Ch 55 Nursing Care of Patients with Burns PPT Flashcards

1
Q

What is a burn?

A

A wound caused by energy transfer from a heat source to the body, leading to tissue damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What factors influence the amount of skin damage in a burn?

A

Temperature of the burning agent, duration of exposure, conductivity of tissue, thickness of involved dermal structures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What percentage of body involvement is considered a major burn?

A

Burns covering 45% or more of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

List the major causes of burns.

A

Flame, contact, scald, chemical, electrical, radiation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What type of burn is commonly associated with inhalation injury?

A

Flame burns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why are electrical burns particularly severe?

A

They can cause internal injuries, possible limb loss, and cardiac issues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the “Palmar method” for burn assessment?

A

A quick estimation where the patient’s palm (including fingers) represents 1% of body surface area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the “Rule of Nines”?

A

A method that divides the body into multiples of 9% for estimating burn extent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the Lund and Browder method?

A

A more exact way to calculate burn percentages by anatomic regions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe a superficial (first-degree) burn.

A

Affects only the epidermis, is pink/red, has no blisters, and heals in 3-6 days. Example: sunburn.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe a superficial partial-thickness (first-to-second degree) burn.

A

Damage to epidermis + part of dermis, pink/red, blisters, heals in 2-3 weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe a deep partial-thickness (second-degree) burn.

A

Damage to entire epidermis + deeper dermis, red/white, rare blisters, may need grafting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe a full-thickness (third-degree) burn.

A

Damage through epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue, red/black/brown/yellow/white, no sensation, requires grafting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe a deep full-thickness (fourth-degree) burn.

A

Damage extends to muscles, tendons, and bones, black, no pain, requires months to heal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What systemic response occurs due to fluid imbalance in burns?

A

Increased capillary permeability → fluid loss, edema, hypovolemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why does hypovolemic shock occur in burn patients?

A

Due to plasma loss, decreased cardiac output, and fluid shifts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does thermoregulation change in burn patients?

A

Heat loss leads to hypothermia; sweat glands may be destroyed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why do burn patients have high metabolic demands?

A

The body requires extra energy for healing, preventing weight loss, and managing hyperglycemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are common GI complications in burn patients?

A

Gastric dilation, peptic ulcers, paralytic ileus from stress, opioids, and dehydration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why is renal function at risk in burn patients?

A

Hypovolemia can lead to acute kidney injury. Myoglobin casts from muscle destruction can cause renal failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do burns affect pulmonary function?

A

Smoke inhalation can lead to hyperventilation, increased oxygen consumption, and airway obstruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do burns affect the immune system?

A

Depressed IgA, IgG, and IgM levels increase infection risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are signs of inhalation injury?

A

Singed eyebrows, sooty sputum, hoarseness, wheezing, stridor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the most critical initial treatment for inhalation injury?

A

Airway management (ABCs) takes precedence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are major complications of burns?

A

Inhalation injury, infection, sepsis, shock, compartment syndrome, PTSD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What age-related factors affect burn recovery in elderly patients?

A

Thinner skin, comorbidities (diabetes, hypertension), vision/hearing impairments, mobility issues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What diagnostic tests are done for burns?

A

CBC, BUN, electrolytes, serum glucose, ABGs, bronchoscopy, wound cultures, clotting studies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the three stages of burn care?

A

Emergent, Acute, Rehabilitation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the goal of the emergent stage of burn care?

A

Fluid resuscitation, airway stabilization, pain control, prevent shock.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the Parkland formula for fluid resuscitation?

A

4 mL LR × weight (kg) × % burned.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How should the Parkland formula fluids be administered?

A

½ in first 8 hours, remainder over 16 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the goal of the acute stage of burn care?

A

Wound closure, infection prevention, pain control, fluid balance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is an escharotomy?

A

Incision through eschar to relieve pressure and restore blood flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is a fasciotomy?

A

Deeper incision through fascia if escharotomy is insufficient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are common topical burn treatments?

A

Silvadene, silver nitrate, bacitracin, mafenide acetate, gentamicin, Bactroban, Neosporin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are biological dressings?

A

Cadaver skin or pigskin used for temporary wound coverage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is an autograft?

A

Patient’s own skin used for grafting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the difference between split-thickness and full-thickness skin grafts?

