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Ob/gyn > Ch. 59,60,61,65 > Flashcards

Ch. 59,60,61,65 Flashcards

1
Q

Which one of the following statements about the fetal face is false?
A) The fetal profile is well imaged with transvaginal sonography beginning late in the first trimester to early in the second trimester.
B) the modified coronal view is best to image a cleft lip and palate
C) the maxilla and orbits are well imaged in a true sagittal plane
D) the longitudinal view demonstrates the nasal bones, soft tissue, and mandible

A

C) the maxilla and orbits are well imaged in a true sagittal plane

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2
Q

Which one of the following imaging planes is best for imaging the cleft lip and palate?
A) transverse
B) longitudinal
C) transverse oblique
D) modified coronal

A

D) modified coronal

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3
Q

Extensive facial screening may be hindered by all of the following except:
A) bone shadowing
B) poor fetal positioning
C) polyhydraminos
D) maternal obesity

A

C) polyhydraminos

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4
Q

Craniosynostosis may be defined as which one of the following?
A) wide cranial sutures
B) overlapping cranial sutures
C) profusion of the meninges outside the sutures
D) premature closure of the cranial sutures

A

D) premature closure of the cranial sutures

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5
Q

Which one of the following is the result from a malformation of the lymphatic system?
A) teratoma
B) goiter
C) cystic hygroma
D) brachial cleft cyst

A

C) cystic hygroma

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6
Q

Which one of the following statements about the facial profile is incorrect?

A) the facial profile appears as a curvilinear surface with a differentiation of the forehead, nose, lips, and chin
B) the facial profile demonstrates a cloverleaf skull shape
C) the facial profile has frontal bossing, which is described as a lemon-shaped skull or an absent depressed nasal bridge
D) the facial profile has a strawberry-shaped cranium, which is described as a bulging of the occipital bones

A

D) the facial profile has a strawberry-shaped cranium, which is described as a bulging of the occipital bones

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7
Q

Evaluation of the nasal triad should include all of the following except:
A) nostril symmetry
B) nostril length
C) nasal septum integrity
D) continuity of the upper lip to exclude cleft lip and palate

A

B) nostril length

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8
Q

Which one of the following statements about cleft lip and palate is false?
A) a medial cleft lip is caused by an incomplete merging of the two medial nasal prominences in the midline
B) an oblique facial cleft is the failure of the maxillary prominence to merge with the lateral nasal swelling; the nasolacrimal duct is exposed
C) a complete bilateral cleft lip and palate is a small gap in the left upper lip on the modified coronal view; the nose is flattened and widened
D) a unilateral complete cleft lip and palate is an incomplete fusion of the maxillary prominence to the medial prominence on one side; the modified coronal view is used

A

C) a complete bilateral cleft lip and palate is a small gap in the left upper lip on the modified coronal view; the nose is flattened and widened

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9
Q

Which one of the following statements about an epignathus is false?
A) an epignathus is a teratoma located in the oropharynx
B) the mass may be highly complex and contain solid, cystic, or calcified components.
C) swallowing is not impaired in fetuses with epignathus
D) a small stomach may be present

A

C) swallowing is not impaired in fetuses with epignathus

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10
Q

The most common neck mass is which one of the following?
A) cystic hygroma colli
B) cervical meningomyelocele
C) hemangioma
D) goiter

A

A) cystic hygroma colli

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11
Q

What percentage of cystic hygromas is associated with chromosomal anomalies?
A) 15
B) 25
C) 30
D) 50

A

D) 50

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12
Q

The bridge of the nose originates from the _____ prominence.
A) frontal
B) medial nasal
C) maxillary
D) optic

A

A) frontal

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13
Q

Proboscis suggests which one of the following abnormalities?
A) Trisomy 18
B) cephalocele
C) holoprosencephaly
D) Pierre Robin syndrome

A

C) holoprosencephaly

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14
Q

The optimal gestational age for measuring the nuchal translucency is _____ weeks.
A) 10 to 12
B) 11 to 13
C) 14 to 16
D) 18 to 20

A

B) 11 to 13

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15
Q

The most common congenital anomaly of the face is which one of the following?
A) macroglossia
B) micrognathia
C) hypotelorism
D) cleft lip

