Ch 61: ICP Flashcards

1
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient who suffered a traumatic brain injury. Which of the following findings would the nurse identify as evidence of a secondary brain injury?

A. Skull fracture from a fall
B. Intracerebral hemorrhage at the time of impact
C. Edema noted 8 hours after trauma
D. Coup-contrecoup injury from blunt force trauma

A

C. Edema noted 8 hours after trauma

Rationale: Secondary injury occurs as a result of the primary injury and includes complications such as hypoxia, ischemia, edema, and increased ICP that develop hours to days later. Skull fractures and hemorrhages occurring at the time of trauma are classified as primary injuries.

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2
Q

A 35-year-old male presents to the ED following a high-speed motor vehicle collision. Imaging confirms a cerebral contusion. Over the next few hours, the patient becomes increasingly lethargic, and the nurse notes a significant increase in blood pressure and a decrease in heart rate.
Which intracranial complication is the nurse most concerned about?

A. Cerebral hypoperfusion and increased ICP
B. Increased cerebrospinal fluid production and increased ICP
C. Cerebral edema and increased ICP
D. Spinal cord shock and increased ICP

A

C. Cerebral edema and increased ICP

Rationale: Progressive neurological deterioration accompanied by signs of increased systolic blood pressure and bradycardia suggests increasing intracranial pressure due to cerebral edema, a hallmark of secondary brain injury.

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3
Q

Which of the following volume components occupies the largest percentage of the intracranial space in a healthy adult?

A. Cerebrospinal fluid
B. Venous blood
C. Arterial blood
D. Brain tissue

A

D. Brain tissue

Rationale: Brain tissue accounts for approximately 78% of the total intracranial volume, making it the largest of the three main components. Blood makes up about 12%, and CSF about 10%.

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4
Q

A nurse understands the significance of the Monro-Kellie doctrine in managing intracranial pressure. Which statement best explains this concept?

A. The brain can regenerate neurons in response to injury.
B. An increase in one intracranial component must be offset by a decrease in another.
C. CSF production increases automatically when cerebral blood flow decreases.
D. Brain tissue can expand without affecting ICP due to skull elasticity.

A

B. An increase in one intracranial component must be offset by a decrease in another.

Rationale: The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the cranial vault is a fixed space; therefore, if the volume of one component (brain tissue, blood, CSF) increases, the volume of another must decrease to maintain normal ICP.

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5
Q

A patient with a traumatic brain injury is being monitored in the ICU. The provider is most concerned about controlling secondary brain injury. Which of the following interventions is a priority to prevent secondary brain injury?

A. Administering antiplatelet therapy
B. Monitoring capillary blood glucose
C. Preventing hypotension and hypoxia
D. Inserting a Foley catheter

A

C. Preventing hypotension and hypoxia

Rationale: Secondary brain injury is largely preventable and is commonly caused by systemic hypotension and hypoxia. Maintaining adequate perfusion and oxygenation is critical to minimizing brain tissue damage.

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6
Q

Which of the following best represents a modifiable factor that the nurse can intervene on to reduce secondary brain injury?

A. Cerebral ischemia
B. The mechanism of trauma
C. Initial skull fracture
D. Coup-contrecoup impact

A

A. Cerebral ischemia

Rationale: Ischemia is a secondary complication of brain injury and is a modifiable factor. Nurses and providers can take action to maintain oxygenation and perfusion to prevent ischemia and worsening neurological outcomes.

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7
Q

A 21-year-old patient is admitted after falling from a ladder. CT reveals diffuse axonal injury. Over the next 24 hours, the patient’s ICP increases despite elevation of the HOB and sedation. The nurse knows that the patient is at high risk for:

A. Cerebral aneurysm rupture
B. Obstructive hydrocephalus
C. Secondary brain injury
D. Brain herniation due to primary trauma

A

C. Secondary brain injury

Rationale: Increased ICP developing after the initial trauma is characteristic of secondary brain injury. The progression of edema, ischemia, and other physiologic responses to the initial insult can exacerbate neurologic damage.

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8
Q

A nurse is teaching a group of students about intracranial regulation. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of primary vs. secondary brain injury?

A. “Primary injury is more severe than secondary injury.”
B. “Secondary injury occurs immediately after the traumatic event.”
C. “Primary injury includes edema, ischemia, and increased ICP.”
D. “Secondary injury is the focus of management to prevent worsening outcomes.”

A

D. “Secondary injury is the focus of management to prevent worsening outcomes.”

Rationale: Secondary injury is preventable or modifiable and includes complications that develop after the initial injury, such as edema and ischemia. These are key targets of treatment to limit neurologic damage.

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9
Q

The nurse is reviewing a patient’s CT scan that shows no skull fracture or bleeding, but the patient later becomes confused and develops elevated ICP. What should the nurse suspect?

A. The patient’s primary injury is resolving.
B. The patient is experiencing a delayed primary injury.
C. The CT scan rules out any significant concern.
D. The patient is developing a secondary brain injury.

A

D. The patient is developing a secondary brain injury.

Rationale: Even if initial imaging is unremarkable, secondary injuries such as cerebral edema or ischemia can develop later and contribute to increased ICP and neurologic decline.

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10
Q

Which of the following are components of the intracranial vault according to the Monro-Kellie doctrine? (SATA)

A. Cerebrospinal fluid
B. Venous blood
C. Arterial blood
D. Brain tissue
E. Synovial fluid

A

A. Cerebrospinal fluid
B. Venous blood
C. Arterial blood
D. Brain tissue

Rationale: The three key components of the cranial space are brain tissue (78%), blood (arterial, venous, capillary — 12%), and CSF (10%). Synovial fluid is unrelated and not found in the cranial vault.

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11
Q

In managing a patient with elevated ICP, the nurse recalls that maintaining a balance between brain tissue, blood, and CSF is crucial. Which of the following interventions would help maintain this balance?

A. Administering osmotic diuretics as ordered
B. Encouraging the patient to cough vigorously
C. Keeping the head of bed flat at 0 degrees
D. Providing high levels of IV fluids to support perfusion

A

A. Administering osmotic diuretics as ordered

Rationale: Osmotic diuretics (e.g., mannitol) help decrease cerebral edema by drawing fluid out of the brain tissue, thereby reducing ICP and supporting the Monro-Kellie principle of maintaining volume balance.

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12
Q

primary injury

A

occurs at the initial time of injury

results in displacement, bruising, o damage to any cranial component

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13
Q

secondary injury

A

resulting in hypoxia, ischemia, hypotension, edema, or increased ICP that follows the primary injury

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14
Q

T/F

Primary injury can occur several hours to days after the initial injury.

A

false

secondary injury

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15
Q

The nurse is monitoring a patient with a ventriculostomy. The patient’s intracranial pressure (ICP) reading is 23 mm Hg. What is the nurse’s best response?

A. Document the finding as normal and continue to monitor
B. Lower the head of the bed to increase cerebral perfusion
C. Notify the provider of sustained elevated ICP
D. Encourage coughing to relieve pressure

A

C. Notify the provider of sustained elevated ICP

Rationale: Normal ICP ranges from 5–15 mm Hg. A sustained pressure >20 mm Hg is abnormal and may indicate increased risk for brain herniation or impaired cerebral perfusion. This finding warrants prompt medical intervention.

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16
Q

A patient with a traumatic brain injury has a sustained ICP of 22 mm Hg. The nurse knows that which physiologic factor could be contributing to this increased pressure?

A. Low CO2 levels
B. Normal intraabdominal pressure
C. Upright posture
D. High arterial CO2 level

A

D. High arterial CO2 level

Rationale: Elevated CO2 causes vasodilation of cerebral vessels, which increases cerebral blood flow and raises ICP. It is one of the major modifiable factors influencing ICP under normal conditions.

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17
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with a closed head injury. Which factor, if increased, would most likely elevate intracranial pressure?

A. Hypoventilation leading to respiratory alkalosis
B. Decreased venous pressure
C. Valsalva maneuver
D. Head elevation at 30 degrees

A

C. Valsalva maneuver

Rationale: The Valsalva maneuver increases intrathoracic and intraabdominal pressure, impeding cerebral venous outflow and raising ICP. Head elevation and decreased venous pressure help reduce ICP.

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18
Q

In the ICU, a patient with a closed skull injury is undergoing ICP monitoring. The nurse documents an ICP of 12 mm Hg. What is the appropriate nursing action?

A. Document the finding as within normal limits
B. Prepare the patient for surgical decompression
C. Administer mannitol immediately
D. Lower the head of the bed to increase ICP

A

A. Document the finding as within normal limits

Rationale: Normal ICP ranges from 5–15 mm Hg. A value of 12 mm Hg is normal. No immediate intervention is required other than continued monitoring.

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19
Q

A nursing student asks why the Monro-Kellie doctrine doesn’t apply to all patients with head trauma. What is the best explanation?

A. The doctrine applies only to children
B. It is valid only when there is a skull fracture
C. It applies only when ICP is elevated
D. It only applies when the skull is closed

A

D. It only applies when the skull is closed

Rationale: The Monro-Kellie doctrine is based on the assumption of a closed skull. In cases of open skull fractures or craniectomy, the compensatory mechanisms described by the doctrine are not applicable.

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20
Q

A patient with a craniectomy is being evaluated for ICP changes. The nurse recognizes that the Monro-Kellie doctrine does not apply in this case. Which explanation is most accurate?

A. The open skull allows pressure to rise significantly
B. The open skull cannot displace CSF
C. The open skull disrupts the balance between blood and brain tissue
D. The open skull allows for pressure release, altering the intracranial volume relationship

A

D. The open skull allows for pressure release, altering the intracranial volume relationship

Rationale: When part of the skull is removed, the enclosed system is no longer intact, so the compensatory volume-displacement mechanisms of the Monro-Kellie doctrine no longer apply.

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21
Q

The nurse is teaching about factors that affect normal ICP. Which of the following would the nurse include?

A. Serum potassium levels
B. Body temperature
C. Liver enzyme activity
D. Hemoglobin saturation

A

B. Body temperature

Rationale: Temperature affects cerebral metabolism. Fever increases metabolic demands, leading to increased cerebral blood flow and potentially elevated ICP.

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22
Q

Which of the following are known to influence ICP under normal conditions? (SATA)

A. Posture
B. Sodium level
C. Blood CO2 level
D. Arterial pressure
E. Skin turgor

A

A. Posture
C. Blood CO2 level
D. Arterial pressure

Rationale: Posture, CO2 levels, and arterial pressure all influence ICP. Sodium levels and skin turgor do not directly influence ICP in a predictable or consistent way.

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23
Q

A patient has an epidural ICP monitoring device placed. The nurse notes an ICP reading of 26 mm Hg sustained over 15 minutes. What is the most accurate interpretation?

A. This is expected due to the stress response
B. The ICP is elevated and requires prompt intervention
C. This is an inaccurate reading because the device is in the epidural space
D. The patient should be placed in the Trendelenburg position

A

B. The ICP is elevated and requires prompt intervention

Rationale: Any sustained ICP >20 mm Hg is considered abnormal and can compromise cerebral perfusion, increasing the risk for herniation. The reading is valid regardless of monitoring site.

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24
Q

A nurse is monitoring the ICP of a patient with increased thoracic pressure from severe coughing episodes. Which physiologic response should the nurse anticipate?

A. Increase in ICP due to reduced cerebral venous outflow
B. Decrease in ICP due to improved venous return
C. Unchanged ICP due to thoracic pressure not affecting the brain
D. Decrease in cerebral blood flow with improved oxygen delivery

A

A. Increase in ICP due to reduced cerebral venous outflow

Rationale: Increased thoracic pressure from coughing impedes venous drainage from the brain, raising intracranial pressure as a result.