A

Split-thickness includes epidermis + partial dermis, full-thickness includes epidermis + full dermis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the goal of the rehabilitation stage?

A

Restore function, prevent contractures, psychological support.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Why is contracture prevention important in burn recovery?

A

Flexion contractures can limit mobility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are key health promotion strategies for burn prevention?

A

Fire safety, water heater below 120°F, proper use of electrical devices, no smoking in bed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are critical nursing interventions for impaired gas exchange in burn patients?

A

Monitor respiratory status, ABGs, SpO2, suctioning, incentive spirometer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How should burn wounds be initially treated?

A

Cool with tepid water, cover with clean sheets, remove clothing/jewelry, no ice application.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the priority when treating burn patients?

A

Airway, Breathing, Circulation (ABCs).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the primary function of the skin?

A

Protection, temperature regulation, sensation, fluid balance, and secretion/excretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How does a burn injury impact the skin’s function?

A

Loss of thermoregulation, increased infection risk, fluid loss, impaired sensation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the three zones of a burn injury?

A

Zone of coagulation, zone of stasis, zone of hyperemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What happens in the zone of coagulation?

A

Tissue is completely destroyed, irreversible damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What happens in the zone of stasis?

A

Decreased perfusion, can become necrotic without proper treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What happens in the zone of hyperemia?

A

Inflamed but viable tissue, full recovery possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the leading cause of death in burn patients?

A

Inhalation injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Why does a full-thickness burn often lack pain?

A

Nerve endings are destroyed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are signs of carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

Cherry-red skin, confusion, headache, dizziness, unconsciousness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How is carbon monoxide poisoning treated?

A

100% oxygen therapy or hyperbaric oxygen chamber.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the most immediate concern for patients with facial burns?

A

Airway compromise due to swelling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Why do burn patients develop hypovolemia?

A

Plasma leaks into interstitial spaces due to capillary permeability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What electrolyte imbalances occur in the emergent phase of burns?

A

Hyperkalemia (initially), then hypokalemia, hyponatremia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What type of IV fluid is preferred for burn resuscitation?

A

Lactated Ringer’s solution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the “Rule of Palms”?

A

The patient’s palm (with fingers) represents about 1% of total body surface area (TBSA).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What does the Wallace Rule of Nines assess?

A

Percentage of total body surface area (TBSA) affected by burns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Why are older adults at higher risk for complications from burns?

A

Thinner skin, decreased immune function, comorbidities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are early signs of burn wound infection?

A

Increased pain, redness, swelling, foul odor, fever.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is a hypertrophic scar?

A

Thick, raised scar that remains within the burn area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is a keloid scar?

A

Excessive scar tissue that extends beyond the burn wound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is an eschar?

A

Hard, inelastic dead tissue covering a burn wound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the function of an escharotomy?

A

Relieve pressure and restore circulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Why might a fasciotomy be needed in burn patients?

A

If escharotomy is not sufficient to relieve pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are early signs of compartment syndrome?

A

Severe pain, decreased pulses, numbness, swelling, tight skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the primary goal of wound debridement?

A

Remove dead tissue to promote healing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the types of wound debridement?

A

Mechanical, enzymatic, surgical, autolytic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the advantage of enzymatic debridement?

A

Uses topical agents to break down dead tissue without harming healthy tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Why are burns considered an immunosuppressive condition?

A

Loss of skin barrier, decreased WBC function, increased risk of infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What PPE should be worn when treating burn wounds?

A

Sterile gloves, gown, mask, eye protection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Why is early enteral feeding important in burn patients?

A

Prevents catabolism, maintains gut integrity, reduces infection risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What type of diet is needed for burn patients?

A

High-protein, high-calorie diet to support healing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Why is glucose monitoring necessary in burn patients?

A

Burn stress increases catecholamines and glucagon, leading to hyperglycemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is a major psychological impact of burns?

A

PTSD, depression, body image issues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What interventions help prevent contractures in burn patients?

A

Splinting, ROM exercises, early mobilization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Why is skin grafting performed?

A

To promote wound healing and reduce scarring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the difference between an autograft and an allograft?

A

Autograft: patient’s own skin; Allograft: donor skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is a xenograft?

A

Skin graft from another species (e.g., pig).

82
Q

What is the most effective pain management method for burn patients?

