Ch 27 Heme Lymph System PPT Flashcards

1
Q

What are the main components of the hematologic system?

A

Bone marrow, blood, and blood components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What structures make up the lymphatic system?

A

Lymph nodes, nodules, lymph vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the functions of blood?

A

Transport substances/cells, regulate body temp, pH, fluid balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What percentage of blood is plasma?

A

About 55%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What produces the formed elements in blood?

A

Stem cells in red bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is plasma mostly made of?

A

91% water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where are plasma proteins synthesized?

A

In the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name 3 important plasma proteins.

A

Prothrombin, fibrinogen, albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the normal blood pH range?

A

7.35 – 7.45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the main function of red blood cells?

A

Carry oxygen bonded to iron in hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What hormone increases RBC production?

A

Erythropoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where is erythropoietin secreted from?

A

The kidneys during hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does the presence of many reticulocytes indicate?

A

Insufficient mature RBCs to meet oxygen demand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What nutrients are essential for RBC production?

A

Protein, iron, folic acid, Vitamin B12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is required for Vitamin B12 absorption?

A

Intrinsic factor from stomach parietal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How long do RBCs live?

A

About 120 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What causes hemolysis?

A

Diseases like malaria and sickle cell anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does excess hemoglobin in the blood cause?

A

Elevated bilirubin and jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What determines ABO blood type?

A

Antigens on RBCs (A or B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What determines Rh factor?

A

Presence of D antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How are WBCs different from RBCs?

A

Larger, have nuclei, involved in immune/inflammatory responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where are T lymphocytes matured?

A

Thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where do lymphocytes become activated?

A

Lymph nodes, spleen, lymphatic nodules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What do monocytes become in tissue?

A

Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the main function of neutrophils?

A

Phagocytosis of foreign material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What role do eosinophils play?

A

Combat histamine, allergic reactions, parasitic infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What do basophils release?

A

Heparin and histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the types of T cells?

A

Helper, suppressor, killer, memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the types of B cells?

A

Memory and plasma cells (produce antibodies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How are platelets formed?

A

Fragments of megakaryocytes in red bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the lifespan of platelets?

A

About 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What prevents platelets from sticking to vessels?

A

Smooth endothelial lining, heparin, antithrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the role of the spleen in immunity?

A

Stores lymphocytes, filters pathogens and worn-out cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Why is the spleen not vital?

A

Other organs compensate if it’s removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where is the spleen located?

A

LUQ below diaphragm, behind stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does the thymus do?

A

Matures and proliferates T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What happens to the thymus with age?

A

It atrophies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is “lymph”?

A

Tissue fluid that enters lymph capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Why must lymph return to blood?

A

To maintain blood volume and pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which vein receives lymph from thoracic duct?

A

Left subclavian vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What vein receives lymph from right lymphatic duct?

A

Right subclavian vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the function of lymph nodes?

A

Filter pathogens, house macrophages and lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Where are lymph nodes commonly found?

A

Cervical, axillary, inguinal regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the difference between lymph nodes and nodules?

A

Nodes are deeper and larger; nodules are just under mucous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are tonsils an example of?

A

Lymphatic nodules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What happens with aging in the lymphatic system?

A

Decreased immunity due to atrophied thymus and reduced function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What ancestry is associated with sickle cell anemia?

A

Black, Mediterranean, or Asian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What ancestry is linked to pernicious anemia?

A

Northern European

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What conditions might indicate vitamin B12 deficiency?

A

Poor diet, alcohol abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are petechiae?

A

Small hemorrhagic spots under the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are ecchymoses?

A

Larger areas of hemorrhage (bruises)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is purpura?

A

Hemorrhage into skin, mucous membranes, organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What may pallor, cyanosis, or jaundice indicate?

A

Blood disorders, oxygenation issues, or hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is clubbing of the fingernails a sign of?

A

Chronic hypoxia or anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What may sternal tenderness suggest?

A

Packed bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does a CBC test include?

A

RBC, WBC, Hgb, Hct, Platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What does PT test for?

A

Activity of clotting factors, liver function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is INR used to monitor?

A

Warfarin therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What does aPTT assess?

A

Clotting factors, heparin therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What does a Coombs test detect?

A

Antibodies against RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is a bone marrow biopsy used for?

A

Diagnosing cancers, infections, or evaluating treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are common biopsy sites?

A

Sternum, iliac crest, vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is lymphangiography?

A

Imaging test for lymph blockages or cancers using dye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Why is patient education important after lymphangiography?

A

Dye may cause skin, urine, stool discoloration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is a lymph node biopsy for?

A

Checking if lymph enlargement is due to cancer or infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is autologous transfusion?

A

Patient’s own blood is transfused

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is allogeneic transfusion?

A

Donated blood from someone else

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are PRBCs used for?

A

Anemia or blood loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is FFP used for?

A

Clotting factor replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is albumin used for?

A

Hypovolemia from low albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are cryoprecipitates?

A

Used for missing clotting factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How soon must transfusions be started after receiving blood?