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25
When measuring ICP in a patient, which location allows for the most accurate and direct reading? A. Subdural space B. Subarachnoid space C. Ventricular space D. Epidural space
C. Ventricular space Rationale: The ventricular system provides the most direct and accurate measurement of ICP and allows for therapeutic CSF drainage, making it the gold standard for monitoring.
26
A patient with elevated ICP is placed in a supine position with the head flat. The nurse notes a rising ICP trend. What should be the priority intervention? A. Increase IV fluids to support perfusion B. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees C. Administer IV mannitol immediately D. Encourage the patient to bear down to relieve pressure
B. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees Rationale: Elevating the HOB promotes venous drainage and decreases ICP. It is a noninvasive first-line intervention. Bearing down increases intrathoracic pressure and would worsen ICP.
27
intracranial pressure (ICP)
The hydrostatic force measured in the brain CSF compartment
28
A nurse is explaining to a student how the body compensates for changes in intracranial volume. Which of the following is an example of a compensatory response involving CSF? A. Cerebral artery vasodilation B. Collapse of cerebral veins C. Displacement of CSF into spinal subarachnoid space D. Distention of the dura mater
C. Displacement of CSF into spinal subarachnoid space Rationale: One of the body’s first compensatory responses to increased intracranial volume is to reduce CSF volume by displacing it into the spinal subarachnoid space, or altering its production and absorption.
29
A patient with early signs of increased intracranial pressure is being closely monitored. The provider explains that at this point, the patient’s brain is still able to compensate. Which mechanism likely accounts for this? A. Rapid vasodilation of cerebral arteries B. Compression of brain tissue C. Increase in CSF production D. Complete collapse of the dura mater
B. Compression of brain tissue Rationale: In later stages of compensation, brain tissue volume adapts through distention of the dura and compression of brain tissue to maintain normal ICP, though this is limited and eventually leads to ischemia.
30
Which of the following changes would the nurse recognize as part of the second compensatory response to rising intracranial volume? A. Cerebral venous vasoconstriction B. Altered CSF production C. Displacement of CSF into the spinal cord D. Compression of brain tissue
A. Cerebral venous vasoconstriction Rationale: The second category of compensatory mechanisms involves changes in intracranial blood volume, including regional vasoconstriction or dilation and venous outflow alterations.
31
A patient is exhibiting signs of elevated ICP. The nurse understands that compensatory mechanisms are failing. What does this indicate? A. CSF is being reabsorbed effectively B. Venous sinuses are dilating to reduce pressure C. Brain tissue is expanding to increase perfusion D. Decompensation is occurring, leading to ischemia
D. Decompensation is occurring, leading to ischemia Rationale: When compensatory mechanisms are exhausted, ICP rises uncontrollably, leading to tissue compression and cerebral ischemia—a dangerous, decompensated state.
32
Which of the following are compensatory mechanisms the body uses to maintain normal ICP? (SATA) A. Collapse of cerebral veins B. Increased CSF production C. Vasodilation of cerebral arteries D. Compression of brain tissue E. Displacement of CSF to the spinal subarachnoid space
A. Collapse of cerebral veins D. Compression of brain tissue E. Displacement of CSF to the spinal subarachnoid space Rationale: Collapse of cerebral veins, compression of brain tissue, and CSF displacement are normal compensatory mechanisms. Increased CSF production and arterial vasodilation increase ICP rather than reduce it.
33
The nurse is caring for a patient with a stable ICP of 13 mm Hg. Which of the following findings indicates that the patient’s compensatory mechanisms are intact? A. Widening pulse pressure B. Stable neurologic exam C. New-onset bradycardia D. Decreased cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)
B. Stable neurologic exam Rationale: A stable neurologic exam suggests cerebral perfusion is maintained, indicating that compensatory mechanisms (such as CSF displacement or venous outflow changes) are effectively managing the volume shift.
34
A nurse is teaching about compensatory adaptations in the brain. Which student response demonstrates an accurate understanding? A. “The brain tissue can expand without causing damage.” B. “Venous outflow can adapt to help manage increased volume.” C. “An early increase in volume will always result in an increase in ICP.” D. “The brain can permanently compensate for high ICP.”
B. “Venous outflow can adapt to help manage increased volume.” Rationale: One of the second-line compensatory mechanisms includes adjusting venous outflow to reduce cerebral blood volume and help maintain ICP.
35
When the volume increase within the skull exceeds the brain’s ability to compensate, what will the nurse most likely observe? A. Rapid increase in ICP and signs of herniation B. Improvement in LOC and motor function C. Decreased MAP and increased CPP D. Hyperabsorption of CSF by the ventricles
A. Rapid increase in ICP and signs of herniation Rationale: Once compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed, ICP rises rapidly. This can lead to brain tissue compression and potentially fatal herniation syndromes.
36
A nurse is educating a patient on why cerebral blood flow (CBF) must be maintained. Which of the following statements best explains this concept? A. The brain stores large amounts of oxygen and glucose for emergencies. B. Cerebral blood flow regulates cerebrospinal fluid production. C. The brain depends on a constant supply of oxygen and glucose due to high metabolic demand. D. Cerebral blood flow is only important when intracranial pressure is elevated.
C. The brain depends on a constant supply of oxygen and glucose due to high metabolic demand. Rationale: The brain uses 20% of the body’s oxygen and 25% of its glucose, making continuous blood flow essential to prevent hypoxia and ischemia.
37
A patient in the neuro ICU has a MAP of 65 mm Hg and is showing signs of confusion and slowed response time. The provider suspects impaired cerebral blood flow. Which factor most likely contributes to the neurological decline? A. The brain’s glucose reserve has been depleted. B. Oxygen saturation is compensating for low perfusion. C. A MAP of 65 mm Hg is sufficient to support global CBF. D. Decreased CBF has led to cerebral hypoxia and altered function
D. Decreased CBF has led to cerebral hypoxia and altered function Rationale: The brain requires consistent blood flow to receive oxygen and glucose. A drop in cerebral perfusion compromises brain function, leading to symptoms like confusion and altered mental status.
38
A client undergoing cardiac surgery becomes hypotensive intraoperatively. The surgical team expresses concern about reduced cerebral blood flow. What should the nurse recognize as the primary reason this is a concern? A. Even brief interruptions in CBF can cause permanent brain damage. B. The brain has autoregulation to protect against blood pressure changes. C. The brain requires minimal oxygen to maintain function. D. Hypotension enhances oxygen diffusion into brain tissue.
A. Even brief interruptions in CBF can cause permanent brain damage. Rationale: The brain has minimal ability to store oxygen or glucose, so interruptions in CBF—even for a short time—can cause irreversible damage.
39
Which of the following statements about cerebral blood flow are true? (SATA) A. The global CBF is approximately 50 mL/min/100 g of brain tissue. B. The brain consumes 10% of the body’s oxygen. C. Adequate CBF is essential for delivering glucose to the brain. D. The brain can survive long periods without CBF. E. Maintaining CBF is critical due to the brain’s high metabolic demands.
A. The global CBF is approximately 50 mL/min/100 g of brain tissue. C. Adequate CBF is essential for delivering glucose to the brain. E. Maintaining CBF is critical due to the brain’s high metabolic demands. Rationale: Global CBF is about 50 mL/min/100 g of tissue. The brain uses 25% of the body’s glucose and 20% of its oxygen, making options A, C, and E correct. The brain cannot survive long without blood flow.
40
The nurse is assessing a patient with symptoms of dizziness, blurred vision, and confusion. Which of the following underlying problems would most likely impair cerebral blood flow and explain these findings? A. Elevated blood glucose B. Bradycardia with a MAP of 52 mm Hg C. Mild fever and leukocytosis D. Hyponatremia with a serum sodium of 133 mEq/L
B. Bradycardia with a MAP of 52 mm Hg Rationale: Cerebral perfusion is pressure-dependent. A MAP less than 60 mm Hg can critically reduce cerebral blood flow, leading to symptoms of cerebral hypoperfusion such as confusion and dizziness.
41
cerebral autoregulation
The automatic adjustment in the diameter of the cerebral blood vessels by the brain to maintain a constant blood flow with changes in arterial blood pressure
42
cerebral perfusion pressure
the pressure needed to ensure blood flow to the brain
43
A nurse is caring for a patient with a MAP of 60 mm Hg and reports blurred vision and lightheadedness. What is the most appropriate explanation for the patient’s symptoms? A. Elevated ICP is causing increased CPP. B. The MAP is below the lower limit of autoregulation, decreasing CBF. C. The patient’s CPP is within a normal range. D. The brain is compensating with cerebrovascular dilation to maintain CBF.
B. The MAP is below the lower limit of autoregulation, decreasing CBF. Rationale: A MAP <70 mm Hg is below the threshold of effective autoregulation, causing a drop in cerebral blood flow and symptoms of ischemia like blurred vision.
44
A patient in the ICU has a MAP of 90 mm Hg and an ICP of 25 mm Hg. Calculate the patient’s CPP and determine the clinical implication. A. CPP is 65 mm Hg, which is normal and supports brain perfusion. B. CPP is 55 mm Hg, which is adequate for brain perfusion. C. CPP is 65 mm Hg, which may not be sufficient in localized swelling. D. CPP is 75 mm Hg, and higher pressure will reduce risk of ischemia.
C. CPP is 65 mm Hg, which may not be sufficient in localized swelling. Rationale: CPP = MAP − ICP → 90 − 25 = 65 mm Hg. While this is technically within normal limits (60–100), in patients with localized injury or stroke, a higher CPP may be required to ensure adequate perfusion to damaged areas.
45
Which of the following statements about cerebral autoregulation is most accurate? A. It maintains constant ICP regardless of systemic blood pressure changes. B. It ensures consistent cerebral blood flow by adjusting vessel diameter. C. It activates only when MAP exceeds 150 mm Hg. D. It regulates the production of cerebrospinal fluid in response to MAP.
B. It ensures consistent cerebral blood flow by adjusting vessel diameter. Rationale: Autoregulation maintains consistent cerebral blood flow (CBF) despite changes in systemic pressure by adjusting cerebral vessel diameter.
46
Which of the following are true regarding cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)? (SATA) A. CPP = MAP − ICP B. Normal CPP is 60–100 mm Hg C. CPP < 50 mm Hg may cause ischemia D. CPP < 30 mm Hg is survivable with oxygen therapy E. CPP reflects the impact of cerebrovascular resistance in all brain areas
A. CPP = MAP − ICP B. Normal CPP is 60–100 mm Hg C. CPP < 50 mm Hg may cause ischemia Rationale: Options A–C are correct based on standard definitions. Option D is false—CPP <30 mm Hg is incompatible with life. Option E is false because CPP may not reflect local perfusion due to swelling or compression.
47
A patient with traumatic brain injury has an ICP of 30 mm Hg and MAP of 80 mm Hg. Which action by the nurse is most critical? A. Prepare for emergency CSF drainage. B. Increase IV fluids to raise blood pressure. C. Assess for pupil reactivity and LOC. D. Monitor serum sodium to reduce brain edema.
A. Prepare for emergency CSF drainage. Rationale: CPP = 80 − 30 = 50 mm Hg, indicating risk for cerebral ischemia. Immediate interventions to lower ICP (e.g., draining CSF) are priority to prevent neuron death.
48
Which MAP value represents the upper limit of cerebral autoregulation? A. 100 mm Hg B. 120 mm Hg C. 150 mm Hg D. 160 mm Hg
C. 150 mm Hg Rationale: The upper limit of autoregulation is a MAP of 150 mm Hg. Beyond this, vessels can no longer constrict to protect brain tissue, increasing risk of hyperperfusion and damage.
49
A nurse is caring for a patient with stroke who has mild cerebral edema. Why might the provider allow the blood pressure to remain slightly elevated? A. To enhance CPP and perfusion to affected brain tissue B. To prevent seizures associated with hypotension C. To reduce the risk of herniation by increasing ICP D. To promote reabsorption of cerebral spinal fluid
A. To enhance CPP and perfusion to affected brain tissue Rationale: In localized injury like stroke, raising MAP helps elevate CPP in areas of compromised perfusion and prevent further ischemic injury.
50
A post-op craniectomy patient has a MAP of 95 mm Hg and an ICP of 35 mm Hg. What is the patient’s CPP and interpretation? A. CPP is 65 mm Hg, which is optimal B. CPP is 60 mm Hg, which supports perfusion C. CPP is 55 mm Hg, requiring increased MAP D. CPP is 50 mm Hg, which may lead to ischemia
D. CPP is 50 mm Hg, which may lead to ischemia Rationale: CPP = 95 − 35 = 60 mm Hg, which is borderline low. In a patient with brain trauma, local swelling may mean even 60 mm Hg is insufficient, putting them at risk for ischemia.
51
Which of the following conditions would most likely impair cerebral autoregulation? A. MAP of 85 mm Hg with ICP of 10 mm Hg B. MAP of 160 mm Hg with normal ICP C. MAP of 90 mm Hg and stable blood gases D. MAP of 100 mm Hg with PaCO2 of 40 mm Hg
B. MAP of 160 mm Hg with normal ICP Rationale: A MAP >150 mm Hg exceeds the upper limit of autoregulation. Beyond this, vessels are maximally constricted, losing their ability to regulate CBF.
52
What occurs when cerebral autoregulation fails? (SATA) A. Cerebral blood flow becomes pressure-dependent B. CPP falls to dangerous levels C. Brain vessels adjust to maintain perfusion D. Local ischemia may occur E. Metabolic demands of the brain decrease
A. Cerebral blood flow becomes pressure-dependent B. CPP falls to dangerous levels D. Local ischemia may occur Rationale: When autoregulation fails, CBF varies directly with MAP (A), CPP can fall dangerously (B), and local ischemia (D) can result. Options C and E are false—vessels can no longer adjust, and brain metabolic needs remain high.
53
The ICU nurse is monitoring a patient post-aneurysm rupture. The provider orders to maintain CPP above 70 mm Hg. Which intervention supports this goal? A. Keep MAP at 55 mm Hg B. Lower head of bed to reduce ICP C. Administer mannitol to increase MAP D. Maintain normothermia to reduce metabolic demand
B. Lower head of bed to reduce ICP Rationale: Lowering the head of bed can reduce ICP, which increases CPP when MAP remains constant (CPP = MAP − ICP). Maintaining a CPP >70 mm Hg ensures adequate perfusion.
54
A patient presents with syncope and blurred vision. VS: MAP 65 mm Hg, ICP 10 mm Hg. Which interpretation is most accurate? A. ICP is too high, leading to reduced CPP. B. Autoregulation is intact and compensating. C. CPP is 55 mm Hg, which is below the threshold for adequate perfusion. D. Symptoms are unrelated to cerebral blood flow.
C. CPP is 55 mm Hg, which is below the threshold for adequate perfusion. Rationale: CPP = 65 − 10 = 55 mm Hg. This is below the normal limit (60 mm Hg), indicating cerebral hypoperfusion and ischemic symptoms.
55
Which of the following best explains the relationship between cerebrovascular resistance and CPP? A. Increased resistance impairs brain perfusion. B. High resistance enhances blood flow. C. Cerebrovascular resistance is not linked to CPP. D. Resistance is controlled by CSF volume.
A. Increased resistance impairs brain perfusion. Rationale: As cerebrovascular resistance increases (due to arteriolar constriction or swelling), blood flow is reduced even if CPP appears normal.
56
A patient with increased ICP is at risk for cerebral ischemia. Why must the nurse maintain adequate MAP? A. To prevent hemorrhage in compressed brain tissue B. To avoid hyperemia from increased cerebral pressure C. To support CPP and maintain oxygen delivery D. To enhance autoregulation and CSF production
C. To support CPP and maintain oxygen delivery Rationale: Maintaining MAP ensures adequate CPP when ICP is elevated, supporting cerebral oxygenation and perfusion.
57
A patient with ICP of 22 mm Hg and MAP of 70 mm Hg is showing decreased LOC. The provider orders to increase CPP. Which action should the nurse anticipate? A. Lower MAP with antihypertensives B. Raise HOB to 90° C. Give IV fluids to dilute CSF D. Administer vasopressors to increase MAP
D. Administer vasopressors to increase MAP Rationale: CPP = 70 − 22 = 48 mm Hg. Vasopressors will raise MAP, which increases CPP and improves perfusion. Other options either reduce MAP or are not clinically appropriate for increasing CPP.
58
A patient presents with a PaCO₂ of 50 mm Hg. Which physiological response is expected in the cerebral vasculature? A. Vasoconstriction leading to decreased CBF B. Vasodilation leading to increased CBF C. No change in vessel tone D. Decreased intracranial pressure due to vasoconstriction