A

D) cleft lip

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16
Q

Differential considerations for cystic hygroma include all of the following except:
A) goiter
B) nuchal edema
C) brachial cleft cyst
D) thyroglossal duct cyst

A

A) goiter

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17
Q

Which one of the following terms describes a small chin?
A) microglossia
B) micrognathia
C) microphthalmia
D) microrhinia

A

B) micrognathia

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18
Q

Which one of the following statements about facial anomalies is correct?
A) fetal facial anomalies are homogeneous
B) hemangiomas do not occur in the face and neck.
C) facial anomalies occur as isolated defects or as part of a syndrome
D) doppler evaluation of facial masses is discouraged because of possible bioeffects to the fetus

A

C) facial anomalies occur as isolated defects or as part of a syndrome

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19
Q

An elongated forehead in the sagittal plane and triangular in shape in the axial plane describes which one of the following abnormalities?
A) trigonocephaly
B) otocephaly
C) strabismus
D) microcephaly

A

A) trigonocephaly

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20
Q

Ear malformation may be observed in which one of the following?
A) Pierre Robin syndrome
B) Goldstein syndrome
C) Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
D) Goldenhar syndrome

A

D) Goldenhar syndrome

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21
Q

Cleft lip with or without cleft palate is seen more frequently in which one of the following groups?
A) Caucasians
B) African Americans
C) Asians
D) Native Americans

A

D) Native Americans

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22
Q

Which one of the following statements about a fetal goiter is incorrect?
A) a fetal goiter appears symmetric.
B) a fetal goiter appears heterogeneous
C) mass arises from the anterior neck
D) afetal goiter is associated with maternal thyroid disease

A

B) a fetal goiter appears heterogeneous

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23
Q

Congenital anomalies of the face occur in 1 in _____ births.
A) 2000
B) 1500
C) 600
D) 1200

A

C) 600

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24
Q

An isolated unilateral cleft lip defect commonly originates:
A) in the midline
B) on the left side of the face
C) on the right side of the face
D) in the mouth

A

B) on the left side of the face

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25
Q

Which one of the following statements about neck teratomas is incorrect?
A) teratomas are usually unilateral
B) a teratoma may demonstrate a complex appearance
C) they are usually located posteriorly
D) color Doppler may be helpful in diagnosis

A

C) they are usually located posteriorly

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26
Q

Which one of the following anomalies demonstrates the ultrasound characteristics of trisomy 18?
A) Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita
B) Jeune syndrome
C) Multiple pterygium syndrome
D) Pena-Shokier syndrome

A

D) Pena-Shokier syndrome

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27
Q

Which one of the following anomalies is associated with micromelia and a “hitchhiker thumb”?
A) Diastrophic dysplasia
B) Ellis-van Creveld syndrome
C) Roberts syndrome
D) Tar syndrome

A

A) Diastrophic dysplasia

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28
Q

Which one of the following terms describes a shortening of the proximal portion of the extremity?
A) Hemimelia
B) Mesomelia
C) Micromelia
D) Rhizomelia

A

D) Rhizomelia

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29
Q

All of the following are characteristics of thanatophoric dysplasia EXCEPT:
A) Cloverleaf skull
B) Microcephaly
C) Extreme micromelia
D) Short ribs

A

B) Microcephaly

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30
Q

Which one of the following anomalies is associated with the Amish community?
A) Congenital hypophosphatasia
B) Ellis-van Creveld syndrome
C) Holt-Oram syndrome
D) Roberts syndrome

A

B) Ellis-van Creveld syndrome

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31
Q

Which one of the following diagnoses is most likely when multiple fractures and a compressible calvarium are identified?
A) Achondrogenesis
B) Achondroplasia
C) Osteogenesis imperfecta
D) Thanatophoric dysplasia

A

C) Osteogenesis imperfecta

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32
Q

Which one of the following anomalies is associated with a cloverleaf skull?
A) Achondroplasia
B) Congenital hypophosphatasia
C) Osteogenesis imperfecta
D) Thanatophoric dysplasia