A

IV opioids (e.g., morphine, fentanyl).

83
Q

Why are IM injections avoided in burn patients?

A

Impaired absorption due to altered circulation.

84
Q

What are common complications of the acute phase of burn recovery?

A

Infection, sepsis, pneumonia, ileus, renal failure.

85
Q

Why do burn patients require deep vein thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis?

A

Immobilization increases risk of blood clots.

86
Q

What is the role of pressure garments in burn recovery?

A

Prevents hypertrophic scarring, improves cosmetic outcome.

87
Q

How often should burn wounds be assessed?

A

At least once per shift or as needed.

88
Q

What are signs of sepsis in burn patients?

A

Fever, hypotension, tachycardia, altered mental status.

89
Q

What are common sources of infection in burn patients?

A

Wound infections, pneumonia, urinary tract infections.

90
Q

What is a key indicator of adequate fluid resuscitation in burn patients?

A

Urine output of at least 0.5 mL/kg/hr.

91
Q

How are burns diagnosed?

A

Physical assessment, lab tests, imaging for inhalation injury.

92
Q

What lab values are monitored in burn patients?

A

CBC, electrolytes, BUN, creatinine, glucose, ABGs.

93
Q

Why should burn patients avoid sun exposure?

A

Sun can worsen scarring and increase skin sensitivity.

94
Q

What are signs of hypovolemic shock in burn patients?

A

Low BP, tachycardia, cold/clammy skin, decreased urine output.

95
Q

Why are tetanus vaccinations given to burn patients?

A

Burns increase risk of tetanus infection.

96
Q

How can burns be prevented in the home?

A

Fire alarms, childproof outlets, safe water heater settings, avoid smoking in bed.

97
Q

What is the recommended maximum water heater temperature?

A

120°F (49°C).

98
Q

What is the primary goal of burn rehabilitation?

A

Restore function, improve quality of life, prevent complications.

99
Q

What is the most common cause of burns in children?

A

Scald burns from hot liquids.

100
Q

What is the most common cause of burns in adults?

A

Flame burns from house fires or accidents.

101
Q

Why are chemical burns dangerous?

A

They can continue to cause damage until fully neutralized.

102
Q

How should a chemical burn be treated?

A

Remove contaminated clothing and flush with copious amounts of water.

103
Q

Why are electrical burns particularly dangerous?

A

Internal injuries may be more severe than external damage.

104
Q

What complications are common with electrical burns?

A

Cardiac arrhythmias, muscle damage, renal failure.

105
Q

What is a radiation burn?

A

Burns caused by exposure to UV rays or radiation therapy.

106
Q

What are the two phases of burn shock?

A

Emergent (fluid loss) and diuretic (fluid mobilization).

107
Q

Why does hyperkalemia occur early in burn injuries?

A

Cell destruction releases potassium into circulation.

108
Q

Why does hypokalemia occur later in burn recovery?

A

Potassium is lost through urine and wounds.

109
Q

Why is sodium balance disrupted in burns?

A

Fluid shifts cause hyponatremia in the emergent phase.

110
Q

What happens to hematocrit levels in burn patients?

A

Initially elevated due to plasma loss, then decreases with fluid resuscitation.

111
Q

What is the leading cause of death in burn patients after the emergent phase?

A

Infection/sepsis.

112
Q

What does a positive wound culture indicate?

A

Possible infection that requires treatment.

113
Q

Why do burn patients have increased glucose levels?

A

Stress response leads to increased cortisol and catecholamine release.

114
Q

What are the three types of inhalation injuries?

A

Carbon monoxide poisoning, upper airway injury, lower airway injury.

115
Q

Why is early intubation recommended for severe facial burns?

A

Airway edema can progress rapidly and obstruct breathing.

116
Q

Why should burn patients receive stress ulcer prophylaxis?

A

Burn stress increases risk of Curling’s ulcers.

117
Q

What medications are used for stress ulcer prophylaxis in burn patients?

A

Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) or H2 blockers.

118
Q

What is the primary goal of fluid resuscitation?

A

Maintain organ perfusion and prevent hypovolemic shock.

119
Q

What vital sign changes indicate inadequate fluid resuscitation?

A

Tachycardia, hypotension, low urine output.

120
Q

How can compartment syndrome occur in burn patients?

A

Increased edema in a circumferential burn restricts circulation.

