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psychology > Ch 4, 5, 10 > Flashcards

Ch 4, 5, 10 Flashcards

sensation & perception, consciousness, development

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1
Q

sensation

A

simple stimulation of a sense organ; raw materials of perception

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2
Q

perception

A

organization, identification, & interpretation of sensations to create mental representation; sensation & prior knowledge

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3
Q

transduction

A

process of physical signals from environment translated into neural signals sent to CNS

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4
Q

3 steps of sensation

A
  1. RECEPTION: stimulation of sensory receptor cells by energy
  2. TRANSDUCTION: transforming cell stimulation into neural impulses
  3. TRANSMISSION: delivering neural info to brain for processing
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5
Q

Our perception of the world is a ____ portion of sensory signals from environment

A

very small

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6
Q

bottom-up processing

A

take in sensory info from environment, then attempt to understand; neural processing that starts with physical sensation

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7
Q

top-down processing

A

use prior knowledge, which influences what we sense as we try to navigate the world around us

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8
Q

parallel processing

A

brain’s capacity to perform multiple activities at the same time; building perceptions out of sensory details processed simultaneously in different areas of the brain

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9
Q

sensory adaptation

A

sensitivity to prolonged stimulation tends to decline over time as organism adapts to current (unchanging) conditions (ex: not noticing smell after an hour)

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10
Q

psychophysics

A

methods that systematically relate physical characteristics of stimulus to observer’s perception

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11
Q

absolute threshold

A

the minimal intensity needed to just barely detect a stimulus in 50% of the trials; simplest measurement in psychophysics

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12
Q

sensitivity

A

how responsive an individual is to faint stimuli

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13
Q

acuity

A

how well one can distinguish two very similar stimuli

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14
Q

just noticeable difference (JND)

A

minimal change in a stimulus that can just barely be detected

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15
Q

Weber’s law

A

for every sense domain, the change in a stimulus that is just noticeable is a CONSTANT PROPORTION despite variation in intensities
1oz vs. 2oz, probably notice the difference; 20lb vs. 20lb 1 oz, probably detect no difference at all

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16
Q

signal detection theory (SDT)

A

response to a stimulus depends both on a person’s sensitivity to the stimulus in the presence of noise and on a person’s decision criterion (ex: hearing phone ring if you’re expecting a call)

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17
Q

Gestalt principles of organization

A

figure-ground
proximity
similarity
closure
good continuation
common fate

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18
Q

figure-ground

A

certain info given priority over background info

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19
Q

proximity

A

close objects grouped together

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20
Q

similarity

A

physically similar objects grouped together

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21
Q

closure

A

tendency to perceive whole objects despite pieces of whole object missing –> coherent message

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22
Q

good continuation

A

tendency to see continuously flowing lines even though lines cross or are interrupted

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23
Q

common fate

A

objects that move together will be grouped together

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24
Q

visible light

A

portion of electromagnetic spectrum visible to humans; very narrow band of spectrum (400-700nm wavelength)

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25
Q

wavelength

A

distance between peaks of light waves; determines hue/color

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26
Q

amplitude (visual)

A

height of peaks of light waves; determines amplitude/brightness

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27
Q

purity

A

degree to which a light source is emitting just one wavelength, or a mixture of wavelengths; determines saturation

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28
Q

In what order does light pass through the eye and into the brain?

A

cornea –> pupil –> lens –> retina (rods&cones&other layers) –> optic nerve –> optic chiasm –> thalamus (LGN) –> occipital lobe (VSC)

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29
Q

cornea

A

outermost, smooth, transparent outer tissue of eye; bends light wave to send it through pupil & helps focus on objects

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30
Q

pupil

A

hole in iris; contracts & expands depending on amount of light in environment

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31
Q

iris

A

translucent, donut-shaped muscle that controls size of pupil/amount of light that enters eye

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32
Q

lens

A

flexible area behind pupil which changes shape to refract light onto retina via accommodation (flatter for far away objects, rounder for nearby objects)

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33
Q

retina

A

thin layer of tissue containing photoreceptors; lines back of eyeball

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34
Q

accommodation (visual)

A

process by which eye maintains clear image on retina

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35
Q

Improper accommodation can result in _________

A

myopia & hyperopia

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36
Q

myopia

A

eyeball too long, images focused in FRONT of retina; nearsightedness

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37
Q

hyperopia

A

eyeball too short, images focused BEHIND retina; farsightedness

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38
Q

Types of photoreceptors in retina

A

rods & cones

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39
Q

photoreceptors

A

light-sensitive pigments that transduce (translate) light into neural impulses

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40
Q

cones

A

detect color, operate under normal daylight conditions, and allow focus on fine detail (visual acuity); less numerous than rods

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41
Q

rods

A

shades of gray, active under low-light conditions for night vision, function in peripheral vision; more sensitive & numerous than cones

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42
Q

fovea

A

area of retina where vision is clearest; concentrated with cones (no rods); decreases sharpness of vision in reduced light

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43
Q

Why are objects in peripheral vision less clear than objects in direct vision?