B. Vasodilation leading to increased CBF Rationale: An elevated PaCO₂ causes cerebral vasodilation, decreasing cerebrovascular resistance and increasing CBF.
59
Which PaCO₂ level is most likely to cause cerebral vasoconstriction? A. 30 mm Hg B. 40 mm Hg C. 50 mm Hg D. 60 mm Hg
A. 30 mm Hg Rationale: A PaCO₂ of 30 mm Hg is below the normal range, leading to cerebral vasoconstriction, increased resistance, and decreased CBF.
60
Which factors can lead to increased cerebral blood flow? Select all that apply. (SATA) A. Elevated PaCO₂ B. Decreased PaO₂ below 50 mm Hg C. Alkalosis D. Acidosis E. Hyperventilation
A. Elevated PaCO₂ B. Decreased PaO₂ below 50 mm Hg D. Acidosis Rationale: Elevated PaCO₂ and decreased PaO₂ below 50 mm Hg cause vasodilation, increasing CBF. Acidosis (increased hydrogen ion concentration) also leads to vasodilation. Alkalosis and hyperventilation (which lowers PaCO₂) cause vasoconstriction, decreasing CBF.
61
A patient is experiencing hypoxia with a PaO₂ of 45 mm Hg. What is the expected cerebral response? A. Vasoconstriction to reduce CBF B. No change in vessel tone C. Vasodilation to increase CBF D. Decreased intracranial pressure
C. Vasodilation to increase CBF Rationale: A PaO₂ below 50 mm Hg triggers cerebral vasodilation to increase CBF and improve oxygen delivery.
62
In a state of acidosis, how does the cerebral vasculature respond? A. Vasodilation to increase CBF B. Vasoconstriction to decrease CBF C. No change in vessel tone D. Increased cerebrovascular resistance
A. Vasodilation to increase CBF Rationale: Acidosis leads to vasodilation in cerebral vessels, decreasing resistance and increasing CBF to meet metabolic demands.
63
Which condition is most likely to impair cerebral autoregulation? A. Stable PaCO₂ and PaO₂ levels B. Hyperventilation-induced hypocapnia C. Normotension D. Mild alkalosis
B. Hyperventilation-induced hypocapnia Rationale: Hypocapnia from hyperventilation causes cerebral vasoconstriction, which can impair autoregulation and decrease CBF.
64
A patient with a traumatic brain injury is hyperventilated to a PaCO₂ of 28 mm Hg. What is the primary goal of this intervention? A. Increase intracranial pressure B. Decrease cerebral blood flow C. Enhance oxygen delivery D. Induce cerebral vasodilation
B. Decrease cerebral blood flow Rationale: Hyperventilation lowers PaCO₂, causing cerebral vasoconstriction, which decreases CBF and subsequently lowers intracranial pressure.
65
Which combination of arterial blood gas values is most likely to result in cerebral vasodilation? A. PaCO₂ 30 mm Hg, PaO₂ 80 mm Hg, pH 7.45 B. PaCO₂ 50 mm Hg, PaO₂ 60 mm Hg, pH 7.35 C. PaCO₂ 40 mm Hg, PaO₂ 90 mm Hg, pH 7.40 D. PaCO₂ 35 mm Hg, PaO₂ 100 mm Hg, pH 7.50
B. PaCO₂ 50 mm Hg, PaO₂ 60 mm Hg, pH 7.35 Rationale: Elevated PaCO₂ and lower PaO₂ levels promote cerebral vasodilation to increase CBF.
66
Which conditions can lead to loss of cerebral autoregulation? Select all that apply. (SATA) A. Severe hypoxia B. Traumatic brain injury C. Hypercapnia D. Hypocapnia E. Systemic infections
A. Severe hypoxia B. Traumatic brain injury C. Hypercapnia E. Systemic infections Rationale: Severe hypoxia, traumatic brain injury, hypercapnia, and systemic infections can disrupt the mechanisms of cerebral autoregulation. Hypocapnia typically causes vasoconstriction but does not directly lead to loss of autoregulation.
67
A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis is experiencing metabolic acidosis. How does this affect cerebral blood flow? A. Decreases due to vasoconstriction B. Increases due to vasodilation C. Remains unchanged D. Fluctuates unpredictably
B. Increases due to vasodilation Rationale: Metabolic acidosis increases hydrogen ion concentration, leading to cerebral vasodilation and increased CBF.
68
During a cardiac arrest, what happens to cerebral blood flow? A. Increases due to compensatory mechanisms B. Remains stable due to autoregulation C. Increases due to systemic vasoconstriction D. Decreases due to loss of perfusion pressure
D. Decreases due to loss of perfusion pressure Rationale: Cardiac arrest leads to a cessation of effective circulation, resulting in decreased cerebral perfusion pressure and CBF.
69
Which statement best describes the effect of hypercapnia on cerebral vessels? A. Causes vasoconstriction, decreasing CBF B. Has no effect on cerebral vessels C. Leads to decreased intracranial pressure D. Causes vasodilation, increasing CBF
D. Causes vasodilation, increasing CBF Rationale: Hypercapnia (elevated PaCO₂) causes cerebral vasodilation, increasing CBF and potentially raising intracranial pressure.
70
A 34-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after a high-speed motor vehicle accident. A CT scan reveals a large epidural hematoma. The patient becomes increasingly lethargic and is now showing signs of decorticate posturing. Which priority intervention should the nurse anticipate? A. Administer mannitol to decrease intracranial pressure B. Initiate a lumbar puncture to relieve pressure C. Prepare for plasmapheresis to reduce edema D. Monitor for Cushing’s triad before notifying the provider
A. Administer mannitol to decrease intracranial pressure Rationale: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure by drawing fluid from the brain tissue into the vascular space. A lumbar puncture is contraindicated in increased ICP due to risk of brain herniation. Plasmapheresis is not indicated here. Cushing’s triad indicates late signs of brain herniation, so waiting for this would delay care.
71
A patient with suspected increased ICP is being monitored. Which finding is most concerning and requires immediate intervention? A. Temperature of 101.2°F (38.4°C) B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min D. Unilateral fixed and dilated pupil
D. Unilateral fixed and dilated pupil Rationale: A unilateral fixed and dilated pupil indicates increased ICP with possible herniation, which is a neurologic emergency. Other values are concerning but not immediately life-threatening.
72
Which of the following are common causes of increased intracranial pressure? (SATA) A. Brain abscess B. Cerebral edema C. Liver failure D. Brain tumor E. Hypokalemia
A. Brain abscess B. Cerebral edema D. Brain tumor Rationale: Brain abscess, cerebral edema, and brain tumors are all known causes of increased ICP. Liver failure and hypokalemia are not direct causes.
73
Which mechanism contributes to a sustained increase in ICP following traumatic brain injury? A. Hypernatremia reduces CSF reabsorption and increases cerebral edema B. Systemic hypotension improves cerebral perfusion and increases cerebral edema C. Cerebral acidosis impairs autoregulation and increases cerebral edema D. Hypocapnia leads to cerebral vasodilation and increases cerebral edema
C. Cerebral acidosis impairs autoregulation and increases cerebral edema Rationale: Cerebral acidosis leads to impaired autoregulation and worsens cerebral edema, contributing to sustained ICP elevation. Hypocapnia causes vasoconstriction, not vasodilation.
74
A patient with a brain tumor is exhibiting signs of confusion, nausea, and new-onset vomiting. What is the most appropriate initial nursing action? A. Place the patient in a supine position B. Prepare for immediate surgical tumor resection C. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees D. Administer an opioid analgesic
C. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees Rationale: Elevating the HOB to 30 degrees promotes venous drainage and decreases ICP. Supine position can worsen ICP. Surgery and opioids may be appropriate later but are not the first nursing priority.
75
Which best describes the danger of brain herniation due to increased ICP? A. It may cause irreversible nephron damage B. It leads to spinal cord transection C. It causes obstruction of cerebrospinal fluid in the spinal column D. It results in compression of the medulla and cessation of respiratory function
D. It results in compression of the medulla and cessation of respiratory function Rationale: Brain herniation compresses the medulla, which contains the respiratory center. If unrelieved, this can result in respiratory arrest and death.
76
The nurse is monitoring a patient for increased ICP. Which assessment finding suggests a worsening condition? A. Bradycardia, widened pulse pressure, and irregular respirations B. Tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea C. Pupils equal and reactive, but sluggish to light D. Alert and oriented to name only
A. Bradycardia, widened pulse pressure, and irregular respirations Rationale: This describes Cushing’s triad, a classic late sign of increased ICP and impending herniation.
77
A patient with increased ICP is at risk for brainstem herniation. Which cranial nerve finding is most indicative of herniation? A. Loss of gag reflex B. Bilateral pupil constriction C. Facial droop D. Nystagmus
A. Loss of gag reflex Rationale: The gag reflex is controlled by cranial nerves IX and X, which emerge from the brainstem. Loss of this reflex may indicate brainstem dysfunction or herniation.
78
A patient with head trauma develops increasing ICP. Which pathophysiologic mechanism contributes to the ongoing increase in pressure? A. Increased PaO2 causes vasodilation B. Accumulation of lactic acid causes cerebral vasoconstriction C. Cerebral edema and hypercapnia cause further acidosis and vasodilation D. Elevated blood glucose triggers osmotic diuresis
C. Cerebral edema and hypercapnia cause further acidosis and vasodilation Rationale: Hypercapnia and lactic acid both contribute to acidosis, leading to vasodilation and further increasing ICP.
79
Which intervention is appropriate for a patient with increased ICP and signs of brain herniation? A. Delay care until EEG results are received B. Trendelenburg positioning C. Increase fluid intake to improve brain perfusion D. Hyperoxygenate and prepare for mechanical ventilation
D. Hyperoxygenate and prepare for mechanical ventilation Rationale: Hyperoxygenation can reduce ICP by preventing hypoxia. Mechanical ventilation may be necessary if respiratory effort is compromised. Trendelenburg increases ICP and should be avoided.
80
A patient with a large contusion and rising ICP becomes unresponsive. The nurse observes Cheyne-Stokes respirations and unilateral pupillary dilation. What does this most likely indicate? A. Hyperglycemia B. Respiratory infection C. Hypovolemic shock D. Brainstem compression
D. Brainstem compression Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations and pupillary changes are classic signs of brainstem involvement, suggesting worsening herniation and increased ICP.
81
What are appropriate nursing interventions to reduce ICP in a patient with cerebral edema? (SATA) A. Elevate HOB to 30 degrees B. Keep neck in a neutral position C. Suction frequently and vigorously D. Cluster care to minimize disturbances E. Administer IV fluids rapidly
A. Elevate HOB to 30 degrees B. Keep neck in a neutral position D. Cluster care to minimize disturbances Rationale: Elevating HOB and neutral neck positioning promote venous drainage. Clustering care reduces stimulation. Vigorous suctioning and rapid fluids can raise ICP.
82
What is the major risk associated with brainstem compression from increased ICP? A. Respiratory arrest B. Memory loss C. Aphasia D. Blindness
A. Respiratory arrest Rationale: The respiratory center is in the medulla. Compression leads to respiratory failure and death if not reversed quickly.
83
cerebral edema
increased accumulation of fluid in the extravascualr spaces of brain tissue
84
A patient with a brain tumor is at high risk for vasogenic cerebral edema. What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism causing this type of edema? A. Hypoxic damage to endothelial cells B. Disruption of the blood-brain barrier allowing fluid to shift into extracellular space C. Failure of sodium-potassium pumps causing intracellular swelling D. CSF buildup in the ventricles leading to increased intracranial pressure
B. Disruption of the blood-brain barrier allowing fluid to shift into extracellular space Rationale: Vasogenic edema is caused by a breakdown in the blood-brain barrier, typically due to tumors or trauma, allowing plasma proteins and fluid to leak into the extracellular space, increasing brain volume and ICP.
85
A patient presents with a sudden onset of confusion and right-sided weakness after a large ischemic stroke. A CT scan shows extensive cerebral edema. Which type of cerebral edema is most likely responsible for this patient’s condition? A. Cytotoxic edema B. Vasogenic edema C. Interstitial edema D. Osmotic edema
A. Cytotoxic edema Rationale: Cytotoxic edema is common after ischemia or hypoxia. It results from failure of the sodium-potassium pump in brain cells, leading to intracellular swelling and increased brain volume.
86
Which clinical scenario most accurately reflects interstitial cerebral edema? A. Traumatic brain injury with disruption of the BBB B. Hypoxic brain injury with sodium-potassium pump failure C. Obstructive hydrocephalus causing CSF leakage into brain parenchyma D. Brain tumor releasing cytokines into brain tissue
C. Obstructive hydrocephalus causing CSF leakage into brain parenchyma Rationale: Interstitial edema occurs primarily with hydrocephalus, where CSF flows across the ependymal lining into surrounding brain tissue, increasing brain volume and ICP.
87
A nurse is caring for a patient with cerebral edema. Which assessment finding would be most concerning and indicative of worsening ICP? A. Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 B. Intermittent headache C. Bilateral pupil reactivity D. Vomiting without nausea
D. Vomiting without nausea Rationale: Vomiting without nausea (projectile vomiting) is a classic sign of increased ICP, commonly associated with worsening cerebral edema.
88
Which of the following conditions are potential causes of vasogenic cerebral edema? (SATA) A. Brain tumor B. Head trauma C. Stroke D. Hypoxia E. Meningitis
A. Brain tumor B. Head trauma E. Meningitis Rationale: Vasogenic edema is caused by BBB disruption, commonly seen with tumors, trauma, and infections like meningitis. Stroke and hypoxia more often result in cytotoxic edema.
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A patient has cerebral edema due to traumatic brain injury. Which intervention is most likely to reduce ICP effectively? A. Positioning the patient flat in bed B. Providing continuous deep suctioning C. Increasing the patient’s fluid intake D. Administering hypertonic saline solution
D. Administering hypertonic saline solution Rationale: Hypertonic saline draws fluid from swollen brain cells into the intravascular space, reducing cerebral edema and ICP. Flat positioning and increased fluids can worsen ICP; deep suctioning may increase ICP due to stimulation.
90
A nurse is caring for a patient with vasogenic cerebral edema. The nurse knows that this type of edema occurs as a result of which of the following conditions? A. Increased accumulation of fluid within the brain cells B. Disruption of the blood-brain barrier C. Hypoxia of brain tissue D. Decreased blood flow to the brain
B. Disruption of the blood-brain barrier Rationale: Vasogenic cerebral edema is caused by the disruption of the blood-brain barrier, which allows large molecules (like proteins and blood products) to enter brain tissue, leading to edema.
91
A patient with vasogenic cerebral edema presents with severe headache, altered consciousness, and focal neurologic deficits. The nurse understands that which of the following mechanisms most likely contributes to the patient’s symptoms? A. The osmotic gradient causes fluid to move from the brain into the bloodstream B. Decreased oxygen supply to brain tissue causes ischemia C. Blood-brain barrier disruption allows blood products and proteins to enter the brain D. Increased cerebral blood flow causes swelling in the brain tissue
C. Blood-brain barrier disruption allows blood products and proteins to enter the brain Rationale: In vasogenic cerebral edema, the disruption of the blood-brain barrier allows large molecules, including proteins and blood products, to enter the brain, resulting in swelling and increased ICP.
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A nurse is monitoring a patient with vasogenic cerebral edema. Which of the following symptoms should prompt the nurse to further assess for progression of the condition? A. Sudden improvement in level of consciousness B. Mild headache with occasional nausea C. A change in mental status, from confusion to coma D. Peripheral edema and edema in extremities
C. A change in mental status, from confusion to coma Rationale: A rapid decline in mental status, including confusion progressing to coma, is indicative of worsening cerebral edema and increased ICP.
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When caring for a patient with vasogenic cerebral edema, the nurse should be aware that which of the following factors may influence the extent of edema? A. Systemic blood pressure and the site of the brain injury B. Age and gender of the patient C. Blood glucose levels and kidney function D. Oxygen saturation levels and body temperature
A. Systemic blood pressure and the site of the brain injury Rationale: Systemic blood pressure and the site of the brain injury influence the extent of vasogenic edema because the blood-brain barrier’s disruption can vary based on these factors.