121
Q

What is the most common type of skin graft?

A

Split-thickness skin graft (STSG).

122
Q

What are the advantages of full-thickness skin grafts?

A

Better cosmetic result, more durable, less contraction.

123
Q

What are indications for an escharotomy?

A

Tight, constricting eschar impeding circulation or breathing.

124
Q

What is the purpose of a fasciotomy?

A

To release deep pressure when escharotomy is insufficient.

125
Q

What is the purpose of silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)?

A

Broad-spectrum antimicrobial cream for burn wounds.

126
Q

Why is bacitracin used for facial burns?

A

Non-staining, non-irritating antimicrobial with good healing properties.

127
Q

What is mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) used for?

A

Effective against Pseudomonas but can cause metabolic acidosis.

128
Q

What type of isolation is required for burn patients?

A

Protective isolation to prevent infection.

129
Q

Why is early mobility encouraged for burn patients?

A

Prevents contractures, reduces risk of pneumonia and DVT.

130
Q

What are signs of inhalation injury?

A

Hoarseness, wheezing, singed nasal hair, soot in sputum.

131
Q

What is the first step in burn wound care?

A

Cleansing the wound with mild soap and water.

132
Q

What is mechanical debridement?

A

Removal of dead tissue using forceps, scissors, or scrubbing.

133
Q

What is enzymatic debridement?

A

Uses topical enzymes to break down necrotic tissue.

134
Q

What is surgical debridement?

A

Excision of necrotic tissue to prepare for grafting.

135
Q

What is autolytic debridement?

A

Uses the body’s own enzymes and moisture to dissolve dead tissue.

136
Q

Why are pressure dressings used in burn care?

A

To prevent hypertrophic scarring and contractures.

137
Q

Why is pain management a priority in burn care?

A

Burn injuries and procedures are extremely painful.

138
Q

What are the preferred pain medications for burn patients?

A

IV opioids such as morphine or fentanyl.

139
Q

Why is IV pain management preferred over oral in acute burns?

A

GI function may be impaired, and IV provides faster relief.

140
Q

What non-pharmacologic pain relief methods are helpful in burn patients?

A

Distraction, relaxation techniques, music therapy.

141
Q

What is the most comfortable position for burn patients?

A

The position of contracture (flexion), but it should be avoided.

142
Q

How can contractures be prevented in burn patients?

A

Stretching, splints, and positioning.

143
Q

Why is early enteral nutrition recommended in burn patients?

A

Maintains gut integrity and reduces risk of infection.

144
Q

What are common nutritional deficits in burn patients?

A

Protein, calories, vitamins (C, D, E), zinc.

145
Q

Why is vitamin C important in burn healing?

A

Promotes collagen synthesis and tissue repair.

146
Q

What are common psychological effects of burns?

A

Depression, PTSD, body image issues.

147
Q

How can family members support burn patients?

A

Encouragement, active involvement in care, emotional support.

148
Q

What is the most effective way to prevent burns?

A

Education on fire and burn safety measures.

149
Q

Why should burn patients avoid direct sunlight?

A

Newly healed skin is more sensitive and prone to damage.

150
Q

Why is it important to keep a burn wound moist?

A

Prevents drying and promotes healing.

151
Q

How often should burn dressings be changed?

A

Usually once or twice a day, depending on wound status.

152
Q

Why should loose-fitting clothing be worn over burn wounds?

A

Prevents irritation and allows for air circulation.

153
Q

Why is an NG tube used in severe burn patients?

A

To prevent gastric dilation and provide early nutrition.

154
Q

What are signs of respiratory distress in burn patients?

A

Increased respiratory rate, use of accessory muscles, retractions.

155
Q

How long does the rehabilitation phase of burn care last?

A

Months to years, depending on severity.

156
Q

What is the goal of burn rehabilitation?

A

Maximize function and quality of life.

157
Q

What are the three layers of the skin?

A

Epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue.

158
Q

What is the main function of the epidermis?

A

Protects against infection and water loss.

159
Q

What is the role of the dermis?

A

Contains blood vessels, nerves, and connective tissue.

160
Q

What is the purpose of the subcutaneous tissue?

A

Insulation and cushioning.

161
Q

Why is burn depth assessment important?

A

Determines treatment and healing potential.