A

Light reflecting off peripheral objects falls outside of fovea

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44
Q

Photoreceptor cells form _______ layer of retina

A

innermost

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45
Q

bipolar & retinal ganglion cells

A

transparent layer of neurons above photoreceptor cell layer

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46
Q

bipolar cells

A

collect electrical signals from photoreceptors & transmit info to RGCs

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47
Q

retinal ganglion cells (RGCs)

A

organize signals sent by bipolar cells & send to brain

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48
Q

optic nerve

A

formed by bundled axons of RGCs, passes through eye and creates blind spot

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49
Q

The optic nerve leaves the eye through a ____ called the _______

A

hole, blind spot

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50
Q

blind spot

A

location in visual field that produces no sensation on the retina; has no photoreceptors

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51
Q

area V1

A

where visual info goes after LGN; part of occipital lobe containing primary visual cortex

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52
Q

Light is seen as white in color if _________

A

it contains about the same number of many different wavelengths

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53
Q

The perception of color is ______

A

created by our brain

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54
Q

L-cones

A

sense long wavelengths (red)

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55
Q

M-cones

A

sense medium wavelengths (green)

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56
Q

S-cones

A

sense short wavelengths (blue)

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57
Q

color vision deficiency

A

genetic disorder where 1 or more cone types are missing

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58
Q

Staring at a color for too long ______ the cones that respond to that color

A

fatigues

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59
Q

How does the brain compensate for missing visual info at the optic nerve?

A

uses info from other eye & previous knowledge

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60
Q

optic chiasm

A

where neural impulse goes after optic nerve; X-shaped, reorganizes axons from each eye for more sophisticated processing

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61
Q

lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN)

A

where neural impulse goes after optic chiasm; located in thalamus of each hemisphere

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62
Q

visual striate cortex (area V1)

A

where neural impulse goes after LGN; located in occipital lobe; features of visual world assembled & identified

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63
Q

ventral stream

A

lower stream; travels across occipital lobe into lower levels of temporal lobes, includes brain areas that represent an object’s shape and identity; “what” pathway;

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64
Q

dorsal stream

A

upper stream; travels up from the occipital lobe to the parietal lobes and includes brain areas that identify where an object is and how it is moving; “where” pathway

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65
Q

Ventral & dorsal visual streams work ______ but are ____________

A

together; functionally distinct

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66
Q

perception for identification

A

ventral stream

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67
Q

perception for action

A

dorsal stream

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68
Q

When ventral stream damaged, _______ was impaired, but _______ was not

A

ability to identify objects by sight/visual representation; ability to identify them by touch/memory

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69
Q

How are V1 neurons selective?

A

some fire when perceiving vertical edge; others horizontal; others still fire in response to different angles

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70
Q

What is an afterimage and why does it occur?

A

Cones responding to color being looked at grow fatigued, other cones respond

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71
Q

color

A

transduced info from eyes that allows for perception of color from wavelengths in air

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72
Q

Why does something appear red?

A

pigments absorb those wavelengths, reflects red onto retina

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73
Q

trichromatic theory

A

color info identified by comparing activation of red, green, and blue cones; doesn’t account for full color spectrum

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74
Q

opponent process theory

A

asserts that cells fire in opposing fashion: red-green, blue-yellow, black-white

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75
Q

About ____ people are colorblind

A

1 in 50

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76
Q

binding problem

A

how brain links features together so that we see unified objects in our visual world rather than free-floating or miscombined features

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77
Q

illusory conjunction

A

perceptual mistake where brain incorrectly combines features from multiple objects

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78
Q

color afterimage

A

caused by staring at a color for too long, so when you look at another color using those cones, they are fatigued so only the other cones react and you perceive the color differently

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79
Q

attention

A

active and conscious processing of particular information; helps bind features together

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80
Q

When does illusory conjunction occur?

A

when it is difficult for participants to pay full attention to features that need to be glued together

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81
Q

perceptual constancy

A

even as aspects of sensory signals change, perception remains constant; system organizes sensory info into meaningful objects, gives info abt novel features, strips away distracting/unnecessary sensory info (ex: recognizing an actor in different roles when they look completely different)

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82
Q

conceptual knowledge

A

when we perceive an object, we don’t merely recognize what it looks like, but we understand its characteristics & significance to our behavior

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83
Q

modular view of object recognition

A

specialized brain areas/modules detect and represent faces or houses, body parts, other objects

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84
Q

distributed representation of object recognition

A

pattern of activity across multiple brain regions identifies any viewed object

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85
Q

perceptual organization

A

process of grouping and segregating features to create whole objects organized in meaningful ways; Gestalt principle

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86
Q

simplicity

A

tend to select the simplest or most likely interpretation of object’s shape

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87
Q

closure

A

system tends to fill in missing elements of visual scene, so we perceive interrupted edges as complete objects (coherent message)

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88
Q

continuity/good continuation

A

tend to group together edges or contours that have the same orientation

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89
Q

similarity

A

regions similar in color, lightness, shape, or texture are perceived as belonging to same object

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90
Q

proximity

A

objects that are close together tend to be grouped together

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91
Q

common fate

A

elements of visual image that move together are perceived as parts of single moving object