A

Within 30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

How long can a transfusion last?

A

No longer than 4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What type of tubing is needed for transfusion?

A

Y tubing with a filter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Who verifies blood before transfusion?

A

Two nurses

76
Q

What is a febrile reaction?

A

Fever, chills, back pain — usually mild, common

77
Q

How to prevent febrile reactions?

A

Use leukocyte-depleted blood if there’s history

78
Q

What is a urticarial reaction?

A

Hives from plasma antigens, mild allergic response

79
Q

What should be done if a hive reaction occurs?

A

Stop transfusion, notify HCP, may restart if stable

80
Q

What is a hemolytic reaction?

A

Destruction of RBCs from incompatible blood

81
Q

What are signs of hemolytic reaction?

A

Chest/back pain, chills, fever, nausea, shock

82
Q

What is the first step for a hemolytic reaction?

A

Stop transfusion immediately

83
Q

What organ is most at risk in hemolytic reactions?

84
Q

What is an anaphylactic reaction to transfusion?

A

Severe allergy to donor immunoglobulins

85
Q

What are signs of anaphylactic reaction?

A

GI cramping, respiratory failure, vomiting

86
Q

What is TRALI?

A

Transfusion-related acute lung injury

87
Q

What are signs of TRALI?

A

Hypoxia, crackles, fever, hypotension

88
Q

What is TACO?

A

Transfusion-associated circulatory overload

89
Q

Who is most at risk for TACO?

A

Elderly or debilitated patients

90
Q

What are signs of TACO?

A

Cough, chest pain, crackles, frothy sputum

91
Q

What is the volume range of blood in the human body?

A

4–6 liters

92
Q

What are the two main categories of blood components?

A

Plasma and formed elements

93
Q

What are the three formed elements in blood?

A

RBCs, WBCs, Platelets

94
Q

What is the function of albumin in plasma?

A

Maintains oncotic pressure and fluid balance

95
Q

What is the role of globulins?

A

Include antibodies and transport proteins

96
Q

What is the purpose of clotting factors in plasma?

A

Facilitate blood coagulation

97
Q

What happens to plasma temperature as it circulates?

A

It is warmed in the liver and skeletal muscle, then distributes heat

98
Q

What structure in the stomach produces intrinsic factor?

A

Parietal cells

99
Q

What is a reticulocyte?

A

An immature red blood cell

100
Q

What condition triggers erythropoietin secretion?

101
Q

What happens when there is excess destruction of RBCs?

A

Hemolysis → elevated bilirubin → jaundice

102
Q

What are macrophages responsible for in blood breakdown?

A

Phagocytize old RBCs and recycle hemoglobin

103
Q

What is bilirubin a byproduct of?

A

Hemoglobin breakdown

104
Q

Which antigen determines the Rh factor?

105
Q

What is the function of leukocytes?

A

Defense against infection and injury

106
Q

Which WBCs respond first to bacterial infection?

A

Neutrophils

107
Q

Which WBCs are elevated in parasitic infection?

A

Eosinophils

108
Q

Which cells are involved in allergic response?

A

Basophils and eosinophils

109
Q

What type of immunity involves T and B lymphocytes?

A

Adaptive immunity

110
Q

Where do B cells mature?

A

Bone marrow

111
Q

What is the primary immune organ during childhood?

112
Q

What are memory cells?

A

Long-lived lymphocytes that respond to previously encountered antigens

113
Q

What structure prevents spontaneous platelet activation?

A

Smooth endothelial lining of blood vessels

114
Q

What substances inhibit platelet aggregation?

A

Heparin and antithrombin

115
Q

What are petechiae often associated with?

A

Thrombocytopenia or capillary fragility

116
Q

What is a clinical sign of anemia visible on skin or nails?

A

Pallor or spoon-shaped nails

117
Q

What are signs of blood-related disorders in vital signs?

A

Tachycardia, fever, hypotension

118
Q

What does jaundice suggest in a hematologic disorder?

A

Hemolysis or liver dysfunction

119
Q

What is indicated by sternal tenderness?

A

Overactive bone marrow

120
Q

What does elevated HR suggest in a blood disorder?

A

Compensation for anemia or hypoxia

121
Q

What are common lymph node regions assessed?

A

Cervical, axillary, inguinal

122
Q

What size of lymph node enlargement is clinically significant?

A

Greater than 1 cm

123
Q

What does lymphadenopathy potentially indicate?

A

Inflammation, cancer, infection

124
Q

What might be found in a lymph node biopsy?

A

Infection, malignancy, granulomas

125
Q

What lab test measures RBC volume percentage?

A

Hematocrit (Hct)

126
Q

What does a low hemoglobin (Hgb) indicate?

127
Q

What does platelet count evaluate?

A

Clotting ability and bleeding risk

128
Q

What coagulation test assesses intrinsic pathway?

129
Q

What does bleeding time measure?

A

Time it takes small puncture to stop bleeding

130
Q

What is capillary fragility testing for?

A

Susceptibility of capillaries to rupture

131
Q

What is type and screen used for?