A

D) Thanatophoric dysplasia

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33
Q

Which one of the following nonlethal skeletal dysplasias is most common?
A) Achondroplasia
B) Achondrogenesis
C) Diastrophic dysplasia
D) Short-rib polydactyly syndrome

A

A) Achondroplasia

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34
Q

Which one of the following anomalies is caused by an alkaline phosphatase deficiency?
A) Achondrogenesis
B) Congenital hypophosphatasia
C) Diastrophic dysplasia
D) Thanatophoric dysplasia

A

B) Congenital hypophosphatasia

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35
Q

A congenital condition characterized by a disorder of collagen production is which one of the following?
A) Achondroplasia
B) Osteogenesis imperfecta
C) Achondrogenesis
D) Thanatophoric dysplasias

A

B) Osteogenesis imperfecta

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36
Q

Sonographic findings of severe micromelia, decreased or absent ossification of the spine, macrocephaly, and micrognathia describe which one of the following?
A) Osteogenesis imperfecta
B) Achrondoplasia
C) Achondrogenesis
D) Diastrophic dysplasia

A

C) Achondrogenesis

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37
Q

A group of lethal skeletal dysplasias characterized by bowing of the long bones is which one of the following abnormalities?
A) Diastrophic dysplasias
B) Congenital hypophosphatasia
C) Camptomelic dysplasia
D) Postural anomalies

A

C) Camptomelic dysplasia

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38
Q

Sonographic features of a small thorax, rhizomelia, renal dysplasia, and polydactyly are associated with which one of the following conditions?
A) Jeune syndrome
B) Short-rib polydactyly
C) Ellis-von Creveld syndrome
D) Roberts syndrome

A

A) Jeune syndrome

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39
Q

A diagnosis of talipes may be made with which one of the following characteristics?
A) Persistent inversion of the foot
B) Persistent abnormal inversion of the foot parallel to the lower leg
C) Persistent abnormal inversion of the foot perpendicular to the lower leg
D) Persistent abnormal inversion of the lower leg

A

C) Persistent abnormal inversion of the foot perpendicular to the lower leg

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40
Q

Fusion of the lower extremities is associated with which one of the following?
A) Sirenomelia
B) Hypophosphatasia
C) Osteogenesis imperfecta
D) Thanatophoric dysplasia

A

A) Sirenomelia

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41
Q

The sonographic features of achondroplasia may not be evident until after ______ weeks’ gestation

A

22

42
Q

The most common lethal skeletal dysplasia is which one of the following conditions?
A) Osteogenesis imperfecta
B) Thanatophoric dysplasia
C) Achondroplasia
D) Craniosynostosis

A

B) Thantophoric dysplasia

43
Q

Which one of the following statements about achondroplasia is INCORRECT?
A) Advanced maternal age is a risk factor
B) Patients with heterozygous achondroplasia have a poor survival rate
C) Achondroplasia is most commonly the result of a spontaneous mutation
D) Achondroplasia results from decreased endochondral bone formation

A

B) Patients with heterozygous achondroplasia have a poor survival rate

44
Q

Type ____ classification of osteogenesis imperfecta is considered the most severe

A

II

45
Q

A rare condition characterized by phocomelia and facial anomalies is which one of the following syndromes?
A) Roberts
B) Jeune
C) Ellis-van Creveld
D) Pena-Shokeir

A

A) Roberts

46
Q

The majority of talipes is ___________

A

Idiopathic

47
Q

Abnormal growth and density of cartilage and bone is described as which one of the following?
A) Skeletal anomalies
B) Skeletal dysplasia
C) Achondroplasia
D) Osteogenesis imperfecta

A

B) Skeletal dysplasia

48
Q

Which one of the following conditions is caused by cartilage abnormalities that result in abnormal bone formation and hypomineralization?
A) Osteogenesis imperfecta
B) Thanatophoric dysplasia
C) Hypophosphatasia
D) Achondrogenesis

A

D) Achondrogenesis

49
Q

A lethal skeletal dysplasia characterized by short ribs, short limbs, and polydactyly is which one of the following?
A) Hypophosphatasia
B) Arthrogryposis multiplex congenital
C) Short-rib polydactyly
D) Camptomelic dysplasia