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92
Q

figure-ground

A

certain info given priority over background info; can separate figure from background (ex: black text on white paper); smaller regions likely to be figures, movement can help

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93
Q

monocular depth cues

A

aspects of a scene that yield information about depth when viewed with only one eye

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94
Q

relative size

A

object smaller when farther away, larger when up close

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95
Q

linear perspective

A

parallel lines seem to converge as they recede into distance (train tracks, hallway)

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96
Q

texture gradient

A

textures (like ground) look more detailed up close, smooth & uniform farther away

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97
Q

interposition

A

object blocking another object is closer by than the blocked object

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98
Q

relative height

A

closer objects tend to be lower in FOV, farther objects tend to be higher

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99
Q

binocular depth cues

A

require info from both eyes to compare each image & understand depth; retinal disparity

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100
Q

binocular/retinal disparity

A

difference in the retinal images of the two eyes that provides information about depth

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101
Q

Why does retinal disparity occur?

A

eyes are slightly separated, each registers slightly different view; brain uses disparity to perceive how far away objects are

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102
Q

If images fall in similar places on retinas, there is ____ disparity and the image is perceived as ____

A

less; farther

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103
Q

If images fall in different places on retinas, there is ____ disparity and the image is perceived as ____

A

more; closer

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104
Q

How does the brain compensate when both the object observed and the observer are moving?

A

“subtracts” observer’s movement from motion in retinal image

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105
Q

MT

A

region at back of temporal lobe, part of dorsal stream; specialized for perception of visual movement

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106
Q

apparent motion

A

perception of movement as a result of alternating signals appearing in rapid succession in different locations

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107
Q

biological motion perception

A

our ability to perceive biological motion critical for identifying individuals and socially relevant features, such as their emotional state, personality characteristics, and whether they are engaging in deceptive actions

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108
Q

posterior-superior temporal sulcus (STS)

A

area strongly linked to biological motion perception; works with temporo-parietal junction (TPJ)

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109
Q

STS & TMJ play key role in _______

A

social abilities

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110
Q

change blindness

A

when people fail to detect changes to the visual details of a scene (ex: door experiment, ppl switched places and 50% of participants didn’t notice)

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111
Q

inattentional blindness

A

failure to perceive objects that are not the focus of attention (ex: did you notice the gorilla?)

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112
Q

sound waves

A

changes in air pressure unfolding over time; vibrate air molecules

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113
Q

frequency

A

repetition rate, how fast waves travel; pitch

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114
Q

frequency measurement

A

hertz (Hz)

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115
Q

Frequency is perceived as _____

A

pitch

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116
Q

Low frequency = ____ ______

A

low pitch

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117
Q

amplitude

A

intensity of sound waves; loudness

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118
Q

amplitude measurement

A

decibels (dB)

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119
Q

Amplitude is perceived as _____

A

loudness

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120
Q

What is the amplitude of leaves rustling?

A

10 dB

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121
Q

What is the amplitude of human conversation?

A

60 dB

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122
Q

What is the amplitude of a rock concert?

A

130 dB

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123
Q

In causing hearing damage, what does amplitude depend on?

A

exposure

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124
Q

Amplitude is relative to the threshold of _______, which is ____dB

A

human hearing; 0 dB

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125
Q

High amplitude = ____ ______

A

loud noise

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126
Q

complexity

A

mixture of frequencies; combines amplitude & frequency

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127
Q

Complexity is perceived as ______

A

timbre

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128
Q

outer ear function

A

collecting sound waves and funneling them into middle ear

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129
Q

pinna

A

outer ear, collects sound waves & funnels them into auditory canal

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130
Q

structures of outer ear

A

pinna, auditory canal

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131
Q

auditory canal

A

moves sounds toward eardrum

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132
Q

tympanic membrane

A

eardrum, flap of tissue that vibrates with sound waves & passes vibrations to ossicles

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133
Q

ossicles

A

3 tiniest bones in human body (anvil, hammer, stirrup); pick up vibrations from eardrum, amplify, and vibrate oval window

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134
Q

middle ear structures

A

tympanic membrane, ossicles

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135
Q

middle ear function

A

transmits vibrations to inner ear

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136
Q

inner ear function

A

transduces vibrations into neural impulses & sends to brain

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137
Q

inner ear structures

A

cochlea, basilar membrane, hair cells/neurons, auditory nerve

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138
Q

oval window

A

membrane separating middle & inner ear/cochlea; vibrates with amplified sound waves from ossicles

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139
Q

cochlea

A

snail-shaped structure of inner ear; fluid-filled, contains basilar membrane & cells that transduce vibrations into neural impulses

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140
Q

semicircular canals

A

“antennae” on cochlea; help with balance & proprioception

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141
Q

basilar membrane

A

structure in inner ear, moves up & down in time with vibrations transmitted through the oval window

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142
Q

inner hair cells

A

hairlike neurons inside cochlea & on basilar membrane, move with cochlear fluid like seaweed to create action potentials & transduce vibrations into electrical signals