A

Blood compatibility before transfusion

132
Q

What does a positive Coombs test indicate?

A

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

133
Q

What is the main risk of bone marrow aspiration?

A

Bleeding or infection at the site

134
Q

What type of dye is used in lymphangiography?

A

Blue dye (e.g., isosulfan blue)

135
Q

What symptom should be monitored after lymphangiography?

A

Limb swelling or sensory changes

136
Q

What can discoloration of skin/urine after lymphangiography indicate?

A

Dye excretion (normal)

137
Q

What is standard transfusion blood compatibility matched by?

A

ABO and Rh factor

138
Q

What is the most common transfusion product?

A

PRBCs (packed red blood cells)

139
Q

What condition is treated with platelet transfusion?

A

Thrombocytopenia

140
Q

What should be done if transfusion is delayed?

A

Return blood to bank if not used within 30 minutes

141
Q

Why is a 20G or larger IV needed for transfusion?

A

To prevent hemolysis and allow proper flow rate

142
Q

How often are vitals checked during transfusion?

A

Before, at 15 min, hourly, and at the end

143
Q

Why is leukocyte-reduced blood used?

A

To reduce febrile non-hemolytic reactions

144
Q

What does washed blood help prevent?

A

Severe allergic transfusion reactions

145
Q

What does warming transfusion blood help prevent?

A

Hypothermia and arrhythmias during massive transfusions

146
Q

What are early symptoms of febrile transfusion reaction?

A

Chills, fever, backache, headache

147
Q

How should a febrile transfusion reaction be managed?

A

Stop transfusion, give antipyretics, notify HCP

148
Q

What characterizes a urticarial transfusion reaction?

A

Hives, itching, sometimes mild fever

149
Q

What is the treatment for a mild urticarial reaction?

A

Benadryl, possibly restart transfusion

150
Q

What is the hallmark sign of hemolytic reaction?

A

Sudden back/chest pain with fever/chills

151
Q

What test is used after suspected hemolytic reaction?

A

Direct Coombs and crossmatching

152
Q

What happens to BP in hemolytic reaction?

A

It drops (hypotension)

153
Q

What is the role of diuretics in hemolytic reaction?

A

Prevent kidney damage from hemoglobin

154
Q

What immune product triggers anaphylaxis in transfusions?

A

Donor immunoglobulins

155
Q

Who is most at risk for anaphylactic transfusion reactions?

A

Patients with multiple transfusions or pregnancies

156
Q

What are signs of anaphylactic reaction?

A

Respiratory distress, GI symptoms, cardiovascular collapse

157
Q

What is the emergency response to anaphylactic reaction?

A

Stop transfusion, start CPR if needed

158
Q

What respiratory disorder is linked to donor antibodies?

159
Q

What are early signs of TRALI?

A

Shortness of breath, low oxygen, crackles

160
Q

What does TRALI look like on a chest X-ray?

A

Bilateral pulmonary infiltrates

161
Q

What population is at highest TRALI risk?

A

Critically ill or ventilated patients

162
Q

How is TRALI managed?

A

Stop transfusion, ICU care, oxygen or ventilation

163
Q

What causes TACO?

A

Fluid overload from too rapid transfusion

164
Q

What are signs of TACO?

A

Frothy sputum, JVD, crackles, HTN, tachycardia

165
Q

How is TACO treated?

A

Diuretics, stop transfusion, slow rate if resumed

166
Q

Why is older age a risk for TACO?

A

Reduced cardiac and renal reserve

167
Q

What distinguishes TACO from TRALI?

A

TACO = fluid overload, TRALI = immune response

168
Q

What is the most serious transfusion complication?

A

Hemolytic reaction

169
Q

Why is staying with the patient the first 15 min crucial?

A

Most severe reactions happen early

170
Q

When do delayed transfusion reactions typically occur?

A

Hours to days after transfusion

171
Q

What is alloimmunization?

A

Immune response to foreign antigens from transfused blood

172
Q

What are symptoms of a delayed hemolytic reaction?

A

Mild fever, low Hgb, jaundice

173
Q

What does washed PRBCs remove?

A

Plasma proteins

174
Q

What does leukoreduction remove?

A

White blood cells

175
Q

Why might immunocompromised patients need irradiated blood?

A

To prevent graft-versus-host disease

176
Q

What is GVHD in transfusions?

A

Donor T cells attack recipient tissues

177
Q

What is the lifespan of a transfused RBC?

A

About 120 days (same as natural RBCs)

178
Q

What does MCV measure?

A

Average volume of RBCs

179
Q

What is MCH?

A

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (average Hgb per RBC)

180
Q

What condition shows low MCV and MCH?

A

Iron-deficiency anemia

181
Q

What shows elevated MCV?

A

Vitamin B12 or folate deficiency

182
Q

What test screens for iron stores?

183
Q

What is transferrin?

A

Iron transport protein

184
Q

What does high TIBC suggest?

A

Iron-deficiency anemia

185
Q

What causes low reticulocyte count in anemia?

A

Bone marrow suppression