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A patient with vasogenic cerebral edema is experiencing symptoms ranging from headache to decreased consciousness. The nurse understands that these symptoms are the result of which primary mechanism? A. Decreased blood supply to the brain tissue B. Osmotic changes leading to fluid accumulation in brain tissue C. Increased intracranial pressure causing brainstem compression D. Inflammation of brain tissue leading to neuronal injury
B. Osmotic changes leading to fluid accumulation in brain tissue Rationale: In vasogenic cerebral edema, osmotic changes occur as large molecules enter brain tissue, creating an osmotic gradient that draws fluid into the extracellular space, leading to increased ICP.
95
A nurse is assessing a patient with vasogenic cerebral edema. The nurse is concerned when the patient reports which of the following symptoms? A. Occasional headache B. Dizziness when standing up C. Sudden onset of severe headache with altered mental status D. Slight confusion that resolves with rest
C. Sudden onset of severe headache with altered mental status Rationale: A sudden onset of severe headache combined with altered mental status, such as confusion, is indicative of worsening cerebral edema and requires immediate attention.
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Which of the following assessments should the nurse prioritize for a patient with vasogenic cerebral edema, as the condition may progress rapidly? A. Temperature and heart rate B. Respiratory status and oxygen levels C. Blood glucose levels and urinary output D. Neurologic status, including level of consciousness
D. Neurologic status, including level of consciousness Rationale: Changes in neurologic status, including level of consciousness, are critical to monitor in patients with vasogenic cerebral edema as it can rapidly progress from confusion to coma and death.
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A nurse is explaining the pathophysiology of vasogenic cerebral edema to a student. Which statement by the student indicates that further teaching is needed? A. “Vasogenic edema results in the movement of fluid from the bloodstream into the brain tissue.” B. “The blood-brain barrier is disrupted, allowing larger molecules to enter the brain.” C. “Fluid accumulation in the brain increases extracellular volume and ICP.” D. “Vasogenic edema occurs mainly in the gray matter of the brain.”
D. “Vasogenic edema occurs mainly in the gray matter of the brain.” Rationale: Vasogenic edema occurs primarily in the white matter, not the gray matter. This reflects a misunderstanding that needs correction.
98
A nurse caring for a patient with vasogenic cerebral edema is concerned about a rapid increase in intracranial pressure (ICP). The nurse should anticipate which of the following interventions to manage increased ICP? A. Administering corticosteroids to reduce inflammation B. Increasing the patient’s fluid intake to reduce osmolality C. Administering sodium bicarbonate to correct acidosis D. Performing craniectomy to allow for brain expansion
A. Administering corticosteroids to reduce inflammation Rationale: Corticosteroids are commonly used to reduce cerebral edema by decreasing inflammation and stabilizing the blood-brain barrier, which helps reduce ICP.
99
A patient presents with cytotoxic cerebral edema following a traumatic brain injury. Which of the following is the primary cause of the edema in this patient? A) Disruption of the blood-brain barrier B) Fluid and protein shifts into the cells C) Increased interstitial fluid in the brain tissue D) Disruption of cerebral vasculature integrity
B) Fluid and protein shifts into the cells Rationale: Cytotoxic cerebral edema results from the disruption of cell membranes in brain tissue, causing fluid and protein to shift from the extracellular space into the cells, leading to cellular swelling. The blood-brain barrier remains intact in this type of edema, differentiating it from vasogenic edema.
100
A nurse is caring for a patient with cytotoxic cerebral edema. Which of the following pathophysiological events is most directly associated with this type of edema? A) Disruption of blood-brain barrier and leakage of large molecules into the brain B) Impaired cellular function due to swelling and fluid shift into the cells C) Increased extracellular fluid in the brain causing raised intracranial pressure D) Trauma-induced disruption of blood vessels in the brain
B) Impaired cellular function due to swelling and fluid shift into the cells Rationale: Cytotoxic cerebral edema occurs due to fluid and protein shifts into the brain cells, resulting in cellular swelling. This swelling impairs cellular function and causes tissue damage, unlike vasogenic edema, which involves the leakage of large molecules due to blood-brain barrier disruption.
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A patient with cytotoxic cerebral edema is experiencing increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following assessments is most indicative of the progression of cerebral edema? A) Dizziness and a mild headache B) Worsening of focal neurological deficits, such as hemiparesis C) A headache progressing to coma D) Sudden onset of confusion and a change in mental status
D) Sudden onset of confusion and a change in mental status Rationale: Cytotoxic cerebral edema causes swelling of brain cells, which may lead to a gradual or sudden decline in neurological function. Symptoms often include confusion, changes in mental status, and possibly loss of consciousness as the swelling increases. Severe cases may progress to coma or death, but subtle changes in mental status are an early sign.
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A patient with cytotoxic cerebral edema presents with a decreased level of consciousness (LOC). Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize? A) Monitoring the patient’s oxygenation and ensuring adequate ventilation B) Administering intravenous fluids to prevent dehydration C) Administering antihypertensive medications to reduce cerebral blood pressure D) Encouraging deep breathing exercises to increase oxygen supply
A) Monitoring the patient’s oxygenation and ensuring adequate ventilation Rationale: Oxygenation is critical in managing cytotoxic cerebral edema, as hypoxia or anoxia exacerbates brain injury. Ensuring adequate oxygenation helps prevent further cellular damage and reduces the risk of worsening edema. Hyperventilation or elevated CO2 levels could worsen edema, so managing oxygenation is crucial.
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A patient with cytotoxic cerebral edema is being treated for cerebral hypoxia following a traumatic brain injury. Which of the following lab findings is most likely to occur in this patient? A) Decreased serum sodium levels B) Elevated blood glucose levels C) Increased serum potassium levels D) Decreased white blood cell count
A) Decreased serum sodium levels Rationale: Cytotoxic cerebral edema can occur in the setting of hypoxia and anoxia. A common result is the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion, which leads to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia (decreased serum sodium levels). This electrolyte imbalance occurs due to the kidneys’ retention of water in response to elevated ADH levels.
104
The nurse is caring for a patient with cytotoxic cerebral edema secondary to traumatic brain injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse anticipate to help reduce cerebral edema? A) Administration of corticosteroids B) Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) to improve oxygenation C) Hypertonic saline to decrease intracranial pressure D) Dehydration therapy to reduce brain swelling
C) Hypertonic saline to decrease intracranial pressure Rationale: Hypertonic saline is commonly used to reduce intracranial pressure in patients with cerebral edema by drawing fluid out of brain cells into the bloodstream. Corticosteroids are more effective for vasogenic edema, not cytotoxic edema. Dehydration therapy is not an appropriate method for managing cerebral edema and could lead to further complications.
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hydrocephalus
a buildup of fluid in the brain
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A patient is diagnosed with interstitial cerebral edema secondary to hydrocephalus. Which of the following findings is most characteristic of this condition? A) Decreased ventricular size B) Ventricular enlargement C) Increase in cerebral blood flow D) Hyperperfusion of brain tissue
B) Ventricular enlargement Rationale: Interstitial cerebral edema occurs due to the buildup of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the brain, commonly seen in hydrocephalus. This condition leads to ventricular enlargement, which is a hallmark sign of hydrocephalus. It is caused by an excess production of CSF, obstruction in its flow, or an inability to reabsorb it.
107
A nurse is caring for a patient with hydrocephalus and interstitial cerebral edema. Which of the following is the primary cause of this condition? A) Disruption of the blood-brain barrier B) Impaired cellular membrane integrity C) Obstruction of CSF flow, leading to fluid buildup D) Leakage of large molecules into the brain tissue
C) Obstruction of CSF flow, leading to fluid buildup Rationale: Interstitial cerebral edema is often caused by hydrocephalus, which results from either an overproduction of CSF, obstruction of CSF flow, or an impaired ability to reabsorb CSF. The obstruction leads to a buildup of CSF in the ventricles, causing ventricular enlargement and increased pressure on brain tissue.
108
A patient with hydrocephalus presents with increasing ventricular enlargement. Which of the following assessments is most likely to confirm the presence of interstitial cerebral edema? A) Increased intracranial pressure (ICP) B) Decreased consciousness and focal neurological deficits C) Swelling of brain tissue in the interstitial spaces D) Absence of ventricular enlargement
A) Increased intracranial pressure (ICP) Rationale: As hydrocephalus leads to a buildup of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and enlargement of the ventricles, it causes an increase in intracranial pressure (ICP). This pressure can compress brain tissue, leading to interstitial cerebral edema and associated neurological symptoms such as decreased consciousness and possible focal deficits.
109
A nurse is caring for a patient with hydrocephalus. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate to manage interstitial cerebral edema? A) Administration of corticosteroids to reduce inflammation B) Shunt placement to drain excess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) C) Hypertonic saline to decrease intracranial pressure D) Diuretics to reduce brain swelling
B) Shunt placement to drain excess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) Rationale: In hydrocephalus, the most appropriate intervention to manage interstitial cerebral edema is to address the buildup of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) by placing a shunt. The shunt diverts excess CSF away from the ventricles and into other areas of the body, helping to reduce ventricular enlargement and intracranial pressure.
110
A nurse is assessing a patient who has become acutely unconscious. Which of the following should be the nurse’s first action to rule out increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? A) Perform a neurological assessment, including cranial nerve reflexes B) Measure the patient’s blood pressure and heart rate C) Administer an intravenous (IV) fluid bolus to increase blood volume D) Immediately call the healthcare provider for a CT scan
A) Perform a neurological assessment, including cranial nerve reflexes Rationale: Any patient who becomes acutely unconscious should be suspected of having increased ICP. The first priority is to perform a thorough neurological assessment, including checking cranial nerve reflexes, as this will help determine the severity of brain involvement and guide further actions, including the need for imaging studies like CT scans.
111
A patient with suspected increased intracranial pressure (ICP) presents with acute unconsciousness. Which of the following is the most important sign that would indicate increased ICP? A) Elevated blood pressure B) Decreased level of consciousness C) Increased heart rate D) Widened pulse pressure
B) Decreased level of consciousness Rationale: Decreased level of consciousness (LOC) is one of the most important clinical manifestations of increased ICP. As ICP increases, it can compress the brainstem, leading to a decreased LOC. Early recognition of this change can lead to prompt intervention and prevent further brain injury.
112
A nurse is caring for a patient with acute unconsciousness and suspected increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse be most concerned about? A) Decreased blood pressure and abnormal eye movements B) Sudden onset of a headache and abnormal eye movements C) Pupillary changes and abnormal eye movements D) Absence of a cough reflex and abnormal eye movements
C) Pupillary changes and abnormal eye movements Rationale: Pupillary changes and abnormal eye movements are significant clinical manifestations of increased ICP. These changes may indicate brainstem involvement or pressure on the cranial nerves, which can rapidly worsen if not addressed. Immediate intervention is necessary to assess the degree of brain dysfunction.
113
A nurse is caring for a patient who has developed acute unconsciousness. What is the most likely cause of this condition if the patient is suspected of having increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? A) Increased blood volume due to fluid overload B) Decreased oxygen levels in the brain tissue C) Disruption in the integrity of the blood-brain barrier D) Pressure on brain tissue from a mass effect, edema, or hemorrhage
D) Pressure on brain tissue from a mass effect, edema, or hemorrhage Rationale: Increased ICP is most commonly caused by pressure on brain tissue due to factors such as a mass (e.g., tumor, hematoma), edema, or hemorrhage. These conditions cause brain tissue compression, which increases ICP and can lead to acute unconsciousness, a key clinical manifestation of increased ICP.
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unconsciousness
an abnormal state of complete or partial awareness of self or environment
115
A nurse is assessing a client with a traumatic brain injury. Which of the following findings is the earliest and most reliable indication of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? A. Change in level of consciousness B. Fixed and dilated pupils C. Bradycardia D. Projectile vomiting
A. Change in level of consciousness Rationale: The most sensitive and earliest indicator of neurologic deterioration or increased ICP is a change in LOC. This occurs due to decreased cerebral perfusion and impaired function of the cerebral cortex or RAS. Pupillary changes, bradycardia, and vomiting are later signs of increased ICP.
116
A 45-year-old male is brought to the ED after being found unconscious at home. His wife reports he had been increasingly confused over the past few days. On admission, the patient does not respond to verbal commands but withdraws from painful stimuli. Pupils are equal and reactive. What is the priority nursing action? A. Monitor urine output and electrolyte balance B. Notify the provider immediately and prepare for potential intubation C. Administer IV mannitol D. Assess for neck stiffness and Brudzinski’s sign
B. Notify the provider immediately and prepare for potential intubation Rationale: A declining LOC with reduced response to painful stimuli indicates potential progression toward coma. Airway protection becomes a priority as the patient may lose gag and swallow reflexes. While monitoring urine and administering mannitol may be appropriate later, airway is the immediate concern.
117
Which structure is responsible for maintaining wakefulness, and when disrupted, can contribute to altered levels of consciousness? A. Cerebellum B. Hippocampus C. Reticular activating system D. Corpus callosum
C. Reticular activating system Rationale: The RAS, located in the brainstem, is crucial for maintaining arousal and wakefulness. Impairment of the RAS leads to varying degrees of unconsciousness, depending on the extent of damage.
118
The nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP. The patient is now unresponsive to voice but moans with pain. Which of the following findings would require immediate action? A. Inability to follow simple commands B. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 10 C. Loss of pupillary reflex D. Restlessness and agitation
C. Loss of pupillary reflex Rationale: Loss of pupillary reflexes may indicate brainstem involvement and impending herniation, which is a neurological emergency. Other symptoms indicate progression of increased ICP but are not as immediately life-threatening as brainstem dysfunction.
119
Which of the following are subtle signs of decreasing level of consciousness in a patient with suspected increased ICP? Select all that apply. A. Decreased level of attention B. Flattened affect C. Sudden hemiplegia D. Disorientation to time E. Inability to cough
A. Decreased level of attention B. Flattened affect D. Disorientation to time Rationale: Subtle signs of declining LOC include changes in affect, orientation, and attention. Sudden hemiplegia and inability to cough are more advanced neurologic signs seen in late or severe brain injury.
120