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143
Q

cochlear fluid

A

fluid filling cochlea, moves with vibrations & stimulates hair cells

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144
Q

auditory nerve

A

receives electrical signals generated by hair cells & transmits them to brain

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145
Q

area A1

A

primary auditory cortex in temporal lobe

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146
Q

apparent motion

A

perception of movement as result of alternating signals appearing in rapid succession in different location; techniques used by animators & filmmakers

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147
Q

Low frequencies move ____ of basilar membrane, which is ____ and _______

A

apex; wide; floppy

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148
Q

The _____ of the basilar membrane is located farthest from oval window

A

apex

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149
Q

High frequencies move ____ of basilar membrane, which is ____ and _______

A

base; stiff; narrow

150
Q

The ____ of the basilar membrane is located closest to the oval window

A

base

151
Q

The movement of inner hair cells generates _________ in __________

A

action potentials; auditory nerve axons

152
Q

conductive hearing loss

A

caused by damage to eardrum or ossicles; cannot effectively conduct sound waves to cochlea

153
Q

Conductive hearing loss can be helped by:

A

hearing aid, medication, surgery

154
Q

hearing aid function

A

amplifies sound waves to transmit them to cochlea

155
Q

sensorineural hearing loss

A

caused by damage to cochlea, hair cells, or auditory nerve (from genetic disorders, infection, sound exposure & age); decreases sensitivity (need more intense sounds to hear) & acuity (voices esp harder to understand among other noises)

156
Q

Sensorineural hearing loss can be helped by:

A

cochlear implant

157
Q

In sensorineural hearing loss, accumulated damage from sound exposure goes hand in hand with _____

A

age

158
Q

cochlear implant function

A

replaces function of hair cells to stimulate auditory nerve ; may assist in normal language development

159
Q

haptic perception

A

active exploration of environment through touch

160
Q

Skin provides info about?

A

temperature, pain, pressure, vibration, texture, location of object in space

161
Q

Process of processing touch

A

Object makes contact with
body –> message travels
up spinal cord to
somatosensory cortex in
parietal lobe –> touch &
motion are processed

162
Q

Temperature is ______ experience

A

subjective (depends on comparison)

163
Q

thermoreceptors

A

skin receptors that sense changes of hot & cold

164
Q

pain

A

adaptive response to tissue damage detected via nociceptors; HIGHLY subjective response

165
Q

gate-control theory of pain

A

impulses indicating painful stimuli can be blocked in spinal cord by signals from
brain (ex: rubbing stubbed toe activates neurons to close pain gate, stops signals and relieves pain)

166
Q

kinesthetic sense

A

provides understanding of orientation & location
of body in space; provides information on how to move our bodies to accomplish a specific
task (ex: riding bike)

167
Q

Kinesthetic sense is also known as ________

A

proprioception

168
Q

A-delta fibers

A

transmit initial, sharp pain; fast-acting

169
Q

C fibers

A

transmit longer-lasting, duller, persistent pain (ex: throbbing stubbed toe)

170
Q

What does the first pain pathway signal to the somatosensory cortex?

A

Where pain is and quality of pain

171
Q

What does the second pain pathway signal to the motivational & emotional centers?

A

unpleasant aspect of pain; motivates actions for pain relief or escape from pain

172
Q

More of the tactile brain is devoted to areas of ____ acuity (ex: _____)

A

high; mouth

173
Q

referred pain

A

sensory info from internal & external areas converges on same nerve cells in spinal cord

174
Q

mechanism of pain facilitation signal

A

increases sensation of pain, believed to motivate injured/sick people to rest so body can devote energy to recovery

175
Q

Kinesthetic sense relies on _______ and _______

A

sense of touch, receptors in joints & muscles

176
Q

vestibular sense

A

sense of balance; works closely with kinesthetic sense

177
Q

How does the vestibular system help with balance?

A

Semicircular canals sense changes in acceleration & rotation of head; hair cells respond to force of gravity; vestibular sacs respond to cues associated with sense of balance and posture

178
Q

Why does motion sickness occur?

A

mismatch btwn visual cue info and vestibular feedback; feel movement but surroundings aren’t changing

179
Q

vestibular system components

A

2 fluid-filled semicircular canals & adjacent organs next to cochlea in each inner ear

180
Q

olfaction

A

sense of smell

181
Q

gustation

A

sense of taste

182
Q

What is different about olfaction as opposed to the other senses?

A

information bypasses the thalamus and goes to the forebrain structures

183
Q

_____ are closely tied to taste & smell, triggering ______

A

Memories; nostalgia & emotion

184
Q

Process of processing smell

A

odorants enter nasal cavity–> mucous membrane & ORNs –> olfactory bulb

185
Q

The axons of the ORNs form the ______

A

olfactory nerve

186
Q

ORNs

A

olfactory receptor neurons, AKA chemoreceptors; transduce odorant molecules into neural impulses

187
Q

___% of what we taste is olfaction

A

80

188
Q

pheromones

A

biochemical odorants emitted by other members of a species that can affect behavior or physiology

189
Q

How is the range of olfaction similar to that of vision and touch?

