Ch. 36

Question 1

While using lights and siren, most state laws permit an ambulance to:

 A. carefully exceed the posted speed limit.	
 B. disregard all traffic control signals.	
 C. proceed through red lights without stopping.	
 D. drive as fast as the department allows.

Answer 1

A.

Question 2

Common safety equipment carried on the ambulance includes all of the following, EXCEPT:

 A. hazardous materials gear.	
 B. safety goggles.	
 C. turnout gear.	
 D. face shields.

Answer 2

A.

Question 3

When being tailgated by another vehicle while responding to an emergency call, you should:

 A. stop the ambulance and confront the driver.	
 B. increase your speed to create more distance.	
 C. slam on the brakes to frighten the tailgater.	
 D. slow down and allow the driver to pass you.

Answer 3

D.

Question 4

Other than personal safety equipment, which of the following should be the MOST readily accessible item in the back of an ambulance?

 A. bleeding control supplies	
 B. pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) and traction splint	
 C. emergency childbirth kit	
 D. stethoscope and penlight

Answer 4

A.

Question 5

If hydroplaning of the ambulance occurs, the driver should:

 A. slowly move the steering wheel back and forth.	
 B. quickly jerk the steering wheel.	
 C. gradually slow down without jamming on the brakes.	
 D. slowly pump the brakes until he or she regains vehicle control.

Answer 5

C.

Question 6

The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called:

 A. cleaning.	
 B. disinfection.	
 C. sterilization.	
 D. high-level disinfection.

Answer 6

A.

Question 7

The LEAST practical place to store a portable oxygen cylinder is:

 A. in the driver's compartment.	
 B. inside the jump kit.	
 C. near the side or rear door.	
 D. on the ambulance stretcher.

Answer 7

A.

Question 8

Immediately upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call involving a traumatic injury, you should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and then:

 A. carefully assess the mechanism of injury.	
 B. quickly gain access to the patient.	
 C. determine if additional units are needed.	
 D. observe the scene for safety hazards.

Answer 8

D.

Question 9

After assessing your patient, you determine that his condition is stable. You provide the appropriate treatment and then load him into the ambulance. While en route to the hospital, you should:

 A. use your lights and siren but drive slowly and defensively.	
 B. turn your emergency lights off and obey all traffic laws.	
 C. drive slowly and remain in the far left-hand lane, if possible.	
 D. keep your emergency lights on but avoid using the siren.

Answer 9

B.

Question 10

When transporting a patient to the hospital, you should:

 A. be safe and get the patient to the hospital in the shortest practical time.	
 B. generally exceed the posted speed limit by 10 to 20 mph.	
 C. place the patient on a long backboard, even if no trauma is involved.	
 D. secure the patient to the ambulance stretcher with at least two straps.

Answer 10

A.

Question 11

Upon arriving at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash at night, you find that the safest place to park your ambulance is in a direction that is facing oncoming traffic. You should:

 A. turn all warning lights off.	
 B. place a flare near the crash.	
 C. quickly access the patient.	
 D. turn your headlights off.

Answer 11

D.

Question 12

When transporting a patient who is secured to a backboard, it is important to:

 A. place deceleration straps over the patient's shoulders.	
 B. place a folded towel or blanket under his or her head.	
 C. use at least eight straps to secure the patient to the board.	
 D. routinely elevate the head of the backboard 12″.

Answer 12

A.

Question 13

Characteristics of a safe ambulance operator include:

 A. realizing that lights and siren will be effective traffic tools.	
 B. an offensive attitude about driving during an emergency call.	
 C. the ability to operate an ambulance at a high rate of speed.	
 D. a positive attitude about the ability to tolerate other drivers.

Answer 13

D.

Question 14

Typically medivac helicopters fly between:

 A. 120 and 140 mph.	
 B. 100 and 120 mph.	
 C. 150 and 200 mph.	
 D. 130 and 150 mph.

Answer 14

D.