A

C) Short-rib polydactyly

50
Q

Webbing across the joint and multiple contractures are sonographic findings of which one of the following abnormalities?
A) Roberts syndrome
B) Jeune syndrome
C) Arthrogryposis multiplex congenital
D) Lethal multiple pterygium syndrome

A

D) Lethal multiple pterygium syndrome

51
Q

Which one of the following neural tube defects is characterized by a lack of development of the cerebral and cerebellar hemispheres and cranial vault and is an abnormality that is incompatible with life?
A) Acrania
B) Cephalocele
C) Dandy-Walker malformation
D) Anencephaly

A

D) Anencephaly

52
Q

Which one of the following central nervous anomalies demonstrates splaying of the cerebellar hemispheres on ultrasound?
A) Hydranencephaly
B) Cephalocele
C) Vein of Galen malformation
D) Dandy-Walker malformation

A

D) Dandy-Walker malformation

53
Q

A condition in which a complete or partial absence of the cranial bones is demonstrated in which one of the following?
A) Cebocephaly
B) Acrania
C) Holoprosencephaly
D) Hydranencephaly

A

B) Acrania

54
Q

Anomalies associated with anencephaly include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Cleft lip
B) Holoprosencephaly
C) Polyhydramnios
D) Spinda bifida

A

B) Holoprosencephaly

55
Q

Which one of the following is the most severe form of holoprosencephaly, which is characterized by a single common ventricle and malformed brain? Orbital anomalies range from fused orbits to hypotelorism, with frequent nasal anomalies and clefting of the lip and palate.
A) Alobar
B) Cephalocele
C) Anencephaly
D) Acrania

A

A) Alobar

56
Q

Which one of the following anomalies may be characterized by the presence of colpocephaly?
A) Agenesis of the corpus callosum
B) Arnold-Chiari malformation
C) Dandy-Walker malformation
D) Holoprosencephaly

A

A) Agenesis of the corpus callosum

57
Q

The absence of the cavum septi pellucidi is a distinguishing characteristic of which one of the following fetal anomalies?
A) Craniostenosis
B) Schizencephaly
C) Dandy-Walker malformation
D) Agenesis of corpus the callosum

A

D) Agenesis of corpus the callosum

58
Q

Which one of the following defects is associated with Meckel-Gruber syndrome?
A) Anencephaly
B) Arachnoid cyst
C) Encephalocele
D) Hydranencephaly

A

C) Encephalocele

59
Q

Facial anomalies in holoprosencephaly may represent all of the following EXCEPT?
A) Hypotelorism
B) Cyclopia
C) Hypertelorism
D) Flattened nose with single nostril

A

C) Hypertelorism

60
Q

Which of the following signs are characteristic of the Arnold-Chiari malformation?
A) Banana and lemon shaped
B) Strawberry and banana shaped
C) Lemon and strawberry shaped
D) Cloverleaf and banana shaped

A

A) Banana and lemon shaped

61
Q

Which one of the following anomalies is characterized by the presence of a posterior fossa cyst and a splaying of the cerebellar hemispheres?
A) Agenesis of the corpus callosum
B) Arachnoid cyst
C) Dandy-Walker malformation
D) Encephalocele

A

C) Dandy-Walker malformation

62
Q

Which one of the following abnormalities is described as the congenital absence of the cerebral hemispheres resulting from an occlusion of the carotid arteries? The midbrain structures are present and fluid replaces cerebral tissue.
A) Hydranecephaly
B) Hydrocephalus
C) Agenesis of the corpus callosum
D) Holoprosencephaly

A

A) Hydranecephaly

63
Q

Ventriculomegaly is defined as lateral ventricular enlargement measuring greater than ___ mm.
A) 5
B) 7
C) 10
D) 13

A

C) 10

64
Q

An open spinal defect characterized by a protrusion of meninges and spinal cord through the defect, usually within a meningeal sac, is called which one of the following?
A) Meningocele
B) Spina bifida occulta
C) Meningomyelocele
D) Arnold-Chiari syndrome

A

C) Meningomyelocele

65
Q

Conditions commonly associated with fetal hydrocephalus include all of the following EXCEPT?
A) Choroid plexus cyst
B) Dandy-Walker malformation
C) Meningomyelocele
D) Agenesis of the corpus callosum