A

small number of receptors can detect lots of different types of stimuli (colors, sensations, smells)

190
Q

odorants

A

airborne molecules produced by certain stimuli perceived by nose

191
Q

Example of role of olfaction in memory & taste

A

taste aversion from previous experience

192
Q

5 main types of taste receptors

A

salt, sour, bitter, sweet, umami (savory)

193
Q

Role of olfaction in behavior

A

mate choice, adaptive response to evaluate food

194
Q

Taste begins with ______

A

papillae

195
Q

papillae

A

bumps on tongue containing tastebuds/taste receptors

196
Q

microvilli

A

tips of taste receptor cells; react w/ tastant molecules in food

197
Q

potential 6th type of tastebud

A

oleogustus (fatty/oily)

198
Q

taste buds

A

organs of taste transduction

199
Q

process of taste transduction

A

papillae –> thalamus (VPN) & stomach –> transduced at orbitofrontal cortex (OFC)

200
Q

tasters

A

50% of people; report SLIGHT bitter taste in coffee, saccharine, green veggies, etc.

201
Q

supertasters

A

25% of people; report VERY (sometimes unbearable) bitter taste in coffee, saccharine, green veggies (especially), etc.

202
Q

nontasters

A

25% of people; report NO bitter taste in coffee, saccharine, green veggies, etc.

203
Q

Why are kids picky eaters?

A

taste perception fades w/ age

204
Q

____ and ____ can affect chemical perception (give examples)

A

color; sound
eating in a loud place food may seem to have less flavor; bright colors tastier?

205
Q

consciousness

A

person’s subjective experience of world & mind

206
Q

3 aspects to consciousness

A

State of being aware of things within yourself
State of being aware of external objects
State of being characterized by sensation, emotion, volition (free will), & thought ~ mind

207
Q

Problem of other minds

A

Fundamental difficulty we
have in perceiving the
consciousness of others

208
Q

People judge minds according to:

A

capacity for experience
capacity for agency

209
Q

Mind-Body problem

A

how the mind is related to the brain and body

210
Q

Descartes’ view of Mind-Body problem

A

body & mind separate; body made of physical substance while mind is made of “thinking substance”

211
Q

Contemporary view of Mind-Body problem

A

Mind is what the brain does; mental events intimately tied to brain events

212
Q

Libet Experiment

A

showed that brain’s activity PRECEDES activity of conscious mind and action taken (button pressing)

213
Q

4 basic properties of consciousness

A

intentionality
unity
selectivity
transience

214
Q

intentionality

A

being directed towards an object of focus

215
Q

unity

A

integrating info from all senses to form a coherent whole

216
Q

selectivity

A

capacity to include some objects but not others

217
Q

transience

A

tendency to change

218
Q

dichotic listening

A

each headphone plays different audio, one input is ignored while other is attended

219
Q

cocktail party effect

A

auditory cortex boosts some sounds (ex: your name) to help brain prioritize what’s important

220
Q

When multitasking, people are usually ______

A

switching rapidly between tasks

221
Q

Multitasking ability declines with:

A

age, sleep deprivation, alcohol consumption

222
Q

levels of consciousness

A

minimal consciousness, full consciousness, self consciousness

223
Q

minimal consciousness

A

Low-level sensory
awareness &
responsiveness when
mind inputs
sensations & may
output behavior
ex: rolling over after being poked while asleep, turning off alarm clock before being fully awake

224
Q

full consciousness

A

individual knows & is able
to report mental state

225
Q

self consciousness

A

attention towards self & appearance

226
Q

A chimp showed self consciousness by:

A

wiping red dye from its eyebrow after seeing it in the mirror; recognized itself in mirror

227
Q

experience sampling method (ESM)

A

method for people to report conscious experience at specific times (journaling, online surveys, etc)

228
Q

ESM studies have shown that:

A

consciousness is dominated by immediate environment

229
Q

daydreaming

A

state of consciousness in
which a supposedly purposeless flow of
thoughts comes to mind

230
Q

Results of fMRI suggest brain is active during daydreaming due to activation of:

A

default network

231
Q

mental control

A

attempt to change
conscious states of mind

232
Q

thought suppression

A

conscious avoidance of a thought

233
Q

Thought suppression has a negative effect called _______ that means _______

A

rebound effect; tendency of a thought to return to consciousness more regularly after suppression

234
Q

dynamic unconscious

A

Freudian theory of active system containing lifetime of hidden memories, deep instincts & desires, & inner struggle to control these
forces

235
Q

Freudian slip

A

when you say one thing, but mean your mother— I mean another

236
Q

repression

A

mental process that removes unacceptable thoughts/memories from consciousness & keeps them in unconscious

237
Q

cognitive unconscious

A

all mental processes that give rise to person’s thoughts, choices, emotions, & behavior (even though not experienced by person)

238
Q

dual process theory

A

2 diff brain systems for processing info; used to understand cognitive processes

239
Q

System 1

A

fast, automatic, unconscious, everyday decisions, prone to mistakes (ex: 1+1=2)

240
Q

System 2

A

slow, effortful, conscious, less error-prone (ex: making a complex decision)

241
Q

altered state of consciousness

A

form of experience that departs from normal subjective experience of world & mind

242
Q

altered state of consciousness can be accompanied by:

