Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Advanced Pharmacology Nrsg 107 > Ch. 34, 56, 57 & 58 Quiz > Flashcards

Ch. 34, 56, 57 & 58 Quiz Flashcards

1
Q

Name and upper UTI and tell how it is usually gotten.

A

Acute Pyelonephritis - usually develops from a lower UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are some s/s of an upper UTI?

A

Chills, fever, flank pain, painful urination, urgency, frequency, pyuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name 3 lower UTIs.

A

Acute cystitis, urethritis, and prostatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What organisms usually cause a lower UTI?

A

E. coli, Staph, Klebsiella, Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are some s/s of a lower UTI?

A

Pain and burning on urination, frequency, urgency, foul smelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a combo drug often used to treat UTIs and what is the purpose of using it?

A

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim). Used to prevent trimethoprim resistant organisms b/c single agent treatment can lead to drug resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name the 5 classes of drugs used to fight UTIs.

A

Urinary Anti-infectives, Sulfanomides, Fluoroquinolones, Penicillins, and 3rd-generation Cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What anti-infective treats UTIs?

A

Nitrofurantoin (Furadantin, Macrodantin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What Sulfanomides are used to treat UTIs?

A

Trimethoprim-sulphamethazole (Bactrim)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What Fuoroquinolones are used to treat UTIs?

A

Nalidaxic acid (Neg-Gam), ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What Penicillins are used to treat UTIs?

A

Amoxicillin/clavulanic acid (Augmentin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What 3rd-generation Cephalosporins are used to treat UTIs?

A

Cefixime (Maxipime)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does Nitrofurantoin work?

A

Treats gram+ and gram- and inhibits bacterial enzymes and metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the side effects of Nitrofurantoin?

A

Rust or brown colored urine, N/V, rash, pruruitis, dizziness, HA, drowsiness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What would some adverse reactions to Nitrofurantoin be?

A

Superinfection, peripheral neuropathy, hepatotoxicity, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, and blood dyscrasias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some nursing interventions when administering Nitrofurantoin?

A

Take with food to decrease GI distress, Shake liquid suspension well, rinse mouth after taking drug, avoid antacids (2hrs before and after), Increase fluid intake, consume cranberry juice, plums, proteins, vitamin C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What food should not be eaten when taking Nitrofurantoin and why?

A

Grapefruit b/c it hinders absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What antiseptic/antiinfective is effective against Pseudomonas and E. coli?

A

Methenamine hippurate (Hiprex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When is Methenamine hippurate (Hiprex) bactericidal?

A

When urine is acidic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What other class of drug should NOT be taken with Methenamine hippurate (Hiprex) and why?

A

Sulfonamides b/c they may cause crystalluria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What client teaching is appropriate with Methenamine hippurate (Hiprex)?

A

Consume acidic foods and fluids; Vitamin C produces an acid-ash diet (meat, fish, eggs, and cereals), which enhances the function of this medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does Methenamine hippurate (Hiprex) treat?

A

Treats chronic UITS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a urinary analgesic used to treat the symptoms of a UTI?

A

Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)…doesn’t actually treat the UTI, it treats the symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) relieve?

A

N/V and diarrhea (should report if severe b/c may become dehydrated); Red-orange urine: this is an expected SE (most common)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are some adverse reactions to Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)?

A

Blood dyscrasia, nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Name a urinary stimulant.

A

Bthanechol (Urecholine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does Bethanechol (Urecholine) treat and how?

A

Treats hypotonic bladder by increasing bladder tone of detrusor muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are some contraindications of using Behtanechol (Urecholine)?

A

Peptic ulcer, COPD (may cause bronchodilation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are some SE/adverse reactions of Bethanechol (Urecholine)?

A

GI distress, dizziness, fainting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Name a urinary Antispasmodic.

A

Oxybutynin (Ditropan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How does Oxybutynin (Ditropan) work?

A

Direct action on smooth muscles to relieve spasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are some SE/adverse reactions of Oxybutynin (Ditropan)?

A

Drowsiness, tachycardia, dizziness, fainting, blurred vision, dry mouth, constipation (has similar effects as anticholinergics)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When should Oxybutynin (Ditropan) be avoided?