A

A) Choroid plexus cyst

66
Q

Ventriculomegaly coupled with an enlargement of the fetal head is called which one of the following?
A) Hydrocephalus
B) Hydranencephaly
C) Hydronephrosis
D) Dandy-Walker malformation

A

A) Hydrocephalus

67
Q

Which one of the following abnormalities is the most common open neural tube defect?
A) Anencephaly
B) Acrania
C) Encephalocele
D) Cephalocele

A

A) Anencephaly

68
Q

Which one of the following fetal head anomalies is characterized by the presence of a single primitive ventricle?
A) Arachnoid cyst
B) Dandy-Walker malformation
C) Holoprosencephaly
D) Schizencephaly

A

C) Holoprosencephaly

69
Q

A vein of Galen malformation is which one of the following abnormalities?
A) An aneurysm of the Galen vein
B) A rare arteriovenous malformation
C) A sporadic event
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

70
Q

A form of holoprosencephaly characterized by a common ventricle, hypotelorism, and a nose with a single nostril is which one of the following?
A) Lissencephaly
B) Cebocephaly
C) Ethmocephaly
D) Porencephaly

A

B) Cebocephaly

71
Q

Which one of the following statements about anencephaly is incorrect?
A) The incidence of anencephaly varies with geographic location.
B) Anencephaly is a lethal disorder
C) Anencephaly has a male prevalence.
D) Anencephaly is caused by the failure of closure of the neural tube at the cranial end.

A

C) Anencephaly has a male prevalence.

72
Q

Which one of the following statements about microcephaly is incorrect?
A) Microcephaly is an abnormally large head.
B) The prognosis for fetuses with microcephaly is always poor.
C) Microcephaly does not affect the head circumference.
D)Microcephaly may manifest later in pregnancy.

A

A) Microcephaly is an abnormally large head.

73
Q

The differential considerations of anencephaly include all of the following EXCEPT?
A) Arachnoid cyst
B) Microcephaly
C) Acrania
D) Cephalocele

A

A) Arachnoid cyst

74
Q

Which one of the following terms is used to describe the herniation of the meninges and brain through a calvarium defect?
A) Dandy-Walker malformation
B) Encephalocele
C) Cranial meningocele
D) Cebocephaly

A

B) Encephalocele

75
Q

Differential considerations of Dandy-Walker malformation should include which one of the following?
A) Ventriculomegaly
B) Arachnoid cyst
C) Cystic hygroma
D) Nuchal edema

A

B) Arachnoid cyst

76
Q
  1. Which one of the following abnormalities refers to a fetus with a significantly narrow diameter of the chest?
    a. Bronchopulmonary sequestration
    b. Asphyxiating thoracic dystrophy
    c. congenital bronchial atresia
    d. lymphangiectasia
A

B

77
Q
  1. The most important determinant for fetal viability is which one of the following?
    a. pulmonary hypoplasia
    b. bronchopulomanry sequestration
    c. pulmonary development
    d. bronchial atresia
A

C

78
Q
  1. Sonographic evaluation of the normal fetal thorax should include all of the following except:
    a. size
    b. shape
    c. chest circumference/abdominal circumference ration
    d. symmetry
A

B

79
Q
  1. Chest circumference measurements are made in the transverse plane at the level of which one of the following?
    a. diaphragm
    b. four chamber view of heart
    c. short axis of heart
    d. mediastinum
A

B

80
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements about fetal breathing is false?
    a. fetal breathing is most prominent in the second and third trimesters
    b. the mature fetus spends one third of its time breathing
    c. breathing is present if the fetal test or abdomen makes seesaw movements for 20 seconsd
    d. breathing is absent if no fetal activity is noted during a 2 minute period
A

D

81
Q
  1. The average cardiac axis is ____ degrees.
    a. 23
    b. 30
    c. 45
    d. 50
A

C

82
Q
  1. Coming abnormalities associated with pulmonary hypoplasia include all of the following except:
    a. renal agenesis
    b. premature rupture of membranes (PROM)
    c. macrosomnia
    d. posterior urethral valve syndrome
A