A

Changes in thinking, emotional expression, meaning or significance
Disturbances in sense of time
Feelings of loss of control
Alterations in body image & sense of self
Perceptual distortions

243
Q

hypnagogic state

A

pre-sleep consciousness

244
Q

hypnic jerk

A

sudden feeling of falling

245
Q

hypnopompic state

A

post-sleep consciousness (ex: waking up groggy)

246
Q

circadian rhythm

A

naturally occurring 24-hour wake-sleep cycle, involving behavior or physiological processes

247
Q

beta waves

A

high frequency, waking

248
Q

alpha waves

A

low frequency, relaxing

249
Q

sleep stage 1

A

brain wave activity slowing down; theta waves

250
Q

sleep stage 2

A

EEG patterns interrupted by burst of activity; sleep spindles & K complexes; sleeper more difficult to wake

251
Q

sleep stage 3-4

A

deep/slow-wave sleep; delta waves

252
Q

REM sleep

A

rapid eye movement; sawtooth/beta waves (high level of brain activity); dreaming most common; increase in pulse & BP; body immobilized

253
Q

Cycle btwn REM and slow-wave sleep occurs every ___ throughout the night

A

90 min

254
Q

How long does it take a well-rested person to fall asleep?

A

20 min

255
Q

How long does it take a sleep-deprived person to fall asleep?

A

3-4 min

256
Q

Which stage of sleep has the most detrimental effects? 2nd most?

A

REM sleep; slow-wave sleep

257
Q

Sleep deprivation effects

A

Reduce mental sharpness & reaction time
Increase irritability & depression
Increase risk of accidents & injury
Worsen memory

258
Q

insomnia

A

difficulty in falling or staying asleep
must be continuous and impairing your
sleep to receive official diagnosis
Potential causes: night shifts, depression,
anxiety, etc

259
Q

sleep apnea

A

person stops breathing for short periods while asleep
usually snoring due to obstructed airway
common in overweight, middle-aged men

260
Q

somnambulism

A

sleepwalking during slow-wave sleep early in night; common in children

261
Q

narcolepsy

A

sudden sleep attacks occur in middle of
waking activities

262
Q

sleep paralysis

A

experience of waking up unable to move after REM sleep

263
Q

night/sleep terrors

A

abrupt awakenings with panic & intense emotional arousal; common in children; sometimes hallucinate things from dreams in the world

264
Q

Deprivation of slow-wave sleep

A

physical effects: tired, fatigued, hypersensitive to muscle and bone pain

265
Q

glymphatic system

A

operates mainly during sleep to get rid of neurotoxins and distribute necessary substances to brain; thought of to be reason brain needs sleep, for maintenance

266
Q

5 characteristics of dreaming vs. awake

A
  1. Intense emotion
  2. Illogical thought
  3. Meaningful sensation (usually visual)
  4. Uncritical acceptance of bizarre dream occurrences
  5. Difficulty remembering dream upon waking
267
Q

Freudian dream theory

A

Dreams hold meaning
Manifest content:
dream’s apparent
topic or superficial
meaning
Latent content:
dream’s true meaning

268
Q

Jung’s dream theory

A

Dreams are a way for the unconscious
mind to communicate with the conscious
(individuation)
* Dreams help us process current situations
and unfinished emotional/mental
problems
Symbolism: dreams have symbols that are
commonly shared historically and cross-
culturally.
* Multiple Interpretations: dreams can be
interpreted differently based on age,
personality, or circumstances.
* Big vs Little Dreams: Big dreams are
guideposts along the path of individuation

269
Q

activation-synthesis model

A

Dreams produced when brain attempts to make
sense of activations (random brain activity)
occurring during sleep
fMRI scans during dreaming show brain
areas involved in emotion & visual imagery, but not prefrontal cortex (planning)

270
Q

3 influencing factors of addiction:

A
  1. drug tolerance
  2. physical dependence
  3. psychological dependence
271
Q

drug tolerance

A

tendency for larger drug dose to be required over time to achieve same effect

272
Q

physical dependence

A

unpleasant physiological symptoms after withdrawal from drug use

273
Q

psychological dependence

A

desire to return to drug even when physical symptoms gone

274
Q

What factors may influence addiction?

A

genetic, neurobiological, & social

275
Q

neurocognitive theory of dreams

A

dreaming enabled by the default network (supports imagination and daydreaming) and leads to experience of scenarios similar to the ones experienced while awake

276
Q

threat-simulation dream theory

A

purpose of dreams is to simulate threatening situations that a person is likely to experience and to practice escape and avoidance from those situations

277
Q

psychoactive drugs

A

chemicals that influence
consciousness or behavior by altering neurotransmitters

278
Q

types of psychoactive drugs

A

Depressants
Stimulants
Narcotics
Hallucinogens
Marijuana

279
Q

Depressants mechanism

A

reduce CNS activity; sedative and calming effect; induce sleep at high doses and cause cessation of breathing at very high doses

280
Q

types of depressants

A

Barbiturates (sleep aids)
Benzodiazepines (tranquilizers, anti-anxiety)
Toxic inhalants (glue, nail polish remover)
most common: alcohol