Question 15

In general, medivac helicopters should be utilized when:

 A. a patient has been in cardiac arrest for more than 15 minutes and has not responded to CPR and defibrillation.	
 B. ground transport would leave your service area without an ambulance for greater than 30 minutes.	
 C. ground transport to the hospital exceeds 30 to 45 minutes, even if the patient's present condition is stable.	
 D. a patient has a time-dependent injury or illness and traffic conditions would cause a significant delay in definitive care.

Answer 15

D.

Question 16

A disposable oxygen humidifier should be considered for ambulance services that often transport patients on runs longer than:

 A. 1 hour.	
 B. 3 hours.	
 C. 4 hours.	
 D. 2 hours.

Answer 16

A.

Question 17

During the transport phase of an ambulance call, it is MOST important to:

 A. reassess the patient only if he or she deteriorates.	
 B. converse with the patient and provide reassurance.	
 C. complete the run form before arrival at the hospital.	
 D. reassess unstable patients at least every 15 minutes.

Answer 17

B.

Question 18

Common activities that occur while you and your partner are en route to the scene of an emergency call include all of the following, EXCEPT:

 A. obtaining additional information from the dispatcher.	
 B. assigning tasks to each member of the response team.	
 C. fastening your seatbelts before the ambulance departs.	
 D. apprising the medical director of the nature of the call.

Answer 18

D.

Question 19

Delivering a patient to the hospital involves all of the following activities, EXCEPT:

 A. restocking any disposable items you used.	
 B. informing the dispatcher of your arrival.	
 C. giving a verbal report to the triage clerk.	
 D. completing a detailed written report.

Answer 19

C.

Question 20

When parking your ambulance at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you should position the ambulance:

 A. 50′ past the scene on the opposite side of the road.	
 B. 100′ past the scene on the same side of the road.	
 C. alongside the scene to rapidly access the patient(s).	
 D. 50′ before the scene on the same side of the road.

Answer 20

B.

Question 21

When a helicopter must land on a grade (uneven ground), you should:

 A. attempt to approach the aircraft from behind.	
 B. approach the aircraft from the uphill side.	
 C. approach the aircraft from the downhill side.	
 D. move the patient to the aircraft as soon as it lands.

Answer 21

C.

Question 22

A type _____ ambulance features a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed.

 A. II	
 B. III	
 C. I	
 D. IV

Answer 22

C.

Question 23

The six-pointed Star of Life® emblem identifies vehicles that:
.
A. are equipped with supplies to manage a mass-casualty situation.
B. are staffed by a minimum of one certified advanced EMT (AEMT).
C. have complied with state regulations for ambulance certification.
D. meet federal specifications as licensed or certified ambulances.

Answer 23

D.

Question 24

The main objective of traffic control at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is to:

 A. warn oncoming traffic and prevent another crash.	
 B. prevent curious onlookers from observing the scene.	
 C. get oncoming traffic past the scene as soon as possible.	
 D. facilitate a route for the media to access the scene.

Answer 24

A.

Question 25

Maintaining a cushion of safety when operating an ambulance means:

 A. keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirror's blind spots.	
 B. remaining in the far right-hand lane when transporting a critical patient and refraining from passing other motorists on the left side.	
 C. driving about 2 to 3 seconds behind any vehicles in front of you and exceeding the posted speed limit by no more than 20 to 25 mph.	
 D. driving at the posted speed limit, regardless of the patient's condition, and routinely using your lights and siren when driving on a freeway.

Answer 25

A.

Question 26

A portable oxygen cylinder should have a capacity of a minimum of ____ of oxygen.

 A. 500 L	
 B. 1,000 L	
 C. 250 L	
 D. 750 L

Answer 26

A.

Question 27

The purpose of a jump kit is to:

 A. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care.	
 B. facilitate defibrillation within 5 to 10 minutes after making patient contact.	
 C. manage a critically injured patient until he or she is loaded into the ambulance.	
 D. carry advanced life support equipment approved by the EMS medical director.

Answer 27

A.