A

Avoid in narrow-angle glaucoma, cardiac, renal, hepatic, prostate problems, urinary and GI obstructions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Name an Antimuscarinic and what it does?

A

Tolterodine tartrate (Detrol). It blocks parasympathetic nerve impulses to control overactive bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the side effects of Tolterodine tartrate (Detrol)?

A

Drowsiness, tachycardia, dizziness, fainting, blurred vision, dry mouth, constipation (may also cause urinary retention which needs to be reported)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are some contraindications for Tolterodine tartrate (Detrol)?

A

To be avoided if client has narrow-angle glaucoma or cardiac, renal, hepatic, prostate problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does the client need to be taught when taking Tolterodine tartrate (Detrol)?

A

Teach the client to palpate their bladder and report if there is tenderness or pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A client with a lower UTI has been prescribed nitrofurantoin (Mcrodantin). What side effects/adverse reactions would the nurse teach the client to expect? A.) Irritability; B.) Anxiety; C.) Crystalluria; D.) Brown, discolored urine

A

D.) Brown, discolored urine. Nitrofurantoin may cause a rust or brown discoloration of urine. Drowsiness, not irritability and anxiety, is a side effect. Nitrofurantoin does not cause crystalluria as methenamine or sulfa preparations do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A client entering the medical clinic has been dx with an overactive bladder. Which medication would the nurse expect to be ordered? A.) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro); B.) Oxybutynin (Ditropan); C.) Bethanechol (Urecholine); D.) Tolterodine tartrate (Detrol)

A

D.) Tolterodine tartrate (Detrol). Tolterodine tartrate is an antimuscarinic that controls an overactive bladder. Ciprofloxacin is a fluroquinolone antibiotic, oxybutynin relieves urinary spasms, and bethanechol is a urinary stimulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Why are most oral contraceptives commonly used?

A

Most commonly used for pregnancy prevention, endometriosis, dysmenorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the method of action of estrogen products?

A

Prevents formation of dominant estrogen-producing follicle so estrogen levels remain constant and ovulation is inhibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the 3 types of estrogen/progestin combinations?

A

Monophasic (fixed E:P ratio throughout cycle), Biphasic (estrogen fixed, progestin varies), and Triphasic (low doses of both with minimal side effects)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What was the first chewable oral contraceptives?

A

Femcon FE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What was the first continuous dose oral contraceptive?

A

Lybrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is Loestrin 24 Fe?

A

First 24 days of active hormones and 4 days Fe (iron)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which oral contraceptive combines ethinylestradiol with progestin drospirenone?

A

Yaz (combo with diuretic) - fewer side effects than ones in the past

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Name 3 progestin-only oral contracetives.

A

Ovrette, Ortho Micronor, and Nor-QD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the action of progestin-only oral contraceptives?

A

Alters cervical mucus (thickens it to slow sperm passage). Alters endometrium to inhibit implantation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does a client do if they miss a dose of progestin-only contraceptive?

A

Take tablet as soon as realize and back up contraception for 48 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the guidelines for missed doses of oral contraceptives?

A

1 tab = take tab as soon as realized, take the next pill as scheduled; 2 tabs = take 2 tabs for 2 days with next tablet as scheduled, use a backup method of contraception for the rest of the cycle; 3 tabs = discontinue the present pack and allow for withdrawal bleeding. Start a new package of tabs 7 days after the last tab was taken. Use another form of contraception until tabs have been taken for 7 consecutive days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is spotting/bleeding between periods called?

A

Breakthrough bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are some side effects due to estrogen EXCESS?

A

N/V, dizziness, fluid retention, bloating, breast enlargement, leg cramps, decreased tearing and visual changes, HA, hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are some side effects due to estrogen DEFICIENCY?

A

Nervousness, dyspareunia (pain in the labia, vagina, or pelvis during or after sexual intercourse), vaginal bleeding, oligomenorrhea (scanty or infrequent menstrual flow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are some contraindications for contraceptive use?

A

Pregnancy, venous thrombosis, vascular disease, liver disease, breast cancer, smoking > 15 per day if over 35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is dyspareunia?

