although interest might affect performance, it is no substitute for ability (e.g., Campbell and Hansen, 1981).
C. Incorrect Though all of the questions should pertain to the same (i.e., relevant) content domain, they should not all be very similar in form and content.
D. Incorrect This is not true.

The correct answer is: she gave the test to all of her students rather than just the gifted ones

20
Q

A counselor working from a ______________ approach would be least likely to use appraisal:
Select one:

A. trait-and-factor

B. behavioral

C. person-centered

D. psychodynamic

A

The Correct Answer is: C

Person-centered counselors do not believe in formal techniques of appraisal and diagnosis. This is because they believe that the client is the expert on his or her problems and that appraisal techniques shift the responsibility for identifying those problems onto the therapist.

The correct answer is: person-centered

21
Q

Practice Exam 2

Which of the following is not defined as a basic function of appraisal:
Select one:

A. assessing the presenting problem

B. gaining a basis for prediction
C. understanding a client’s personality resources

D. providing a client with information about him or herself

A

The Correct Answer is: D

Because of the word “not,” this is a reverse type question. While some instruments of appraisal provide clients with information about themselves, appraisal (which is essentially synonymous with diagnosis) basically involves identifying the presenting problem, gaining an understanding of the client, and predicting the future course of the problem and the client.

The correct answer is: providing a client with information about him or herself

22
Q

If a test uses an existing passing score as a comparison to your score, it is:
Select one:

A. criterion-referenced

B. norm-referenced
C. a standardized test

D. a power test

A

The Correct Answer is: A

Criterion-referenced test-scores are interpreted in terms of a prespecified standard of performance. (b) Norm-referenced compares scores to scores in the sample norm. (c) Standardized test scores are determined in terms of standard deviations from the mean. (d) Power tests are made up of items of varying difficulty levels. An examinee’s score on a power test reflects the level of difficulty she or he has mastered.

The correct answer is: criterion-referenced

23
Q

Moos and his associates have developed three major dimensions to measure environments in order to classify the similarities and differences among them. These dimensions are useful in environmental assessment and include all of the following except:
Select one:

A. a relationship dimension

B. a system maintenance and change dimension

C. an individual intrapsychic dimension

D. a personal development dimension

A

The Correct Answer is: C

Moos (1975) focused on the environment in which people interact. Answers (a), (b), and (d) exist in that environment and are measured by Moos. An individual intrapsychic dimension is not included; thus, (c) is “wrong,” and the correct answer to this reverse type question.

The correct answer is: an individual intrapsychic dimension