Question 28

Regardless of where portable and mounted oxygen cylinders are stored in the ambulance, they must:
Choose one answer.
A. undergo hydrostatic testing on a weekly basis.
B. be easily identifiable by their bright green color.
C. hold a minimum capacity of 1,500 L of oxygen.
D. be capable of delivering oxygen at 1 to 15 L/min.

Answer 28

D.

Question 29

Upon returning to your station following a run, you should disinfect the ambulance as needed. Disinfection is MOST accurately defined as:

 A. removing dirt, dust, blood, or other grossly visible contaminants.	
 B. destroying pathogenic agents by using potent disinfection means.	
 C. killing pathogenic agents with a chemical made for that purpose.	
 D. using heat as a means of removing all microbial contaminants.

Answer 29

C.

Question 30

If you properly assess and stabilize a patient at the scene, driving to the hospital with excessive speed:

 A. is often necessary if the patient is critical.	
 B. is allowable according to state law.	
 C. increases the patient's chance for survival.	
 D. will decrease the driver's reaction time.

Answer 30

D.

Question 31

For every emergency request, the dispatcher should routinely gather and record all of the following information, EXCEPT the:

 A. patient's medical history.	
 B. location of the patient(s).	
 C. caller's phone number.	
 D. nature of the call.

Answer 31

A.

Question 32

When approaching a helicopter, whether the rotor blades are moving or not, you should:

 A. remember that the main rotor blade is flexible and can dip as low as 5′ to 6′ from the ground.	
 B. never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas.	
 C. carefully approach the aircraft from the rear unless a crew member instructs you to do otherwise.	
 D. approach the aircraft from the side because this will make it easier for you to access the aircraft doors.

Answer 32

B.

Question 33

Hydroplaning of the ambulance on wet roads would MOST likely occur at speeds of greater than _____ mph.

 A. 30	
 B. 15	
 C. 20	
 D. 10

Answer 33

A.

Question 34

Minimum staffing in the patient compartment of a basic life support (BLS) ambulance includes:

 A. at least two EMTs.	
 B. an EMT and an AEMT.	
 C. an EMT and a paramedic.	
 D. at least one EMT.

Answer 34

D.

Question 35

You are en route to an emergency call when you approach a slow-moving vehicle on a two-way road. You can see oncoming traffic in the other lane. The driver has his windows up and does not realize that you are behind him. You should:

 A. use your public address (PA) system to alert the driver.	
 B. remain at a safe distance until it is safe to pass.	
 C. quickly pass the vehicle on the left side.	
 D. pass the driver on the right-hand shoulder.

Answer 35

B.

Question 36

The use of lights and siren on an ambulance:

 A. is required any time a patient is being transported to the hospital.	
 B. signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way.	
 C. allows other drivers to hear and see you from a great distance.	
 D. legally gives the emergency vehicle operator the right of way.

Answer 36

B.

Question 37

It is 10:30 PM and you have requested air medical transport for a critically injured patient. When you arrive at the designated landing zone, you should:

 A. mark the landing site using personnel with flashlights.	
 B. mark the proposed landing area with road flares.	
 C. provide the flight crew with a patient status update.	
 D. survey the area for power lines or other hazards.

Answer 37

D.

Question 38

Aggressive ambulance driving may have a negative effect on other motorists because:

 A. they move to the right or drive as close to the curb as possible.	
 B. they often freeze when they see the lights in the rearview mirror.	
 C. they may become enraged and attempt to run you off the road.	
 D. it may not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle.

Answer 38

D.

Question 39

Equipment and supplies that are carried on an ambulance should be stored:

 A. in locked or secured cabinets in order to prevent theft.	
 B. as directed by the EMS system's medical director.	
 C. based on recommendations of the health department.	
 D. according to the urgency and frequency of their use.

Answer 39

D.

Question 40

Minimum airway and ventilation equipment that should be carried on every ambulance include all of the following, EXCEPT:

 A. mounted and portable suctioning units.	
 B. various sizes of oral and nasal airways.	
 C. adult and pediatric bag-mask devices.	
 D. Combitubes or laryngeal mask airways.

Answer 40

D.