Ch 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Anesthetic agent?

A

– any drug used to induce a loss of sensation with or without unconsciousness.

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2
Q

Adjunct?

A

– used to describe a drug that is not a true anesthetic but that is used during anesthesia to produce other desired effects such as sedation, muscle relaxation, analgesia, reversal, neuromuscular blockage, or parasympathetic blockade. (used as part of a balanced anesthesia.

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3
Q

Agonist – Antagonists?

A

– bind to more than one receptor type and simultaneously stimulate at least one and block at least one. Both partial agonists and agonist-antagonists are sometimes used to partially block the effects of pure agonists

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4
Q

Agonists?

A

– bind to and stimulate tissue receptors. Most anesthetics and adjuncts are classified as agonists.

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5
Q

Antagonists?

A

– bind to but do not stimulate receptors. These drugs are given after an agonist of the same class to “wake” the patient after anesthesia or sedation. They are called reversal agents because they reverse the effects of the corresponding agonist.

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6
Q

partial agonists?

A

– bind to and partially stimulate receptors.

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7
Q

preanesthetic medications?

A

– drugs given before general anesthesia

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8
Q

induction agents?

A

– drugs used to induce general anesthesia

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9
Q

maintenance agents?

A

– drugs used to maintain general anesthesia

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10
Q

Neuroblockers?

A

– infrequently used in general practice, are used to relax or paralyze skeletal muscles during ophthalmic, orthopedic, or other surgeries.

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11
Q

Anticholinergics?

A

– agents that are used to decrease effects of parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) stimulation such as bradycardia and excessive salivation. Also known as parasympatholytics

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12
Q

reversal agents?

A

– lessen or abolish the effects of other anesthetic agents and are therefore used to “wake” the patient after sedation or anesthesia.

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13
Q

pharmacokinetics?

A

– the effect the body has on a drug, including movement of a drug in the body

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14
Q

pharmacodynamics?

A

– the effect that a drug has on the body. Drug action

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15
Q

mydriasis?

A

– dilation of the pupil of the eye. opposite of miosis – constriction of the pupil

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16
Q

dead space?

A

– the breathing passages and the tubes that convey fresh oxygen from the source (the atomosphere or the breathing circuit) to the alveoli, but in which no gas exchange can occur

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17
Q

apnea?

A

– a temporary absence of spontaneous breathing

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18
Q

apneustic respiration?

A

– a breathing pattern, most often seen during dissociative anesthesia, in which there is a pause for several seconds at the end of the inspiratory phase, followed by a short, quick expiratory phase

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19
Q

ataxia?

A
  • inability to coordinate movement
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20
Q

bagging?

A

– inflating the patient’s lungs by squeezing the reservoir bag. Manual, positive-pressure ventilation

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21
Q

cataleptoid state?

A

– a state produced by dissociative agents, in which the patient does not respond to external stimuli and has a variable degree of muscle rigidity.

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22
Q

colic?

A

– severe abdominal pain of sudden onset caused by a variety of conditions including obstruction, twisting, or spasm of the intestinal tract

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23
Q

cortisol?

A

– a natural steroid hormone, secreted by the adrenal cortex, which plays a role in protein, carbohydrate, and fat metabolism

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24
Q

dysphoria?

A

– anxiety, uneasiness, and restlessness most often produced by opioids; the opposite of euphoria

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25
enantiomers?
– a mixture of two molecules that are mirror images on one another (dextrorotatory molecule and levorotatory molecule) dextrorotatory rotates the plane of polarized light to the right and levorotatory rotates it to the left
26
dextrorotatory and levorotatory molecules?
dextrorotatory rotates the plane of polarized light to the right and levorotatory rotates it to the left
27
fasciculations?
– involuntary muscle twitching
28
hypoventilation?
– possible adverse effect on all inhalation agents. Predisposes the animal to CO₂ retention and respiratory acidosis
29
neuroleptanalgesia?
– a state of profound sedation and analgesia induced by the stimulation administration of an opioid and a tranquillizer
30
nystagmus?
– a rhythmic, involuntary oscillation of both eyes
31
somatic analgesia?
– absence of pain of the skin, muscle, bone, and connective tissue
32
status epilepticus?
– continuous seizures, or a series of seizures in rapid succession
33
tachycardia?
– rapid heart rate
34
Tachypnea?
rapid respiratory rate
35
tidal volume - Vᴛ?
- the volume of a normal breath (approx 10 – 15 mL/kg body weight)
36
visceral analgesia?
– absence of pain in the internal organs
37
visceral pain?
pain originating from the internal organs
38
A neuroleptanalgesic is a combination of?
an opioid and a tranquilizer
39
Most preanesthetics will not cross the placental barrier? true or false
false
40
It is recommended that atropine not be given to an animal that has tachycardia? T or F
True
41
Anticholinergic drugs such as atropine block the release of acetylcholine at the ?
Muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic system
42
High doses of opioids can cause bradycardia and respiratory depression? T or F
True
43
Severe bradycardia caused by dexmedetomidine is best treated with the following drug?
Atipamezole
44
Opioids may be reversed with?
Naloxone
45
Which of the following drugs will precipitate out when mixed with other drugs or solutions?
Diazepam
46
Etomidate is partially well suited for induction of dogs with which of the following problems?
Severe cardiac disease
47
Which of the following is an example of a dissociative anesthetic?
Ketamine hydrochloride
48
One of the disadvantages of the drug methohexital is that animals that are anesthetized with it may demonstrate excitement during recovery? T or F
True
49
Compared with methoxyflurane, isoflurane is considered to have a?
Higher vapor pressure
50
An anesthetic agent that has a low blood-gas partition coefficient will result in ______ induction and recovery time.
Fast
51
Which of the following has the lowest blood-gas partition coefficient?
Sevoflurane
52
As a rough guideline, to safely maintain a surgical plane of anesthesia, the vaporizer should be set at about?
1.5 x MAC
53
Propofol sometimes causes transient apnea. To avoid this, the anesthetist should?
To titrate this drug in several boluses
54
One problem frequently associated with recovery from tiletamine- zolazapam in dogs is?
Excitement
55
The concentration of barbiturate entering the brain is affected by a variety of factors such as?
Perfusion of the brain Lipid solubility of the drug Plasma protein levels Blood pH
56
Effects that are commonly hereinafter administration of a dissociative include?
increased blood pressure increased heart rate increased CSF pressure increased intraocular pressure
57
Adverse effects common with isoflurane include?
Depression of respiration
58
MAC will vary with?
Body temperature of the patient Age of the patient Concurrent use of other drugs Anesthetic agent
59
Factors that may affect the speed of anesthesic induction with a volitile gaseous anesthetic include?
Partition coefficient of the agent | Vaporizer setting
60
Which of the following are alpha2 - agonists?
Xylazine and Dexmedetomidine
61
Effects that Atropine may have on the body include?
Decreased salivation Decreased gastrointestinal mobility Mydriasis
62
Characteristic effects of the benzodiazepines include?
Muscle relaxation | Minimal effect on cardiovascular system
63
Which of the anesthetics are used to anesthetize patients with cardiac diseases?
Isoflurane
64
What is MAC?
Minimum alveolar concentration
65
What is the MAC of an anesthetic agent?
the lowest concentration at which 50% of patients show no response to a painful stimulus
66
Why is it significant to know the MAC of an anesthetic agent?
It is a measure of the potency of a agent and is used to determine the average setting that must be used to produce surgical anesthesia