A

Pain in the labia, vagina, or pelvis during or after sexual intercourse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are some side effects due to EXCESS progestin?

A

Increased appetite, weight gain, decreased breast size. Oily skin and scalp, acne, excess hair growth, depression. Vaginitis from yeast, amenorrhea after cessation of use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are some side effects from progestin DEFICIENCY?

A

Dysmenorrhea (painful menstrual cramps), bleeding late in cycle, heavy flow with clots, amenorrhea (absence of menstrual bleeding)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What drugs do oral contraceptives decrease the effectiveness of?

A

Oral anticoagulants and oral hypoglycemics (Monitor PT/INR & blood glucose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What effect does an oral contraceptive have on PT/INR levels?

A

It decreases them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What might you have to do when taking an oral contraceptive with anticoagulants?

A

Increase the dose of anticoagulant meds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What does an oral contraceptive do to a client’s blood glucose?

A

Increases it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

When do you ABSOLUTELY not take oral contraceptives?

A

Pregnancy (#1), breastfeeding, hypertension (If monitoring pre-hypertension, may be put on it after assessing other risk factors), heavy smoking habit, multiple risk factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the #1 side effect in oral contraceptives?

A

DVT (Deep Vein Thrombosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are some cautions against using oral contraceptives?

A

Undiagnosed genital bleeding, postpartum less than 21 days, hyperlipidemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are you at risk for if you smoke while taking an oral contraceptive?

A

Cardiovascular disease

66
Q

What client teaching is necessary with oral contraceptives?

A

Take at same time each day, Managing missed doses, Monitor for skin reactions with use of patches, Notify MD for menstrual changes (dysmenorrhea, amenorrhea, breakthrough bleeding), smoking increases risk of CV complications

67
Q

What alternate method of birth control is a IM injection every 3 months?

A

Depo-Provera

68
Q

What are the side effects of Depo-Provera?

A

Breast tenderness, depression, irregular spotting, some bone density loss, and slowed return to fertility (also causes weight gain and fluid retention)

69
Q

What is the first weekly form of birth control?

A

Ortho Evra - Patch (need to monitor for skin reactions)

70
Q

What is Implanon?

A

Birth control implant under the skin of your arm

71
Q

What is Nuvaring?

A

Flexible plastic vaginal ring that releases a low dose of progestin and estrogen over 3 weeks

72
Q

What is a female condom?

A

A barrier contraceptive that decreases the risk of STIs and unintended pregnancies

73
Q

Name an IUD?

A

Mirena - inserted into the uterus

74
Q

What is the function of Mirena?

A

After placement in the uterus it thickens the cervical mucosa

75
Q

How long can the IUD Mirena last?

A

Can last for 5 years

76
Q

What is Mirena used for?

A

Used for barrier contraceptive and heavy menstrual flow

77
Q

How long has emergency contraception been available?

A

Available for more than 25 years

78
Q

What are EC pills called?

A

Morning after pills

79
Q

What is the Yuzpe regimen?

A

By combining pills in a specific order, the estrogen and progestrin in those pills work to prevent an unplanned pregnancy before it starts. Most effective when used whithin 72 hrs after having unprotected sex

80
Q

What is a copper IUD used for?

A

Can be inserted up to 5 days after unprotected sex to prevent pregnancy

81
Q

How affective is emergency contraception?

A

Approx. 80-90% effective if taken correctly

82
Q

What does the acronym ACHES stand for?

A

A = Abdominal pain (severe); C = Chest pain or SOB (PE that’s caused by DVT); H = Headaches that are severe; dizziness, weakness, numbness, speech difficulties; E = Eye disorders including blurring or loss of vision; S = Severe leg pain or swelling in the calf or thigh (DVT s/s)

83
Q

Why is the acronym ACHES used?

A

It is used for dangerous side effects that must be reported to a health care provider

84
Q

What is endometriosis?

A

Occurs when cells from the lining (endometrium) of the uterus grow in other areas of the body

85
Q

What pharmacologic agents are used to treat symptoms of endometriosis?