281
Q

Stimulants mechanism

A

increase CNS activity; increase dopamine & norepinephrine; heighten arousal & activity
cause paranoia, aggression, memory issues, impulse control

282
Q

types of stimulants

A

Caffeine
Amphetamines
Nicotine
Cocaine
Ecstasy (MDMA

283
Q

Narcotics mechanism

A

highly addictive drugs derived from opium that relieve pain; induce feeling of well-being & relaxation; properties closely related to endorphins

284
Q

types of narcotics

A

Heroin
Morphine

285
Q

Hallucinogens

A

drugs that alter sensation & perception; often cause
visual & auditory hallucinations; effects dramatic & unpredictable; potential medical use (PTSD)

286
Q

types of hallucinogens

A

LSD (acid)
Psilocybin (shrooms)
Ketamine (animal tranquilizer)

287
Q

Marijuana

A

derived from hemp plant, containing psychoactive element THC; produces mildly hallucinogenic intoxication
some have euphoric experience with heightened senses of
sight & sound as well as perception of rush of ideas
affects judgment & short-term memory; impairs motor skills &
coordination
some medicinal applications

288
Q

hypnosis

A

social interaction in which hypnotist makes suggestions that lead to change in participant’s subjective experience of world
leading people to expect certain things will happen outside their conscious will
Susceptibility varies greatly

289
Q

hypnotic analgesia

A

reduction of pain through hypnosis in people susceptible to hypnosis

290
Q

developmental psychology

A

study of
continuity and change
across the life span
* Infancy
* Childhood
* Adolescence
* Adulthood

291
Q

prenatal development stages

A

germinal, embryonic, fetal

292
Q

germinal stage

A

2-week period that begins at conception; zygote

293
Q

embryonic stage

A

from 2 weeks post-conception to 8 weeks post-conception
embryo has arms, legs, beating heart

294
Q

fetal stage

A

from 8 weeks post-conception to 9 months post-conception (birth)
fetus has skeleton & muscles; myelination occurs

295
Q

myelination

A

formation of fatty sheath around axons of neurons

296
Q

infancy

A

stage of development that begins at birth and lasts between 18 and 24 months

297
Q

within first 3 years, children gain:

A

motor development (walking & grasping), language (1st word around 1 year), cognitive development (long-term memory), social development (connection to caregivers

298
Q

newborn reflexes

A

inborn (not learned) responses of newborn to be fed; rooting, sucking, crying when hungry

299
Q

rooting reflex

A

causes infants to move their mouths toward any object that touches their cheek

300
Q

sucking reflex

A

causes infants to suck on any object that enters their mouth

301
Q

fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)

A

developmental disorder that stems from heavy alcohol use by the mother during pregnancy; results in baby with flat upper lip

302
Q

habituation

A

tendency for organisms to respond less intensely to a stimulus each time it is presented

303
Q

Jean Piaget

A

Swiss psych who studied child cognitive development; father of modern developmental psychology

304
Q

cognitive development

A

process by which infants and children gain ability to think and understand

305
Q

Piaget stages of development

A

sensorimotor stage, preoperational stage, concrete operational stage, formal operational stage

306
Q

sensorimotor stage

A

stage of cognitive development that lasts from birth to 2 years old; infant experiences world by sensing it and moving in it, develops “schemas,” begins to act intentionally, and shows evidence of understanding “object permanence”
stranger anxiety

307
Q

preoperational stage

A

2-6 years old; child acquires motor skills but does not understand “conservation”
Child begins this stage by thinking egocentrically but ends with basic understanding of other minds
symbolic thinking: using
language to communicate
thoughts, feelings, and
pretend play

308
Q

concrete operational stage

A

6-11 years old; child can think logically about physical objects and events and understands “conservation”; can solve basic math problems

309
Q

formal operational stage

A

11+ years old; child can think logically about abstract propositions and hypotheticals

310
Q

schema

A

theories about the way the world works; developed by children during sensorimotor stage

311
Q

assimilation

A

process of applying a schema to novel stimuli

312
Q

accommodation

A

process of adjusting a schema to incorporate new information

313
Q

object permanence

A

understanding that objects exist even when they are not visible; infants lack this

314
Q

Infants lack object permanence until they are ________ old

A

9 months

315
Q

egocentrism

A

tendency of young children not be able to take the perspective of others, and instead thinks that everyone sees, thinks, and feels just as they do

316
Q

According to Piaget, ppl enter childhood at the ______ stage and exit childhood at the ______ stage

A

preoperational; concrete operational

317
Q

theory of mind

A

ability to adopt another POV; 4-6 years old

318
Q

conservation

A

ability to identify that objects can be rearranged or moved, but quantity doesn’t change; developed at concrete operational stage

319
Q

centrism

A

focusing on 1 quality but excluding all others

320
Q

animism

A

giving life-like qualities to inanimate objects (ex: the scooter is mean)

321
Q

Why is Piaget controversial?