A patient in the ICU is unresponsive and does not react to painful stimuli. Which additional finding would confirm that the patient is in a deep coma? A. Absent corneal reflex B. Positive Babinski reflex C. Decerebrate posturing D. Bilateral slow-reacting pupils
A. Absent corneal reflex Rationale: In deep coma, the patient loses reflexes such as the corneal and pupillary reflexes. The absence of the corneal reflex is a grave sign indicating severe dysfunction of the brainstem.
121
A nurse is caring for a patient admitted after a head injury. The patient was alert on admission but now is disoriented and drowsy. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Increase IV fluids to maintain cerebral perfusion B. Prepare the patient for lumbar puncture C. Reassess the GCS score in 2 hours D. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees
D. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees Rationale: A change in LOC following a head injury suggests rising ICP. Elevating the head promotes venous drainage and reduces ICP. A lumbar puncture is contraindicated if ICP is suspected to be elevated due to risk of herniation.
122
Which EEG finding would correlate with a patient in a coma? A. Normal alpha waves B. Increased theta wave activity C. Suppressed or absent neuronal activity D. Increased beta wave activity
C. Suppressed or absent neuronal activity Rationale: In coma, EEG typically shows suppressed or absent activity, indicating minimal or absent cortical brain function. This confirms severe neurological impairment.
123
A nurse is monitoring a patient post-craniotomy. The patient is now showing a flat affect and is not responding to orientation questions. What is the most appropriate nursing interpretation? A. The patient is likely post-ictal after a seizure B. These findings are expected postoperatively C. These may be early indicators of increased ICP D. The patient is experiencing postoperative delirium
C. These may be early indicators of increased ICP Rationale: Flat affect and decreased orientation are subtle yet important signs of increasing ICP. Prompt recognition and intervention are essential to prevent further neurologic deterioration.
124
Which of the following findings are characteristic of a patient in a comatose state? Select all that apply. A. Unresponsive to verbal and painful stimuli B. Present gag and swallow reflex C. Absent corneal and pupillary reflexes D. Continent of urine and feces E. Suppressed EEG activity
A. Unresponsive to verbal and painful stimuli C. Absent corneal and pupillary reflexes E. Suppressed EEG activity Rationale: In coma, the patient does not respond to pain, has absent brainstem reflexes (corneal, pupillary), and shows severely reduced neuronal activity on EEG. They are typically incontinent and have no protective reflexes like swallowing or gagging.
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Cushing triad
systolic hypertension with a widening pulse pressure, bradycardia with a full and bounding pulse, irregular respirations
126
A nurse is caring for a client with a traumatic brain injury. During the assessment, the nurse notes the following: BP 180/90 mm Hg, HR 48 bpm with bounding pulses, and irregular respirations. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing interpretation of these findings? A. The client is exhibiting signs of shock B. The client is showing normal autonomic nervous system response C. The client is showing signs of Cushing triad D. The client has entered the postictal phase
C. The client is showing signs of Cushing triad Rationale: Cushing triad is a classic, late sign of increased ICP and indicates brainstem compression and impending death. It is characterized by systolic hypertension with widening pulse pressure, bradycardia with a full bounding pulse, and irregular respirations. These are compensatory responses triggered by the brainstem in response to increased ICP. Shock would typically present with hypotension and tachycardia. This is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention.
127
A client with increased ICP is found to have a sudden increase in temperature to 39.5°C (103.1°F). What is the most likely cause of this change? A. The presence of systemic infection B. Direct hypothalamic dysfunction due to pressure C. Metabolic acidosis from anaerobic metabolism D. A neurogenic fever from spinal cord injury
B. Direct hypothalamic dysfunction due to pressure Rationale: The hypothalamus regulates temperature. When ICP increases and compresses the hypothalamus, it can disrupt temperature regulation, causing hyperthermia. While infection could also cause fever, a sudden high temperature in the absence of infection in a neurologic client suggests central (neurogenic) fever due to hypothalamic involvement.
128
The nurse is assessing a patient with suspected increased ICP. Which of the following vital sign changes would support this diagnosis? (SATA) A. BP 200/100 with pulse pressure of 100 mm Hg B. HR 48 bpm and bounding C. Irregular respiratory pattern D. Temperature of 97.0°F (36.1°C) E. Apnea followed by deep, rapid breathing F. HR 120 bpm and thready pulse
A. BP 200/100 with pulse pressure of 100 mm Hg B. HR 48 bpm and bounding C. Irregular respiratory pattern E. Apnea followed by deep, rapid breathing Rationale: * A: Wide pulse pressure is part of Cushing triad. * B: Bradycardia with a bounding pulse is classic. * C: Irregular respirations occur due to brainstem involvement. * E: Cheyne-Stokes respirations or other irregular patterns often appear. * D: A low temperature is not commonly associated unless hypothalamus is involved in a different way. * F: Tachycardia and thready pulse are more typical of shock, not increased ICP.
129
Which part of the brain is most directly responsible for the irregular respiratory pattern seen in Cushing triad? A. Cerebellum B. Thalamus C. Hippocampus D. Medulla oblongata
D. Medulla oblongata Rationale: The medulla is the primary respiratory control center. As ICP increases and pressure is exerted on the brainstem, particularly the medulla, respiratory rate and rhythm become irregular, signaling a dangerous progression of ICP.
130
A 24-year-old patient with head trauma is being monitored in the ICU. The nurse notes that the patient’s blood pressure has steadily increased over the last hour, the pulse has dropped, and respirations have become erratic. What is the priority nursing action? A. Increase IV fluid rate B. Prepare for intubation C. Notify the HCP immediately D. Administer acetaminophen for fever
C. Notify the HCP immediately Rationale: These signs indicate Cushing triad, a medical emergency signaling brainstem compression and the possibility of herniation. While preparing for intubation may be needed soon, the first priority is rapid notification of the provider so life-saving interventions to reduce ICP can be implemented.
131
What does a widening pulse pressure specifically indicate in a patient with increasing ICP? A. Increased blood loss B. Impaired perfusion to the cerebrum C. Loss of thermoregulation D. Compensation to maintain cerebral perfusion pressure
D. Compensation to maintain cerebral perfusion pressure Rationale: As ICP increases, the body attempts to maintain cerebral perfusion by increasing systolic blood pressure, while the diastolic may remain the same or drop slightly, resulting in a widening pulse pressure. This is part of Cushing’s triad and is a compensatory mechanism to maintain adequate CPP (MAP - ICP).
132
A nurse is monitoring a patient with a known brain tumor. The nurse notes sudden bradycardia, hypertension, and Cheyne-Stokes respirations. What conclusion can the nurse make? A. The patient is experiencing increased ICP with possible brainstem compression B. The patient is experiencing hypovolemic shock C. The tumor is resolving and cerebral blood flow is improving D. The patient is demonstrating signs of a stroke in evolution
A. The patient is experiencing increased ICP with possible brainstem compression Rationale: These vital sign changes are hallmarks of Cushing triad, which suggests a severe increase in ICP. This scenario is an urgent, life-threatening neurologic event that requires immediate intervention to prevent herniation and death. This is not consistent with stroke alone or hypovolemia.
133
A nurse is assessing a patient with suspected increased ICP. Which ocular finding requires immediate notification of the provider? A. Bilateral pinpoint pupils B. Fixed and dilated pupil on the right side C. Reactive pupils with slight asymmetry D. Bilateral sluggish pupillary response
B. Fixed and dilated pupil on the right side Rationale: A fixed, unilateral, dilated pupil is a neurologic emergency indicating uncal herniation with CN III compression. It signifies brain herniation, requiring immediate intervention. Options A, C, and D may suggest increased ICP but are not as immediately life-threatening as a unilateral fixed and dilated pupil.
134
The nurse notes that a patient’s right eyelid is drooping and the right pupil is dilated and nonreactive to light. Which cranial nerve is most likely being compressed? A. Cranial Nerve II B. Cranial Nerve III C. Cranial Nerve IV D. Cranial Nerve VI
B. Cranial Nerve III Rationale: Compression of CN III (oculomotor nerve) causes ipsilateral pupil dilation, ptosis (drooping eyelid), and an inability to move the eye upward. CN II is responsible for vision, CN IV controls downward movement, and CN VI affects lateral movement.
135
A patient with a brain tumor is being monitored for signs of increased ICP. The nurse notices unequal pupils and ptosis on the left side. What is the most appropriate interpretation of these findings? A. Early sign of optic nerve irritation B. Result of a migraine aura C. Normal variation in eye anatomy D. Compression of the oculomotor nerve
D. Compression of the oculomotor nerve Rationale: Unilateral ptosis and unequal pupil size (anisocoria) are hallmark signs of CN III compression, often due to shifting brain tissue from a mass effect like a tumor. This is a serious finding that indicates increased ICP and possible herniation.
136
Which clinical finding would most suggest that a patient is experiencing uncal herniation? A. Unilateral dilated pupil B. Bilaterally sluggish pupils C. Bilateral pinpoint pupils D. Constricted pupils with reactive light response
A. Unilateral dilated pupil Rationale: Uncal herniation compresses CN III on one side, leading to a unilateral dilated, nonreactive pupil. Central herniation typically results in bilateral sluggish pupils, and pinpoint pupils are more consistent with pontine damage.
137
A nurse observes a fixed, dilated pupil in a patient recently admitted with head trauma. What is the priority action? A. Notify the provider immediately B. Perform a Glasgow Coma Scale assessment C. Document the findings and continue monitoring D. Ask the patient about visual disturbances
A. Notify the provider immediately Rationale: A fixed, dilated pupil is a neurological emergency indicating potential brain herniation. Immediate action is required to prevent irreversible brain damage or death. This finding is not one to simply monitor or assess further before notifying the provider.
138
Which of the following are clinical signs of cranial nerve involvement due to increased ICP? Select all that apply: A. Blurred vision B. Ptosis C. Pinpoint pupils D. Diplopia E. Nystagmus
A. Blurred vision B. Ptosis D. Diplopia Rationale: Blurred vision, ptosis, and diplopia are all associated with compression of CNs II, III, IV, or VI. Pinpoint pupils are not characteristic of CN compression from increased ICP, and nystagmus is not mentioned as a typical manifestation in this context.
139
Which statement best describes the significance of papilledema in a patient with suspected increased ICP? A. It confirms optic nerve damage B. It suggests an acute brain hemorrhage C. It indicates irreversible brain herniation D. It is a nonspecific sign of sustained increased ICP
D. It is a nonspecific sign of sustained increased ICP Rationale: Papilledema, or optic disc swelling, is a nonspecific indicator of persistent elevated ICP. It doesn’t necessarily indicate acute herniation or damage but supports the need for further investigation of ICP status.
140
A patient with suspected increased ICP shows sluggish pupillary response to light bilaterally. What might this finding indicate? A. Central herniation B. Uncal herniation C. Seizure activity D. Visual cortex damage
A. Central herniation Rationale: Central herniation may present with bilateral sluggish pupil responses due to symmetric pressure on the brainstem. In contrast, uncal herniation typically presents with unilateral dilation.
141
The ICU nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP and notes new onset of blurred vision and diplopia. What is the priority nursing intervention? A. Ask the patient when the symptoms started B. Decrease environmental stimulation C. Reassess in 30 minutes for progression D. Report to the healthcare provider immediately
D. Report to the healthcare provider immediately Rationale: Sudden visual changes such as blurred vision and diplopia suggest worsening ICP with possible cranial nerve involvement. These are early neurologic changes that could progress to herniation, and they require prompt medical evaluation.
142
papilledema
an edematous optic disc seen on retinal examination
143
ipsilateral
same side
144
contralateral
opposite side
145
decorticate
flexor
146
decerebrate
posturing
147
A patient with increased ICP begins to exhibit decerebrate posturing. What is the most accurate interpretation of this finding? A. It indicates damage to the cerebral cortex B. It suggests a functional brainstem with minimal cortical input C. It indicates disruption of motor fibers in the midbrain and brainstem D. It is an early compensatory mechanism for increased ICP
C. It indicates disruption of motor fibers in the midbrain and brainstem Rationale: Decerebrate posturing is a sign of more serious brain injury and results from disruption of motor pathways in the midbrain and brainstem. It is a worse sign than decorticate posturing, which originates from cortical damage.
148
Which of the following best describes decorticate posturing in a patient with increased ICP? A. Extension of arms and legs, arms hyperpronated B. Flexion of arms with internal rotation, legs extended C. Flaccid extremities with no response to stimuli D. Flexion of both arms and legs with pronation
B. Flexion of arms with internal rotation, legs extended Rationale: Decorticate posturing is characterized by arm flexion, internal rotation, and leg extension. It suggests damage to the corticospinal tract above the brainstem, specifically within the cerebral cortex.
149
A nurse observes a patient with a brain injury who responds to a painful stimulus by extending both arms rigidly and plantar flexing the feet. What is the priority interpretation of this finding? A. Progression of brain injury indicating brainstem involvement B. Normal reaction to noxious stimuli C. Residual motor deficit from previous stroke D. Voluntary motor reaction due to waking from unconsciousness
A. Progression of brain injury indicating brainstem involvement Rationale: The described posture is decerebrate, which is associated with more severe injury and involvement of the brainstem. It is not normal and indicates worsening neurologic status.
150
Which of the following are consistent with decerebrate posturing? Select all that apply: A. Hyperextension of the legs B. Internal rotation and adduction of the arms C. Arms stiffly extended D. Flexion of the elbows and wrists E. Plantar flexion of the feet F. Hyperpronation of the arms
A. Hyperextension of the legs C. Arms stiffly extended E. Plantar flexion of the feet F. Hyperpronation of the arms Rationale: Decerebrate posture involves rigid extension of the arms (C), hyperextension of the legs (A), plantar flexion of the feet (E), and hyperpronation of the arms (F). Internal rotation and flexion of the arms (B and D) describe decorticate posturing, not decerebrate.
151
A patient with increased ICP shows hemiplegia on the right side. Where is the lesion most likely located? A. Right cerebral hemisphere B. Left cerebral hemisphere C. Brainstem D. Cerebellum
B. Left cerebral hemisphere Rationale: Motor deficits are typically contralateral to the lesion. So, right-sided hemiplegia indicates a lesion in the left cerebral hemisphere. The cerebellum primarily controls coordination, and brainstem involvement would likely cause more global or bilateral deficits.
152
Which motor response is most favorable when a painful stimulus is applied to a patient with increased ICP? A. Withdrawal from the stimulus B. Decerebrate posturing C. Decorticate posturing D. No response
A. Withdrawal from the stimulus Rationale: Withdrawal to pain suggests higher-level motor control and some degree of cortical integrity. Decorticate and decerebrate posturing indicate progressively worse neurologic function, with decerebrate being more severe. No response is the most concerning.
153
A nurse is performing a neuro check on a patient with a subdural hematoma. Upon applying painful stimulus, the patient grimaces and pulls away. What should the nurse document? A. Localizes to pain B. Withdraws to pain C. Decorticate response D. Flaccid response
B. Withdraws to pain Rationale: Pulling away from painful stimulus is a withdrawal response, indicating that the spinal cord and some cortical pathways are intact. Localization would involve purposeful movement toward the source of pain, not just pulling away.
154