A

Danazol and Leupride acetate

86
Q

What is the function of Danazol?

A

To reduce heavy bleeding and decrease breast pain in fibrocystic breast disease and decrease the amount of hormones made by the ovaries (which make endometriosis worse)

87
Q

What is the function of Leupride acetate?

A

Used for no more than 6 months. It suppresses estrogen so menopausal symptoms commonly appear but will disappear within 3-5 months

88
Q

What else is Leupride acetate used for besides endometriosis?

A

Also used for prostate CA, relief from fibroids, and fertility

89
Q

What are the symptoms of menopause?

A

Lighter menstrual flow, hot flashes, vaginal dryness

90
Q

What are the treatments for menopause?

A

Hormone replacement therapy and estrogen replacement therapy

91
Q

Why is hormone replacement therapy done?

A

For relief of symptoms such as vaginal dryness, hot flashes, sleep disorders

92
Q

When is progestin/estrogen replacement therapy done?

A

Progestin is used if uterus is still present - The progestin prevents endometrial hyperplasia that can lead to CA. Estrogen is used for pts that have had a hysterectomy

93
Q

How is hormone replacement therapy done?

A

At lowest dose and shortest duration possible (usually less than 5 years)

94
Q

What are the selected agents used for hormone replacement therapy?

A

Provera, Estraderm transdermal system, Climara Pro, Vaginal cream, Estring, Femring, Estrogel, and Estrasorb

95
Q

How long should contraception be used after menopause?

A

Contraception should be used until 1 year after cessation of spontaneous menstruation

96
Q

How are the symptoms of menopause managed?

A

Increase calcium in diet, weight-bearing exercises such as walking, avoid caffeine and ETOH consumption in excess (occasional use is OK), avoid red meats and excess sugar, use water-soluble lubricant for vaginal dryness, stay hydrated and layer clothing to treat hot flashes

97
Q

What is an Estradiol transdermal system?

A

Menostar patch. One time a wk patch used for prevention of postmenopausal osteoporosis. Estrogen patch - lowest transdermal dose available

98
Q

What is alendronate (Fosamax)?

A

A bisphosphonate used to treat osteopenia and osteoporosis

99
Q

How is alendronate (Fosamax) administered?

A

Daily or weekly dosing. Take with full glass (8oz) water before first food of the day and remain upright for at least 30 minutes (eliminates GI upset b/c of acidity)

100
Q

What kind of hormone replacement therapy is Provera?

A

Oral progestin hormone for prevention of endometrial hyperplasia

101
Q

What kind of hormone replacement therapy is Estraderm Transdermal System and Climara Pro?

A

Transdermal estrogen system is a skin patch that is applied to intact skin in the prescribed dose, changed 2x week or weekly depending on the product

102
Q

What kind of hormone replacement therapy is vaginal creams?

A

Treatment of vaginal atrophy, which causes painful intercourse and urinary difficulties

103
Q

What kind of hormone replacement is Estring?

A

An elastomer ring that provides a consistent low dose of estrogen, inserted into the vagina for 3 months

104
Q

What kind of hormone replacement therapy is Femring?

A

Contains estrogen in a soft, flexible silicone ring for treatment of menopausal symptoms, inserted into the upper vagina for 3 months

105
Q

What kind of hormone replacement therapy is Estrogel?

A

Thin film (delivered via a pump daily) applied to one arm from the shoulder to wrist for treatment of moderate to severe vasomotor symptoms

106
Q

What kind of hormone replacement therapy is Estrasorb?

A

A lotion that is applied to legs for relief of vasomotor symptoms?

107
Q

Which agents to treat menopause can be applied to the skin?

A

Estrogel and Estrasorb

108
Q

What are the medications used to treat/prevent osteoporosis pre/during/post menopause?

A

Estradiol transdermal system (Menostar), Alendronate (Fosamax), Ibandronate sodium (Actonel), Raloxifene (Evista), and Teriparatide (Forteo)

109
Q

Which osteoporosis medication is taken monthly for menopause?