C

83
Q
  1. Sonographic finding in cystic adenomdatoid malformation include all of the following except:
    a. cystic adenomdatoid malformation may occur below diaphragm
    b. cystic adenomatoid malformation may be echogenic mass in type II cystic adenomdatoid malformation
    c. cystic adenomdatoid malformation may be a large cyst is type I cystic adenomdatoid malformation
    d. cystic adenomdatoid malformation is associated with polyhydramnios
A

A

84
Q
  1. Diaphragmatic hernias may occur anteriorly and medially in the diaphragm through the foramen of _____.
    a. luschka
    b. bochdalek
    c. morgangni
    d. mono
A

C

85
Q
  1. Which one of the following lung cysts detected penalty is the most common?
    a. cystic adenomdatoid malformation
    b. bronchogenic cyst
    c. pleural effusion
    d. lymphangiectasia
A

B

86
Q
  1. The severity of pulmonary hypoplasia depends on which one of the following?
    a. when it occurs during pregnancy
    b. fetal breathing movements
    c. amniotic fluid volume
    d. systolic/diastolic ratio of the umbilical artery
A

A

87
Q
  1. The supernumerary lobe of the lung is called which one of the following?
    a. pulmonary hypoplasia
    b. succenturiate lobe
    c. anomalous lobe
    d. pulmonary sequestration
A

D

88
Q
  1. Normal sonographic appearances of the fetal chest include all of the following except:
    a. ribs form the lateral margin of the chest
    b. clavicles form the upper margin of the chest
    c. lungs serve as the medial borders of the heart
    d. thoracic cavity is symmetric and bell shaped
A

C

89
Q
  1. The normal fetal lungs appear on ultrasound as which one of the following?
    a. heterogenous with moderate echogencity
    b. homogeneous and hyperechoic
    c. heterogenous and hypoechoic
    d. homogenous with moderate echogencity
A

D

90
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements about the fetal thorax is false?
    a. the majority of the heart is positioned in the midline left chest
    b. the apex of the heart should be directed toward the spleen
    c. the central portion of the thorax is occupied by the heart
    d. the base of the heart lies horizontal to the diaphragm
A

c

91
Q
  1. When fetal plural effusion is encountered, a careful search of the ____ should be attempted.
    a. urinary bladder
    b. diaphram
    c. long bones
    d. facial profile
A

B

92
Q
  1. Sonographic findings in sequestration include all of the following except:
    a. appears as an echogenic mass that resembles lung tissue
    b. is seen with normal intra-abdominal anatomy
    c. commonly occurs below the diaphragm
    d. is associated with hydrops
A

C

93
Q
  1. Congenital bronchial atresia is found most commonly in the ___ lobe.
    a. left lower
    b. left upper
    c. right lower
    d. right upper
A

B

94
Q
  1. The most common type of diaphragmatic defect occurs:
    a. posteriorly and laterally
    b. posteriorly and medially
    c. anteriorly and laterally
    d. anteriorly and medially
A

A

95
Q
  1. Herniation through the foramen of Bochdalek is usually found on which one of the following portions of the diaphragm?
    a. anterior
    b. right
    c. medial
    d. left
A

C

96
Q
  1. Abnormalities within the thoracic cavity include all of the following except:
    a. pleural effusion
    b. pulmonary sequestration
    c. brachial cleft cyst
    d. cystic adenomatoid malformation
A

C

97
Q
  1. Which one of the following does not describe sonographic features of a right sided diaphragmatic hernia?
    a. the liver is seen in chest
    b. a collapsed bowel may be present
    c. the stomach lies superior to the diagram
    d. the heart is deviated far to the left
A

C

98
Q
  1. The mortality rate at birth for the fetus with a diaphragmatic hernia is ____.
    a. low
    b. mild
    c. moderate
    d. high
A

D

99
Q
  1. Diaphragmatic hernia is frequently associated with all of the following except:
    a. facial cleft
    b. talipes
    c. cardiac defect
    d. vertebral defect
A

B

100
Q
  1. The presence of a pleural effusion may cause which one of the following to occur?
    a. enlargement of the heart
    b. enhancement of the diaphragm
    c. a shift of mediastinal structures
    d. bronchogenic cyst
A

C

Ob/gyn (11 decks)

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