162
Q

What is the difference between first-degree and second-degree burns?

A

First-degree affects only the epidermis; second-degree extends into the dermis.

163
Q

What are the signs of a third-degree burn?

A

No pain, leathery texture, charred appearance.

164
Q

What are the signs of a fourth-degree burn?

A

Involves muscle, bone, and tendons; skin appears blackened.

165
Q

What is the purpose of the Rule of Nines?

A

Quickly estimates total body surface area (TBSA) burned.

166
Q

Why is the Lund and Browder method more accurate than the Rule of Nines?

A

Accounts for age-related body proportion differences.

167
Q

What is the first step in treating a thermal burn?

A

Remove the heat source and cool the area with lukewarm water.

168
Q

Why is ice not recommended for burns?

A

Can cause further tissue damage and vasoconstriction.

169
Q

What is the primary focus in the emergent phase of burn care?

A

Airway, breathing, circulation (ABCs).

170
Q

Why should jewelry and tight clothing be removed from burn victims?

A

Prevents constriction due to swelling.

171
Q

What does “fluid shift” mean in burn patients?

A

Plasma leaks from blood vessels into tissues, causing edema.

172
Q

Why do burn patients develop metabolic acidosis?

A

Fluid loss and tissue hypoxia lead to acid buildup.

173
Q

What is the main cause of hypothermia in burn patients?

A

Loss of skin barrier and inability to regulate temperature.

174
Q

What is the purpose of the Parkland formula?

A

Guides fluid resuscitation in burn patients.

175
Q

How is the Parkland formula calculated?

A

4 mL × weight (kg) × % TBSA burned.

176
Q

How should fluids be administered in the first 24 hours post-burn?

A

½ in first 8 hours, remainder over next 16 hours.

177
Q

What type of IV fluid is preferred for burn resuscitation?

A

Lactated Ringer’s solution.

178
Q

What is the best indicator of adequate fluid resuscitation?

A

Urine output of at least 0.5 mL/kg/hr.

179
Q

What complications can arise from fluid overload?

A

Pulmonary edema, heart failure.

180
Q

Why is albumin sometimes used in burn patients?

A

Helps pull fluid back into the vascular space.

181
Q

What is a key nursing priority in the acute phase of burn care?

A

Preventing infection and promoting wound healing.

182
Q

Why are burn wounds prone to infection?

A

Loss of skin barrier and suppressed immune response.

183
Q

What are common signs of a burn wound infection?

A

Increased redness, swelling, pus, fever.

184
Q

What are common systemic complications of burns?

A

Sepsis, pneumonia, renal failure, compartment syndrome.

185
Q

What is the most common cause of death in burn patients after the emergent phase?

186
Q

Why is enteral feeding preferred over TPN in burn patients?

A

Maintains gut integrity and reduces infection risk.

187
Q

What vitamin is most important for wound healing?

A

Vitamin C.

188
Q

Why are burn patients at risk for gastric ulcers?

A

Stress response increases stomach acid production.

189
Q

What medications prevent stress ulcers in burn patients?

A

Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) or H2 blockers.

190
Q

What is an important psychosocial concern for burn patients?

A

Body image disturbances and PTSD.

191
Q

What are signs of inhalation injury?

A

Singed nasal hair, hoarseness, carbonaceous sputum.

192
Q

Why is early intubation recommended for inhalation injuries?

A

Prevents airway obstruction from swelling.

193
Q

What is the function of pressure garments?

A

Reduces scarring and helps skin heal smoothly.

194
Q

What are the benefits of early ambulation in burn patients?

A

Prevents contractures, improves circulation, reduces DVT risk.

195
Q

What is a common long-term effect of severe burns?

A

Joint contractures and limited mobility.

196
Q

Why are physical therapy and ROM exercises important for burn patients?

A

Prevent stiffness and maintain function.

197
Q

What is the purpose of debridement?

A

Removes dead tissue to promote healing.

198
Q

What are the four types of debridement?

A

Mechanical, enzymatic, surgical, autolytic.

199
Q

What is the main goal of the rehabilitation phase of burn care?

A

Maximize function and quality of life.

200
Q

Why should burn patients avoid direct sun exposure?

A

New skin is fragile and prone to damage.

201
Q

What is the best way to prevent burns at home?

A

Fire safety, proper handling of hot liquids, smoke detectors.