A

Ibandronate sodium (Boniva) 1x/month. Take with a full glass (8oz) water before first food for the day and remain upright for at least 30 minutes. Used to treat and prevent postmenopausal osteoporosis

110
Q

Why is Risedronate (Actonel) taken for in menopause?

A

It is used to treat and prevent postmenopausal osteoporosis

111
Q

Why is Raloxifene (Evista) taken during menopause and what are you at a high risk for while on this med?

A

Taken to increase bone mineral density, decrease bone turnover, and decrease vertebral fractures. High risk for DVTs

112
Q

What is Teriparatide (Forteo) used for and how is it administered?

A

Used to treat postmenopausal osteoporosis. Parathyroid hormone taken subQ daily.

113
Q

Considering common concerns of teenage girls, which of these oral contraceptive benefits does the nurse realize would be most likely to motivate use? A.) Protection against breast disease; B.) Dysmenorrhea relief; C.) Reduction in iron deficiency anemia; D.) Decreased risk of endometrial cancer

A

B.) Dysmenorrhea

114
Q

A client is taking Tri-Levlen and reports the most troubling side effect to be depression. The client has also experienced weight gain. The nurse knows that these are usually associated with… A.) estrogen deficiency; B.) progestin deficiency; C.) excess progestin; D.) excess of estrogen

A

C.) excess progestin

115
Q

What is the main androgen and how is it best administered?

A

Main androgen is testosterone and is well absorbed by IM injections

116
Q

When is testosterone treatment indicated?

A

Hypogonadism (resulting in lowered testosterone, infertility, lack of hair growth, decreased libido, and erectile dysfunction) and Constitutional growth delay (Androgen deficiency can cause a deficiency in growth hormone)

117
Q

What other drugs does androgen therapy interact with?

A

Anticoagulants (warfarin), barbiturates, phenytoin, corticosteroids (decreases the effects of androgen therapy)

118
Q

What lab interactions do androgens effect?

A

Decreases blood glucose in diabetics; increases cholesterol, thyroid, liver function, hematocrit; Increases PT/INR

119
Q

What are some common side effects of androgens?

A

Abdominal pain, nausea, diarrhea, increases salivation

120
Q

What are some adverse reactions to androgen therapy?

A

Masculinization, urinary urgency, gynecomastia (development of breast tissue in men), priapism (painful erection that lasts a while), allergic reaction, habituation (decreased response after repeated doses), depression

121
Q

What are some contraindications for androgen use?

A

Pregnancy, Nephrosis or nephrotic phase of nephritis, hypercalcemia, pituitary insufficiency, hepatic dysfunction, BPH, prostate cancer

122
Q

What are some cautions against androgen usage?

A

Hypertension, Hypercholesterolemia, CAD, gynecomastia, renal disease, seizure disorder

123
Q

Should oral androgens be taken with or without food?

A

With food to decrease gastric distress

124
Q

What is an anabolic steroid?

A

Synthetic derivatives of testosterone

125
Q

Why were anabolic steroids developed?

A

Maximize anabolic effects of androgens. Minimize their androgenic effects

126
Q

How do you prevent kidney stones?

A

Drink 2-3L of water a day

127
Q

Name some antiandrogens?

A

GnRH, Ketoconazole, Cyproterone acetate, Flutamide, and Finasteride

128
Q

What does GnRH stand for?

A

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone

129
Q

What does GnRH do?

A

Inhibits testosterone synthesis

130
Q

What does Ketoconazole (Nizoral) do?

A

Anti-fungal that inhibits testosterone synthesis and is used for treatment of prostate cancer

131
Q

What is Cyproterone acetate and what does it do?

A

It is an androgen antagonist (blocks the action of testosterone). It also suppresses LH and FSH secretion and has progestational qualities

132
Q

What does Flutamide (Eulexin) do?

A

It is used with estrogen to treat prostate cancer and prevents stimulation of cancer cells by the androgens

133
Q

What is the suffix -azole used for?

A

Anti-fungal agents

134
Q

What does Finasteride (Proscar) do?

A

Treats male pattern baldness and BPH

135
Q

What type of drug enhances blood flow to the penis and facilitates erections?

A

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors

136
Q

What are some phosphodiesterase inhibitors?