A

people have argued that
Piaget underestimates the
skills of a preoperational child; there is not a one size fits all because experience can
influence their skill sets

322
Q

Lev Vygotsky

A

Created sociocultural theory

323
Q

skills that determine infants’ ability to learn from others

A

joint attention, social referencing, imitation

324
Q

joint attention

A

ability to focus on what another person is focusing on

325
Q

social referencing

A

ability to use another person’s reactions as information about how to think about the world

326
Q

imitation

A

ability to do what another person does

327
Q

zone of proximal development

A

distance between what a child can accomplish alone & what a child can accomplish with help on a task

328
Q

sociocultural theory

A

cognitive development is continuous process closely tied to environment in which children are raised

329
Q

scaffolding

A

cognitive support to work
through difficult tasks; withdraw support once child completes task independently

330
Q

imprinting

A

young organisms predisposed to form relationships w/ adults of their species

331
Q

Harry Harlow

A

experimented with rhesus monkeys to understand attachment style; examined whether mother-infant
attachment was based on
sustenance/food or
comfort/warmth

332
Q

Mary Ainsworth

A

Studied attachment: emotional tie with another person; all infants develop some type of attachment to caregivers
strange situation
allowed researchers to
systematically examine infant attachment to primary caregivers
Observation involving infant, mother, and stranger
Focused on how infants behave during various ‘episodes’

333
Q

infant attachment styles

A

secure attachment
ambivalent attachment
avoidant attachment
disorganized

334
Q

secure attachment

A

emotional closeness & healthy level of independence and exploration
Infant not distressed when
caregiver leaves; acknowledges caregiver’s
return
oftentimes have better cognitive functioning, psychological well-being, emotional adjustment

335
Q

ambivalent attachment

A

clingy, resist separation; Fearful of stranger; infant
distressed when caregiver
leaves; difficult to calm when caregiver returns

336
Q

avoidant attachment

A

infant not distressed
when caregiver leaves &
not acknowledge return

337
Q

disorganized attachment

A

no specific attachment pattern

338
Q

temperament

A

biologically-based (nature) pattern of attentional & emotional reactivity; influences attachment style

339
Q

parenting styles

A

authoritarian
authoritative
permissive
uninvolved

340
Q

authoritarian

A

focus on obedience; punishment over discipline

341
Q

authoritative

A

create positive relationship; enforce rules

342
Q

permissive

A

don’t enforce rules; kids will be kids

343
Q

uninvolved

A

provide little guidance, nurturing, and attention

344
Q

children & media

A

Higher amounts of externalizing behaviors; inattention; less sleep; more behavioral problems; behind on developmental
milestones; struggles self-regulating

345
Q

Kohlberg’s 3 stages of moral development:

A

preconventional, conventional, postconventional

346
Q

preconventional stage

A

childhood; limited understanding of morality beyond bad=punishment and good=reward

347
Q

conventional stage

A

adolescence; morals based on societal norms & pressures; want to be good AND conform to status quo

348
Q

postconventional stage

A

adulthood; morals based on internal, abstract principles irrespective of societal expectations; develop own ethical principles that reflect core values

349
Q

puberty

A

sexual maturity is
reached + reproduction is
possible, varies for everyone

350
Q

When does puberty (usually) begin for girls?

A

age 11

351
Q

When does puberty (usually) begin for boys?

A

age 13

352
Q

primary sex characteristics

A

bodily structures directly involved in reproduction (ex: testes, uterus)

353
Q

secondary sex characteristics

A

bodily structures NOT directly involved in reproduction (breast size, facial hair)

354
Q

What happens during adolescent brain development?

A

development (esp in frontal lobes, prefrontal cortex
synaptic pruning
myelination of axons

355
Q

During adolescent brain development, an individual is at the ____ of learning ability and is unable to fully inhibit _____

A

peak; impulses

356
Q

adverse childhood experiences (ACEs)

A

types of potentially traumatic experiences that occur before age 18

357
Q

ACEs can lead to:

A

risky behaviors, chronic
health conditions, low life potential, and early death

358
Q

Erik Erikson

A

developmental psych who studied personality & development across the lifespan; attempted to understand behavior from birth to death

359
Q

Erikson proposed:

A

8 stages of psychosocial development, each with a milestone

360
Q

8 stages of psychosocial development:

A
361
Q

infancy

A

birth - 2 years; Trust vs. Mistrust

362
Q

early childhood

A

2 - 4 years; Autonomy vs. Shame & Doubt

363
Q

preschool years

A

4 - 5 years; Initiative vs. Guilt

364
Q

school age

A

5 - 12 years; Industry vs. Inferiority

365
Q

adolescence

A

13 - 19 years; Identity vs. Role Confusion

366
Q

early adulthood

A

20 - 39 years; Intimacy vs. Isolation

367
Q

middle adulthood

A

40 - 64 years; Generativity vs. Stagnation

368
Q

maturity

A

65+ years; Ego Integrity vs. Despair

369
Q

As we grow older, our _____ and _____ change

A

roles; goals

370
Q

Goals of life (according to Erikson):

A

As you get older making new friends matters less; focus on maintaining them instead
No more saving for tomorrow
Instead of acquiring new information, focus on
what gives emotional satisfaction

psychology (4 decks)

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