In the ICU, a patient with rising ICP transitions from decorticate to decerebrate posturing. What should the nurse prioritize? A. Administer analgesics B. Increase room stimulation to enhance wakefulness C. Encourage range-of-motion exercises D. Notify the provider immediately
D. Notify the provider immediately Rationale: Transition from decorticate to decerebrate posturing indicates neurological deterioration and brainstem involvement, which is life-threatening. Immediate notification is necessary to initiate urgent interventions.
155
Which of the following best distinguishes decorticate from decerebrate posturing? A. Arm extension in decorticate, arm flexion in decerebrate B. Decerebrate is less severe than decorticate C. Leg movement differs significantly D. Arm flexion in decorticate, arm extension in decerebrate
D. Arm flexion in decorticate, arm extension in decerebrate Rationale: The key difference is in arm positioning: decorticate posture involves arm flexion, while decerebrate posture involves arm extension and pronation. Decerebrate posturing is a sign of more severe brain injury.
156
A nurse is assessing a patient who reports daily headaches that are worse in the morning and improve as the day progresses. The patient also notes the pain worsens with coughing and straining. What is the nurse’s best interpretation of this symptom pattern? A. It indicates migraine headaches triggered by light exposure B. It suggests normal postural headache due to dehydration C. It may be a sign of increased intracranial pressure D. It is likely due to poor sleep hygiene and stress
C. It may be a sign of increased intracranial pressure Rationale: Morning or nocturnal headaches that worsen with activities like coughing or straining are classic signs of increased ICP, potentially from a mass or obstructed CSF flow. The brain tissue doesn’t feel pain, but compression of surrounding structures (e.g., blood vessels or cranial nerves) can lead to this type of headache.
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A 56-year-old patient is admitted for evaluation of a worsening headache. The patient reports the pain is worst upon waking and becomes more tolerable by noon. The patient denies visual disturbances but states the pain increases with sneezing or bending forward. Based on this data, what should the nurse prioritize? A. Refer the patient for a sleep study to evaluate for sleep apnea B. Document the pain as a common tension-type headache C. Encourage fluids and recommend OTC analgesics D. Notify the provider; findings suggest a possible increase in ICP
D. Notify the provider; findings suggest a possible increase in ICP Rationale: This headache presentation—worse in the morning, aggravated by Valsalva-like maneuvers (e.g., sneezing, bending)—is concerning for increased ICP, possibly from a mass or lesion. Early identification and neuroimaging are crucial to prevent further complications.
158
Which statement by a patient would most concern the nurse in a neurological assessment? A. “My headache wakes me up at night and is worst when I first get out of bed.” B. “I get a headache after a long shift at work.” C. “I’ve had a dull ache in my temples every evening for the last week.” D. “I get sharp pain around my eyes when I’m in bright light.”
A. “My headache wakes me up at night and is worst when I first get out of bed.” Rationale: A headache that occurs at night or early morning is a red flag for increased ICP, especially when it disrupts sleep and worsens with postural changes. This may indicate a space-occupying lesion or other ICP-related pathology.
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Which of the following factors may exacerbate headache pain associated with increased intracranial pressure? Select all that apply: A. Coughing B. Straining during bowel movement C. Morning time D. Agitation or movement E. Quiet rest in a dark room
A. Coughing B. Straining during bowel movement C. Morning time D. Agitation or movement Rationale: Headaches associated with increased ICP are worsened by activities that raise intrathoracic pressure, like coughing (A) and straining (B). These increase cerebral venous pressure and ICP. Morning time (C) is often when ICP is highest due to recumbent positioning overnight. Agitation or movement (D) may also exacerbate symptoms. Quiet rest (E) may relieve, not worsen, the headache.
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unexpected vomiting
vomiting, not preceded by nausea
161
A nurse is caring for a patient with a suspected increase in intracranial pressure. Which clinical manifestation is most concerning and warrants immediate provider notification? A. Nausea followed by emesis after eating B. Vomiting preceded by abdominal cramps C. Projectile vomiting not preceded by nausea D. Vomiting after consuming high-fat foods
C. Projectile vomiting not preceded by nausea Rationale: Projectile vomiting without preceding nausea is a classic and nonspecific indicator of increased ICP. It occurs due to direct stimulation of the vomiting center in the brainstem from elevated pressure. This is a neurologic emergency, especially when paired with other signs like headache or altered LOC.
162
A 70-year-old patient recovering from a fall presents with a sudden episode of projectile vomiting. The nurse notes the patient was not nauseated beforehand. The patient is alert but complains of a mild headache. What is the nurse’s best action? A. Reassure the patient and monitor for recurrence B. Administer antiemetic as ordered and reorient C. Ask about dietary intake to rule out food poisoning D. Notify the provider of possible increased ICP
D. Notify the provider of possible increased ICP Rationale: Projectile vomiting without nausea, particularly in the setting of head trauma and headache, raises a strong concern for elevated intracranial pressure. This symptom must be reported immediately to allow for urgent evaluation (e.g., neuroimaging, ICP monitoring). Anti-nausea meds won’t treat the underlying cause.
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The nurse is reviewing symptoms that may indicate increased intracranial pressure in a neurologic patient. Which of the following vomiting characteristics should the nurse consider as red flags? Select all that apply: A. Vomiting without warning or nausea B. Projectile vomiting C. Vomiting associated with abdominal pain D. Vomiting that occurs after Valsalva maneuver E. Vomiting after consuming spoiled food
A. Vomiting without warning or nausea B. Projectile vomiting Rationale: Unexpected (A) and projectile vomiting (B) are both hallmark, nonspecific indicators of increased ICP. These symptoms result from pressure on the vomiting center in the medulla and are not related to GI illness or food intake. Options C, D, and E are more suggestive of gastrointestinal or situational causes.
164
A patient with a history of a brain tumor reports waking up in the morning and having an episode of vomiting without feeling nauseated. Which explanation best describes this occurrence? A. The tumor is likely causing GI irritation B. This is expected as part of chemotherapy side effects C. Increased ICP is likely stimulating the vomiting center D. This represents viral gastroenteritis with atypical presentation
C. Increased ICP is likely stimulating the vomiting center Rationale: In patients with space-occupying lesions, such as tumors, the development of sudden vomiting without nausea is strongly linked to increased ICP, which affects the brainstem vomiting center directly. This symptom must not be dismissed or attributed solely to chemotherapy or GI causes.
165
Which of the following patient statements would most concern the nurse assessing for neurologic complications? A. “I woke up and threw up suddenly—no nausea at all before it.” B. “I vomited three times after eating greasy food.” C. “I threw up this morning, but I had a stomachache all night.” D. “I felt nauseated all day and finally vomited after dinner.”
A. “I woke up and threw up suddenly—no nausea at all before it.” Rationale: Vomiting without prior nausea—especially if sudden or projectile—is a neurologic red flag suggestive of increased intracranial pressure. This finding is especially important when evaluating for conditions like tumors, hydrocephalus, or hemorrhages.
166
A patient presents with altered mental status and a history of hepatic encephalopathy. Which of the following laboratory findings would most likely contribute to the development of cerebral edema in this patient? A) Elevated serum sodium B) Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) C) Decreased liver enzymes D) Elevated serum ammonia
D) Elevated serum ammonia Rationale: Elevated serum ammonia is a hallmark of hepatic encephalopathy and contributes to cerebral edema by increasing astrocyte swelling due to ammonia’s neurotoxic effects.
167
A nurse is caring for a patient with a traumatic brain injury (TBI) who has developed cerebral edema. Which of the following types of cerebral edema is most commonly associated with TBI? A) Vasogenic edema B) Cytotoxic edema C) Interstitial edema D) Osmotic edema
A) Vasogenic edema Rationale: Vasogenic edema, resulting from the breakdown of the blood-brain barrier, is commonly associated with TBI, leading to fluid accumulation in the extracellular space.
168
A patient with a history of lead poisoning is admitted with signs of increased intracranial pressure. Which type of cerebral edema is most likely responsible for the patient’s symptoms? A) Cytotoxic edema B) Vasogenic edema C) Interstitial edema D) Hydrostatic edema
A) Cytotoxic edema Rationale: Lead poisoning can cause cytotoxic edema due to direct neuronal injury and disruption of cellular metabolism, leading to intracellular fluid accumulation.
169
A patient is diagnosed with a brain abscess. Which type of cerebral edema is most likely to develop in this condition? A) Cytotoxic edema B) Vasogenic edema C) Interstitial edema D) Osmotic edema
B) Vasogenic edema Rationale: Infections like brain abscesses often lead to vasogenic edema due to increased permeability of the blood-brain barrier, allowing fluid to leak into the extracellular space.
170
A patient presents with symptoms of high-altitude cerebral edema (HACE). Which of the following best explains the pathophysiology behind HACE? A) Rapid increase in intracranial pressure due to hemorrhage B) Cytotoxic edema from neuronal injury C) Vasogenic edema from increased capillary permeability D) Interstitial edema from obstructed cerebrospinal fluid flow
C) Vasogenic edema from increased capillary permeability Rationale: HACE is primarily caused by vasogenic edema resulting from increased capillary permeability at high altitudes, leading to fluid leakage into the brain’s extracellular space.
171
A patient with acute liver failure is at risk for developing cerebral edema. What is the primary mechanism behind this complication? A) Accumulation of neurotoxins like ammonia B) Increased production of cerebrospinal fluid C) Elevated serum sodium levels D) Decreased intracranial pressure
A) Accumulation of neurotoxins like ammonia Rationale: In acute liver failure, the accumulation of neurotoxins, particularly ammonia, leads to astrocyte swelling and cerebral edema.
172
A patient with a history of meningitis is exhibiting signs of increased intracranial pressure. Which type of cerebral edema is most likely present? A) Cytotoxic edema B) Vasogenic edema C) Interstitial edema D) Osmotic edema
B) Vasogenic edema Rationale: Meningitis can disrupt the blood-brain barrier, leading to vasogenic edema characterized by fluid leakage into the extracellular space.
173
A patient with a large ischemic stroke is developing cerebral edema. Which type of edema is initially present in this condition? A) Vasogenic edema B) Cytotoxic edema C) Interstitial edema D) Osmotic edema
B) Cytotoxic edema Rationale: In the early stages of ischemic stroke, cytotoxic edema occurs due to energy failure and subsequent intracellular fluid accumulation.
174
A patient with a subdural hematoma is at risk for developing cerebral edema. What is the primary cause of edema in this scenario? A) Increased cerebrospinal fluid production B) Obstruction of venous outflow C) Neuronal hyperactivity D) Disruption of the blood-brain barrier
D) Disruption of the blood-brain barrier Rationale: Subdural hematomas can disrupt the blood-brain barrier, leading to vasogenic edema from fluid leakage into the extracellular space.
175
A patient with uremia is exhibiting neurological symptoms suggestive of cerebral edema. What is the underlying mechanism in this case? A) Cytotoxic edema due to toxin accumulation B) Vasogenic edema from inflammation C) Interstitial edema from hydrocephalus D) Osmotic edema from hyponatremia
A) Cytotoxic edema due to toxin accumulation Rationale: Uremia leads to the accumulation of toxins that can cause direct neuronal injury, resulting in cytotoxic edema.
176
A patient with cerebral venous sinus thrombosis is developing signs of increased intracranial pressure. Which type of cerebral edema is most likely responsible? A) Cytotoxic edema B) Vasogenic edema C) Interstitial edema D) Osmotic edema
B) Vasogenic edema Rationale: Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis can lead to increased venous pressure and disruption of the blood-brain barrier, resulting in vasogenic edema.
177
A nurse is monitoring a patient with elevated ICP. Which complication is most concerning if not managed promptly? A. Optic nerve damage B. Persistent nausea C. Hypothalamic temperature fluctuations D. Cerebral herniation
D. Cerebral herniation Rationale: Cerebral herniation is a life-threatening complication of uncontrolled ICP and represents a shift of brain tissue from its normal location. This can cause compression of vital structures, especially the brainstem, and often results in irreversible damage or death.
178
tentorium
a tent-like cover over the cerebellum
179
Which structure forms a rigid dural fold that separates the cerebellum from the cerebral hemispheres and contributes to herniation syndromes? A. Falx cerebri B. Corpus callosum C. Tentorium cerebelli D. Choroid plexus
C. Tentorium cerebelli Rationale: The tentorium cerebelli is a fold of dura mater that forms a tent-like separation between the cerebrum and cerebellum. It’s clinically important because it creates compartments within the skull, and herniation through this structure (e.g., uncal or central herniation) can compress the brainstem and be fatal.
180
A patient with a traumatic brain injury is showing signs of increasing ICP. The provider explains the patient may be experiencing central herniation. What is the best explanation for this condition? A. Brain tissue shifts laterally under the falx cerebri B. Cerebellar tonsils herniate upward into the cerebrum C. The optic nerve becomes compressed against the temporal bone D. Cerebral tissue is displaced downward through the foramen magnum
D. Cerebral tissue is displaced downward through the foramen magnum Rationale: Central (tentorial) herniation involves downward movement of cerebral structures through the tentorial notch, compressing the brainstem. This is a critical emergency because the brainstem houses vital autonomic centers, including respiratory and cardiovascular regulation.
181
The nurse is teaching a group of students about types of cerebral herniation. Which of the following statements are accurate? Select all that apply: A. Cingulate herniation occurs under the falx cerebri B. Tentorial herniation compresses the cerebellum directly C. Uncal herniation involves downward movement of the temporal lobe D. Central herniation is associated with compression of the brainstem E. Cerebral herniation can impair cerebral perfusion
A. Cingulate herniation occurs under the falx cerebri C. Uncal herniation involves downward movement of the temporal lobe D. Central herniation is associated with compression of the brainstem E. Cerebral herniation can impair cerebral perfusion Rationale: * A: Cingulate herniation involves tissue shifting under the falx cerebri. * C: Uncal herniation occurs laterally and downward, pushing the medial temporal lobe. * D: Central herniation is also known as tentorial herniation and compresses the brainstem. * E: All forms of herniation compromise cerebral blood flow and lead to hypoxia or ischemia. B is incorrect—tentorial herniation compresses brainstem structures, not the cerebellum directly.
182
Which patient finding would most strongly suggest early cingulate herniation? A. Loss of pupillary response on one side B. Lateral shift of cerebral tissue seen on imaging C. Sudden bradycardia and respiratory arrest D. Loss of corneal and gag reflexes
B. Lateral shift of cerebral tissue seen on imaging Rationale: Cingulate herniation occurs when brain tissue is pushed laterally under the falx cerebri. This can often be seen as a midline shift on CT or MRI and may initially present without profound clinical signs. As it progresses, neurological deterioration can occur.
183
A patient with a brain mass shows signs of uncal herniation. Which symptom is most likely to be present? A. Fixed and dilated pupil on the ipsilateral side B. Bilateral pinpoint pupils C. Bilateral flaccid paralysis D. Aphasia with left gaze deviation
A. Fixed and dilated pupil on the ipsilateral side Rationale: In uncal herniation, the medial temporal lobe compresses CN III, leading to ipsilateral pupil dilation that becomes fixed. This is a classic early sign and a neurologic emergency indicating brainstem involvement.
184
Which of the following complications may directly result from cerebral herniation? Select all that apply: A. Respiratory arrest B. Bradycardia C. Brainstem compression D. Increased spinal reflexes E. Irreversible coma
A. Respiratory arrest B. Bradycardia C. Brainstem compression E. Irreversible coma Rationale: Cerebral herniation can cause brainstem compression, leading to loss of autonomic function (A, B), and often progresses to irreversible coma or death (E). D is incorrect—spinal reflexes may diminish or be lost depending on the location of compression.
185
Which structure separates the right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum and is involved in cingulate herniation? A. Corpus callosum B. Tentorium cerebelli C. Falx cerebri D. Foramen magnum
C. Falx cerebri Rationale: The falx cerebri is a vertical fold of dura mater between the right and left cerebral hemispheres. In cingulate herniation, brain tissue is pushed beneath this midline structure, which may disrupt perfusion and worsen ICP.
186
The nurse suspects uncal herniation in a neurologic patient. Which cranial nerve is most at risk of compression? A. CN II (Optic) B. CN III (Oculomotor) C. CN V (Trigeminal) D. CN VIII (Vestibulocochlear)
B. CN III (Oculomotor) Rationale: The oculomotor nerve (CN III) is often compressed during uncal herniation, leading to a fixed, dilated pupil on the same side of the lesion. This occurs as the medial temporal lobe presses downward on the brainstem, impinging CN III fibers.
187
A nurse is monitoring a patient at risk for increased ICP. Which change is most indicative of cerebral perfusion impairment? A. Pupillary light reflex is brisk B. Blood pressure is 180/100 mm Hg with bounding pulses C. Glasgow Coma Scale increases from 12 to 14 D. The patient is restless, agitated, and confused
D. The patient is restless, agitated, and confused Rationale: Early signs of impaired cerebral perfusion include subtle changes in behavior, restlessness, or altered mental status, as the brain becomes hypoxic. This is an early clue to decreased perfusion due to rising ICP and precedes more severe signs like herniation or coma.
188
A patient is suspected of having increased intracranial pressure. Which diagnostic test is contraindicated due to the risk of herniation? A. CT scan B. MRI C. Lumbar puncture D. Transcranial Doppler
C. Lumbar puncture Rationale: A lumbar puncture is contraindicated in patients with suspected increased ICP because it can cause a sudden release of pressure below the skull, increasing the risk of brain herniation through the foramen magnum—a fatal complication.
189
The nurse is reviewing the diagnostic plan for a patient with increased ICP. Which of the following tests may be appropriate to help identify the cause and monitor treatment response? Select all that apply: A. CT scan B. EEG C. Infrascanner D. Serum sodium level E. Positron emission tomography (PET)
A. CT scan B. EEG C. Infrascanner E. Positron emission tomography (PET) Rationale: * CT scan (A): Standard imaging to evaluate structural causes of increased ICP. * EEG (B): Useful for evaluating cerebral function or detecting seizure activity. * Infrascanner (C): Handheld device to identify life-threatening intracranial bleeding. * PET scan (E): Detects metabolic changes in the brain and blood flow. D (serum sodium) is not a direct diagnostic tool for ICP, though important in management.
190
Which non-invasive diagnostic tool uses light absorption differences to detect intracranial hematomas? A. PET scan B. Infrascanner C. LICOX catheter D. Cerebral angiography
B. Infrascanner Rationale: The Infrascanner uses near-infrared light to detect intracranial bleeding by identifying areas where light absorption is altered by pooled blood from a hematoma.
191
A physician is considering a diagnostic study to monitor cerebrovascular resistance in a patient with head trauma. Which test is most appropriate? A. Transcranial Doppler B. EEG C. LICOX system D. Lumbar puncture
A. Transcranial Doppler Rationale: Transcranial Doppler ultrasonography is used to monitor cerebral blood flow velocity and resistance, which is particularly useful in patients with traumatic brain injury or stroke.
192
A 30-year-old patient presents with head trauma. The provider wants to assess brain tissue oxygenation levels. Which monitoring device is most appropriate? A. Infrascanner B. CT scan C. Evoked potentials D. LICOX catheter
D. LICOX catheter Rationale: The LICOX catheter directly measures brain tissue oxygenation (PbtO2) and temperature. It’s an invasive monitoring tool used in ICU settings for patients at risk for brain hypoxia due to increased ICP.
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A nurse is reviewing the results of a patient’s diagnostic imaging after an episode of sudden headache and confusion. Which findings and tools would support a diagnosis of intracranial hemorrhage or increased ICP? Select all that apply: A. PET scan showing hypermetabolism in brainstem B. Infrascanner detection of abnormal light absorption C. MRI revealing mass effect and midline shift D. LICOX catheter revealing PbtO2 of 12 mm Hg E. Transcranial Doppler revealing reduced cerebral blood flow velocity
B. Infrascanner detection of abnormal light absorption C. MRI revealing mass effect and midline shift D. LICOX catheter revealing PbtO2 of 12 mm Hg E. Transcranial Doppler revealing reduced cerebral blood flow velocity Rationale: * B: Infrascanner detects light absorption changes from bleeding. * C: MRI can show midline shift and mass lesions, which are ICP indicators. * D: Low PbtO2 (<20 mm Hg) suggests inadequate brain oxygenation. * E: Decreased CBF velocity on Doppler = elevated ICP or poor perfusion. A (PET scan hypermetabolism in brainstem) is nonspecific and less useful here.
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Which diagnostic study evaluates functional electrical activity of the brain and can detect seizures in a patient with altered mental status? A. CT scan B. EEG C. PET scan D. LICOX system
B. EEG Rationale: An electroencephalogram (EEG) records brain electrical activity and is useful for detecting seizure activity, especially in patients with altered consciousness or unexplained changes in neurologic status.
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Which diagnostic study provides metabolic and blood flow data to evaluate cerebral function in patients with neurologic injury? A. PET scan B. MRI C. EEG D. Transcranial Doppler
A. PET scan Rationale: A PET scan provides functional imaging, including glucose metabolism and blood flow, helping clinicians assess areas of hypometabolism or ischemia in patients with neurologic concerns.
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A patient has an elevated ICP with worsening neurologic status. The neurosurgeon orders a diagnostic test to visualize the brain’s vascular system to check for aneurysm or AV malformation. Which test is best? A. Evoked potential testing B. Transcranial Doppler C. Cerebral angiography D. EEG
C. Cerebral angiography Rationale: Cerebral angiography is the gold standard to visualize intracranial vessels, detect aneurysms, AV malformations, or assess vascular occlusion in stroke or trauma.
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Which statements about ICP diagnostic tools are correct? Select all that apply: A. Lumbar puncture can reduce ICP in emergency cases B. Transcranial Doppler is non-invasive C. Infrascanner is useful in pre-hospital or field triage D. PET scan shows anatomical structures only E. LICOX catheter monitors oxygen and temperature in brain tissue
B. Transcranial Doppler is non-invasive C. Infrascanner is useful in pre-hospital or field triage E. LICOX catheter monitors oxygen and temperature in brain tissue Rationale: * B: Transcranial Doppler is non-invasive and monitors blood flow velocity. * C: The Infrascanner is portable and useful in field trauma settings. * E: LICOX catheter gives continuous oxygenation (PbtO2) and temperature readings. A is incorrect—LP is contraindicated with increased ICP. D is incorrect—PET shows function, not just anatomy.
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Which finding from a transcranial Doppler study is most concerning in a patient with head trauma? A. Normal velocity of 60 cm/sec B. Decreased cerebral blood flow velocity C. Slightly increased flow velocity during systole D. Absent pulsatility in the middle cerebral artery
B. Decreased cerebral blood flow velocity Rationale: Decreased velocity suggests increased cerebrovascular resistance, a hallmark of elevated ICP and impending perfusion impairment, requiring urgent intervention.
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Which of the following statements made by a student nurse requires correction? A. “A CT scan is used to identify masses and bleeding in the brain.” B. “PET scans help evaluate cerebral metabolism.” C. “The LICOX system is used to monitor brain oxygenation levels.” D. “A lumbar puncture is safe to perform to confirm elevated ICP.”
D. “A lumbar puncture is safe to perform to confirm elevated ICP.” Rationale: This is incorrect and dangerous. A lumbar puncture is contraindicated in patients with increased ICP due to the risk of cerebral herniation following a sudden drop in pressure below the skull.
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A patient is admitted to the ICU after a severe traumatic brain injury. The patient has a GCS score of 7 and a CT scan showing cerebral edema. Based on the current guidelines, which intervention is most appropriate? A. Begin hourly neurologic assessments only B. Prepare for immediate lumbar puncture C. Administer IV mannitol and observe D. Initiate intracranial pressure monitoring
D. Initiate intracranial pressure monitoring Rationale: ICP monitoring is indicated for patients with a GCS score ≤8 and abnormal CT/MRI findings (e.g., bleeding or edema). This combination suggests a high risk for increased ICP and the need for direct pressure monitoring to guide treatment.
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Which of the following patients would most likely be considered candidates for ICP monitoring? Select all that apply: A. A patient with a GCS score of 7 and an MRI showing a contusion B. A patient with a GCS of 14 and a stable ischemic stroke C. A patient with bacterial meningitis and a fluctuating LOC D. A patient with a TBI, GCS 8, and no CT abnormalities E. A patient with a brain tumor and signs of increased ICP
A. A patient with a GCS score of 7 and an MRI showing a contusion C. A patient with bacterial meningitis and a fluctuating LOC E. A patient with a brain tumor and signs of increased ICP Rationale: * A: GCS ≤8 and contusion = classic indication. * C: Meningitis with LOC changes = risk for increased ICP; monitoring helps guide care. * E: Brain tumors can cause mass effect and increased ICP. B is stable and does not meet ICP monitoring criteria. D might be monitored depending on risk factors, but normal CT reduces the urgency.
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The nurse is caring for a patient with suspected increased ICP following a hemorrhagic stroke. The provider decides to insert an ICP monitor. What is the primary goal of ICP monitoring in this case? A. To confirm the location of the hemorrhage B. To administer medications directly into the brain C. To guide therapy and reduce risk of secondary brain injury D. To replace the need for serial CT scans
C. To guide therapy and reduce risk of secondary brain injury Rationale: The main goal of ICP monitoring is to track pressure trends and guide treatment decisions, such as adjusting fluids, osmotic therapy, or sedation, to optimize cerebral perfusion and prevent secondary injury.
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A 58-year-old patient presents with a large ischemic stroke and is now drowsy with a GCS score of 8. MRI reveals extensive edema with midline shift. Which of the following nursing actions is most urgent? A. Prepare for intracranial pressure monitoring B. Obtain consent for mechanical ventilation C. Administer IV morphine for pain relief D. Position the patient supine with legs elevated
A. Prepare for intracranial pressure monitoring Rationale: This patient has both a low GCS and significant cerebral edema, meeting criteria for ICP monitoring. It helps detect and manage dangerous pressure elevations before irreversible brain damage occurs.
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Which patient would not be an appropriate candidate for routine ICP monitoring? A. A patient with a brain abscess and deteriorating LOC B. A patient with a mild concussion and GCS 15 C. A patient with a large subdural hematoma and GCS 6 D. A patient with a brain tumor and vomiting with headache
B. A patient with a mild concussion and GCS 15 Rationale: ICP monitoring is not indicated in patients with mild neurologic injuries (GCS >13) and no structural brain abnormalities. This patient is stable and does not show signs of increased ICP or deterioration.
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A nurse is explaining the criteria for intracranial pressure monitoring to a new graduate. Which of the following statements should the nurse include? Select all that apply: A. “A GCS score of 9 or higher requires ICP monitoring.” B. “Patients with traumatic brain injury and cerebral contusions are high-risk.” C. “ICP monitoring is often needed if CT imaging shows cerebral edema.” D. “ICP monitoring is contraindicated in stroke patients.” E. “A sudden change in LOC can indicate the need for ICP monitoring.”
B. “Patients with traumatic brain injury and cerebral contusions are high-risk.” C. “ICP monitoring is often needed if CT imaging shows cerebral edema.” E. “A sudden change in LOC can indicate the need for ICP monitoring.” Rationale: * B: TBI with contusion = high risk. * C: Cerebral edema on imaging is a red flag for ICP. * E: Sudden LOC changes suggest brain swelling or bleeding—triggers for monitoring. A is incorrect—a GCS ≤8, not 9+, is the usual cutoff. D is false—stroke patients, especially those with hemorrhagic stroke, often require monitoring.
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ventriculstomy
a specialized catheter is inserted into the lateral ventricle and coupled to an external transducer
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air pouch/pneumatic technology
an air-filled pouch to measure ICP
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The gold standard for monitoring intracranial pressure (ICP) is: A. Fiberoptic catheter B. Pneumatic air pouch system C. Ventriculostomy D. Epidural catheter
C. Ventriculostomy Rationale: The ventriculostomy is the gold standard for ICP monitoring. It provides direct measurement of pressure and allows for CSF sampling and drug administration.
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When using a ventriculostomy to monitor ICP, which of the following is a crucial step in ensuring accurate readings? A. Leveling the transducer with the tragus of the ear B. Positioning the transducer at the level of the heart C. Keeping the catheter tip above the foramen of Monro D. Maintaining the catheter height 5 cm above the foramen of Monro
A. Leveling the transducer with the tragus of the ear Rationale: The transducer must be level with the foramen of Monro, which is referenced using the tragus of the ear. This ensures that the ICP measurement is accurate and consistent, regardless of the patient’s positioning.
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What is one potential complication that may affect ICP monitoring accuracy? A. Infection at the insertion site B. Blood pressure fluctuations C. Decreased cerebral blood flow D. Excessive fluid intake
A. Infection at the insertion site Rationale: Infection is a serious complication associated with ICP monitoring, especially with ventriculostomy, which can result in meningitis or other systemic infections. It is critical to monitor the insertion site and use aseptic technique.
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Which of the following could cause inaccurate ICP readings when using a ventriculostomy? Select all that apply: A. CSF leaks around the monitoring device B. Kinks in the ICP tubing C. Incorrect height of the drainage system relative to the reference point D. Patient in a prone position E. Use of a fiberoptic catheter
A. CSF leaks around the monitoring device B. Kinks in the ICP tubing C. Incorrect height of the drainage system relative to the reference point Rationale: * A: CSF leaks compromise the pressure readings and the system’s integrity. * B: Kinks in the tubing block or distort the pressure waveforms. * C: The height of the drainage system must be correctly positioned to the reference point (foramen of Monro). D and E are not direct causes of inaccurate readings, though prone positioning may affect the positioning of the catheter or transducer. Fiberoptic catheters have their own characteristics but do not cause inaccurate readings due to positioning.
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A patient with a ventriculostomy is having an ICP reading of 20 mm Hg. The nurse checks the waveform and notices that P2 is significantly above P1. What action should the nurse take? A. Increase the height of the transducer B. Report the abnormal waveform and monitor the patient for signs of deterioration C. Perform a lumbar puncture to relieve pressure D. Administer IV fluids to increase cerebral perfusion pressure
B. Report the abnormal waveform and monitor the patient for signs of deterioration Rationale: A P2 elevation above P1 indicates poor ventricular compliance, which suggests increased ICP. This requires immediate attention, and the nurse should report the abnormal waveform to the healthcare provider and carefully monitor the patient for signs of deterioration.
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When a ventriculostomy is used, the nurse knows that which of the following can improve the accuracy of ICP measurements? A. Keeping the drainage system below the patient’s head B. Closing the CSF drain for at least 6 minutes before taking a reading C. Flushing the catheter with saline before every reading D. Ensuring the patient remains supine during ICP measurement
B. Closing the CSF drain for at least 6 minutes before taking a reading Rationale: To obtain accurate ICP readings, the CSF drain should be closed for at least 6 minutes to ensure that there is no influence from draining before taking the pressure reading.
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Which of the following is a benefit of using a fiberoptic catheter to measure ICP? A. It is less invasive than a ventriculostomy B. It provides direct measurement of brain pressure without needing a transducer C. It allows for intraventricular drug administration D. It is the most accurate method for CSF drainage
B. It provides direct measurement of brain pressure without needing a transducer Rationale: The fiberoptic catheter uses a sensor transducer located at the catheter tip to directly measure brain pressure. Unlike the ventriculostomy, it does not require a separate external transducer.
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The nurse is assessing a patient with a ventriculostomy for increased ICP. Which of the following would most likely cause an inaccurate ICP reading? A. Air bubbles in the tubing B. Fluid overload C. Fever D. Increased cardiac output
A. Air bubbles in the tubing Rationale: Air bubbles in the ICP monitoring system can dampen the waveform, leading to false readings. It is crucial to check the system for air bubbles and remove them to ensure accurate readings.
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What is the normal range for mean ICP? A. 5-10 mm Hg B. 15-20 mm Hg C. 20-25 mm Hg D. 25-30 mm Hg
A. 5-10 mm Hg Rationale: Normal ICP typically ranges between 5-10 mm Hg. Values above this range indicate increased ICP, which can lead to poor cerebral perfusion and other complications.
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The nurse is assessing a patient with a ventriculostomy and notices a sudden increase in ICP readings with an abnormal waveform. What is the immediate priority action? A. Increase the sedation to reduce patient movement B. Position the patient with the head elevated to 30 degrees C. Administer IV diuretics D. Report the findings to the healthcare provider and prepare for intervention
D. Report the findings to the healthcare provider and prepare for intervention Rationale: A sudden increase in ICP with an abnormal waveform requires immediate notification to the healthcare provider, as this indicates deteriorating neurological status and may require urgent intervention.
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Which of the following are potential complications of ICP monitoring? Select all that apply: A. Meningitis B. CSF leak C. Seizures D. Pneumothorax E. Catheter obstruction
A. Meningitis B. CSF leak E. Catheter obstruction Rationale: * A: Infection (e.g., meningitis) is a common complication of ICP monitoring. * B: CSF leaks can lead to inaccurate readings or infections. * E: Catheter obstruction from clots or tissue can distort readings. C and D are not typical complications directly associated with ICP monitoring.
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Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection when managing a patient with a ventriculostomy? A. Change the dressing every 24 hours B. Use aseptic technique when handling the insertion site C. Flush the catheter with saline every 12 hours D. Routinely administer antibiotics
B. Use aseptic technique when handling the insertion site Rationale: The nurse should use aseptic technique to avoid introducing infection. Regular dressing changes and careful handling reduce the risk of meningitis or other complications. Flushing and antibiotics are not routine practices unless infection is suspected.
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The nurse is caring for a patient with a ventriculostomy. Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding CSF drainage? A. The CSF drainage device must be closed for at least 6 minutes before taking a reading B. The drainage system must always be kept higher than the patient’s head C. The CSF should be allowed to drain continuously to lower ICP D. The CSF drainage bag must be changed every 48 hours
A. The CSF drainage device must be closed for at least 6 minutes before taking a reading Rationale: Closing the drainage device for at least 6 minutes ensures that the measurement reflects true ICP without the influence of draining CSF.
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Which of the following are methods used to measure ICP? Select all that apply: A. Fiberoptic catheter B. Ventriculostomy C. Lumbar puncture D. Pneumatic air pouch system E. EEG monitoring
A. Fiberoptic catheter B. Ventriculostomy D. Pneumatic air pouch system
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Which of the following interventions is most likely to prevent an infection in a patient with an ICP monitoring device? A. Keep the patient NPO (nothing by mouth) for 24 hours after device insertion B. Administer prophylactic antibiotics before the insertion of the device C. Use aseptic technique during the insertion and maintenance of the device D. Keep the patient in a side-lying position to avoid pressure on the catheter
C. Use aseptic technique during the insertion and maintenance of the device Rationale: Using aseptic technique during both insertion and maintenance of the ICP device significantly reduces the risk of infection. Proper hand hygiene, sterile dressings, and avoiding unnecessary manipulation of the device are essential.
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A nurse is caring for a patient with increased ICP who is monitored with a ventriculostomy. The nurse notices a CSF leak around the insertion site. What is the most appropriate action? A. Increase the sedation to prevent movement B. Replace the drainage system immediately C. Notify the healthcare provider for further assessment and management D. Flush the catheter with saline to clear the obstruction
C. Notify the healthcare provider for further assessment and management Rationale: A CSF leak could result in inaccurate ICP readings and increased infection risk. It’s essential to notify the healthcare provider to evaluate the situation and determine whether the device needs to be adjusted or replaced.
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A patient with a ventriculostomy has an ICP reading of 22 mm Hg. The nurse observes that the waveform is abnormal, with P2 rising significantly above P1. What should the nurse do first? A. Increase the head of the bed to 45 degrees B. Administer a dose of mannitol C. Report the abnormal reading to the healthcare provider immediately D. Close the drainage device for 6 minutes and recheck the ICP
C. Report the abnormal reading to the healthcare provider immediately Rationale: Abnormal ICP waveforms with P2 rising above P1 indicate that the patient is experiencing increased ICP and may be at risk for neurological deterioration. This requires immediate reporting to the healthcare provider for possible intervention.
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The nurse is caring for a patient who has been receiving ICP monitoring for 4 days using a ventriculostomy. Which of the following is the best practice to minimize the risk of infection during this time? A. Change the insertion site dressing every 72 hours B. Ensure the drainage system is closed for at least 6 minutes before taking readings C. Flush the catheter with normal saline every 12 hours to maintain patency D. Keep the insertion site covered with a sterile dressing and monitor for redness or drainage
D. Keep the insertion site covered with a sterile dressing and monitor for redness or drainage Rationale: To prevent infection, the insertion site should be covered with a sterile dressing. The nurse should monitor for signs of infection such as redness, drainage, or increased warmth around the site. Changing the dressing should occur every 24 hours, not every 72 hours, to ensure proper hygiene.
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A patient with increased ICP is undergoing CSF drainage via a ventricular catheter. The nurse is instructed to start intermittent drainage when the ICP exceeds 20 mm Hg. What is the most important action for the nurse to take during the drainage process? A. Open the drainage system and allow CSF to drain for 2 to 3 minutes, then close it B. Continuously monitor the volume of CSF drained and keep the system open C. Keep the drainage system open to allow continuous CSF drainage D. Ensure the drainage is started only if the ICP is above 30 mm Hg
A. Open the drainage system and allow CSF to drain for 2 to 3 minutes, then close it Rationale: Intermittent drainage requires the nurse to open the system for 2 to 3 minutes to allow CSF to drain, then close the system to maintain the integrity of ICP monitoring. Continuous drainage would require monitoring the volume of CSF drained.
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A nurse is caring for a patient receiving continuous CSF drainage through a ventriculostomy. Which of the following is the most important consideration when managing continuous drainage? A. Ensure that the patient remains in a prone position to minimize ICP B. Monitor the volume of CSF drainage to avoid excessive removal C. Open the system only when ICP exceeds 30 mm Hg D. Maintain the system open to prevent backflow of CSF
B. Monitor the volume of CSF drainage to avoid excessive removal Rationale: When using continuous CSF drainage, it is essential to monitor the volume of CSF removed to prevent over-drainage, which could lead to complications like ventricular collapse or herniation. Normal CSF production is around 20 to 30 mL/hr, so it is important to keep this in mind.
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A patient with a ventriculostomy is at risk of rapid decompression following CSF drainage. Which of the following complications is the most likely result of rapid decompression? A. Cerebral herniation or subdural hematoma formation B. Increased ICP due to inadequate CSF drainage C. Severe bradycardia and cardiac arrest D. Hypotension from excessive fluid loss
A. Cerebral herniation or subdural hematoma formation Rationale: Rapid decompression of ICP can cause cerebral herniation or subdural hematoma formation, both of which are serious complications. Proper monitoring and controlled drainage are critical to avoid these risks.
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A nurse is preparing to drain CSF from a patient with a ventriculostomy. What action should the nurse take to ensure accurate ICP readings during CSF drainage? A. Open the system to drain CSF for 10 minutes to reduce ICP B. Keep the drainage system closed until the ICP reaches 40 mm Hg C. Ensure that the system is intact and leveled at the foramen of Monro D. Position the transducer above the patient’s ear to avoid inaccurate readings
C. Ensure that the system is intact and leveled at the foramen of Monro Rationale: For accurate ICP readings, it is essential to level the system at the foramen of Monro (the reference point) and ensure the system remains intact to prevent errors in ICP measurements.
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A patient with a ventriculostomy has had intermittent CSF drainage. The nurse is assessing the patient and notices that the stopcock is open. What is the best action for the nurse to take? A. Close the stopcock immediately and monitor for any changes in ICP B. Increase the frequency of CSF drainage to prevent excessive ICP C. Replace the catheter to ensure an accurate ICP measurement D. Reposition the patient to ensure the drainage system is level
A. Close the stopcock immediately and monitor for any changes in ICP Rationale: The stopcock should be closed after intermittent drainage to maintain the integrity of the ICP monitoring system. The nurse should monitor the ICP for any changes to ensure proper pressure management.
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A patient has a ventriculostomy for CSF drainage to manage increased ICP. The nurse notes that the CSF drainage is clear, but there is a slight leak around the insertion site. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take? A. Immediately replace the catheter to prevent infection B. Report the issue to the healthcare provider for assessment and possible intervention C. Flush the catheter with normal saline to clear any obstruction D. Increase the drainage rate to compensate for the leakage
B. Report the issue to the healthcare provider for assessment and possible intervention Rationale: CSF leakage around the insertion site should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider. This could indicate a problem with the catheter or the insertion site that may need adjustment or further intervention to prevent complications.
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Which of the following complications is most likely to occur if too much CSF is removed from patient with a ventriculostomy? A. Ventricular collapse B. Increased ICP C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Hemorrhagic shock
A. Ventricular collapse Rationale: Removing too much CSF can cause ventricular collapse, as the brain can lose the cushioning effect provided by the CSF. This can lead to further neurological complications and increased ICP if not corrected.
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A nurse is caring for a patient with a ventriculostomy for CSF drainage. What should the nurse do before repositioning the patient to prevent inaccurate ICP readings? A. Ensure the drainage system is level with the tragus of the ear B. Increase the drainage system pressure to prevent backflow C. Disconnect the catheter temporarily to allow for patient movement D. Administer a dose of osmotic diuretics to control ICP
A. Ensure the drainage system is level with the tragus of the ear Rationale: The system must be leveled at the tragus of the ear (the reference point) to ensure accurate ICP readings when repositioning the patient. Proper positioning is essential to prevent changes in ICP measurements.
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What is the most important consideration when performing a dressing change on a patient with a ventriculostomy? A. Ensure that the patient is NPO for at least 12 hours before the change B. Use aseptic technique to prevent infection C. Remove the old dressing slowly to avoid increasing ICP D. Flush the catheter with saline before changing the dressing
B. Use aseptic technique to prevent infection Rationale: Using aseptic technique during dressing changes is critical to prevent infection. Infection is a significant complication with ICP monitoring and should always be carefully avoided through proper technique.
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The nurse notices that the CSF drainage volume is significantly higher than normal, and the patient is experiencing signs of hypovolemia. What is the first action the nurse should take? A. Increase the fluid intake to compensate for the fluid loss B. Notify the healthcare provider for further instructions and assessment C. Change the drainage system to prevent further fluid loss D. Stop the CSF drainage immediately to prevent more fluid loss
B. Notify the healthcare provider for further instructions and assessment Rationale: The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately when there is excessive CSF drainage. This could indicate a problem with the system or a need for a change in treatment, such as stopping or adjusting drainage.
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A nurse is preparing to care for a patient with a ventriculostomy for CSF drainage. Which of the following is the most important to prevent ventricular collapse? A. Ensure that the drainage system remains open during patient repositioning B. Monitor the patient’s vital signs for signs of shock C. Maintain a controlled and safe amount of CSF drainage D. Keep the patient immobile at all times
C. Maintain a controlled and safe amount of CSF drainage Rationale: To avoid ventricular collapse, it is crucial to maintain controlled and safe amounts of CSF drainage. The nurse should monitor and adjust the drainage system as needed to prevent excessive CSF loss, which can lead to complications.
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Which of the following should be included in the care plan for a patient with a ventriculostomy and intermittent CSF drainage? A. Increase the ICP to prevent complications from drainage B. Perform routine sterile dressing changes to prevent infection C. Keep the drainage system open continuously to prevent buildup of ICP D. Decrease the frequency of CSF drainage to reduce the risk of infection
B. Perform routine sterile dressing changes to prevent infection Rationale: Routine sterile dressing changes are essential to prevent infection at the insertion site of the ventriculostomy. Keeping the system intact and sterile is critical
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