A

Sildenafil citrate (Viagra), Vardenafil (Levitra), Tadalafil (Cialis), Apomorphine (Uprima), and Phentolamine (Vasomax)

137
Q

What are the major side effects of phosphodiesterase inhibitors?

A

HA (most common), dyspepsia, nasal congestion, and nasopharyngitis

138
Q

What contraindications are there for phosphodiesterase inhibitors?

A

If taking nitrates b/c it can cause significant drop in BP (nitrates are vasodilators that open up the blood vessels)

139
Q

What is an adverse reaction of phosphodiesterase inhibitors?

A

Priapism = abnormal, painful, and continuous erection of the penis

140
Q

What is the only natural product that works for sexual performance?

A

Yohimbine

141
Q

What does Yohimbine do?

A

It is an alpha-adrenergic antagonist that affects both the central and peripheral nervous system; causes an increase in peripheral blood flow which increases BP

142
Q

Where does Yohimbine come from?

A

The bark of the African yohimbe tree

143
Q

What are the side effects of Yohimbine?

A

HA, dizziness, HTN

144
Q

When is Yohimbine contraindicated?

A

If heart disease is present

145
Q

What types of drugs are used to treat BPH?

A

5-alpha reductase inhibitors and alpha-adrenergic blocking agents

146
Q

What are the 5-alpha reductase inhibitors?

A

Finasteride (Proscar) and Dutasteride (Avodart, Duagen)

147
Q

What are the alpha-adrenergic blocking agents?

A

Tamsulosin (Flomax), Doxazosin (Cardura), Terazosin (Hytrin), and Alfuzosin (Uroxatrel) - All of these end in the suffix -sin

148
Q

What is a common side effect of an androgen shot?

A

Abdominal pain and hives at the injection site

149
Q

What is a common side effect of alph-adrenergic blockers?

A

Orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, and fatigue

150
Q

The nurse teaches a client that sildenafil is contraindicated for clients taking which category of medications? A.) Sulfonylureas; B.) Beta blockers; C.) Nitrates; D.) Proton pump inhibitors

A

C.) Nitrates

151
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary infertility?

A

Primary infertility is when they have never conceived or carried to term and secondary infertility is when they have conceived and carried to term, but unable to conceive again

152
Q

What 3 drugs are used to stimulate ovulation and what are their side effects?

A

Clomiphene citrate (Clomid): fatigue, dizziness, N/V, HA, fluid retention & depression; Bromocriptine mesylate (Parlodel): suppress prolactin (which stimulates milk production) which in high levels can cause infertility; Recombinant FSH, recombinant LH, and recobinant hCG: ovarian hyperstimulation which increases risk of multiple births

153
Q

What mimics natural GnRH release?

A

Pulsatile exogenous GnRH (IV admin in pulses vs. continuous infusions to mimic natural response)

154
Q

What type of therapy is pulsatile exogenous GnRH used for?

A

Hypothyroidism, Hyperthyroidism, Adrenal dysfunction, endometriosis, and inadequate luteal-phase progesterone output

155
Q

What is done for inadequate luteal-phase progesterone output?

A

Progesterone IM or intravaginally

156
Q

What is the treatment for gonorrhea?

A

Ceftriaxone or cefixime and azithromycin or doxycycline (when treating gonorrhea client should be concurrently be treated for chlamydia)

157
Q

What is the suffix used for bacterial STI medications?

A

-mycin

158
Q

What is the suffix used for viral STI medications?

A

-vir

159
Q

Which STIs are bacterial infections?

A

Chancroid, Chlamydia, Gonorrhea, Granuloma inguinale, Lymphogranuloma venereum, Nongonococcal urethritis, Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID), Syphiis, and Trichomoniasis

160
Q

Which STIs are viral infections?

A

Genital warts (HPV), Hepatitis A, B, & C, Genital herpes simplex, and Molluscum contagiosum

161
Q

Which STIs can be either bacterial or viral infections?

A

Acute urethral syndrome, Epididymitis, Mucopurulent cervicitis, and Proctitis

Advanced Pharmacology Nrsg 107 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions