ch 3 Flashcards

1
Q

adjunct

A

A drug that is not a true anesthetic but that is used during anesthesia to produce other desired effects such as sedation, muscle relaxation, analgesia, reversal, neuromuscular blockade, or parasympathetic blockade.

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2
Q

agonist-antagonist

A

A drug that binds to more than one receptor type, simultaneously stimulating at least one and blocking at least one.

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3
Q

analeptic agent

A

a drug that causes general central nervous system stimulation

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4
Q

anesthetic agent

A

Any drug used to induce a loss of sensation with or without unconsciousness

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5
Q

antagonists

A

a drug that binds to but does not stimulate receptors

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6
Q

anticholinergics

A

An adjunct that lessens parasympathetic effects by blocking muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic nervous system. Also known as parasympatholytic.

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7
Q

apnea

A

A temporary absence of spontaneous breathing

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8
Q

apneustic respiration

A

A breathing pattern, most often seen during dissociative anesthesia, in which there is a pause for several seconds at the end of the inspiratory phase, followed by a short, quick expiratory phase.

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9
Q

ataxia

A

Inability to coordinate movement

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10
Q

bagging

A

Inflating the patient’s lungs by squeezing the reservoir bag, manual positive pressure ventilation.

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11
Q

cataleptioid state

A

A state produced by dissociative agents, in which a patient does not respond to external stimuli and has a variable degree of muscle rigidity.

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12
Q

colic

A

severe abdominal pain of sudden onset caused by a variety of conditions including obstruction, twisting, or spasm of the intestinal tract.

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13
Q

cortisol

A

A natural steroid hormone, secreted by the adrenal cortex, which plays a role in protein, carbohydrate, and fat metabolism

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14
Q

dead space

A

The breathing passages and tubes that convey fresh oxygen from the source d(the atmosphere or the breathing circuit) to the alveoli, but in which no gas exchange can occur. Anatomic dead space includes the bronchi, trachea, larynx, pharynx, and nasal cavity. Mechanical dead space includes the Y-piece of the breathing circuit, where there is bidirectional flow of gases, and the portion of the endotracheal tube extending beyond the nose or the Y-piece and face mask.

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15
Q

desiccated

A

Dried or dehydrated

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16
Q

dysphoria

A

anxiety, uneasiness, and restlessness most often produced by opioids; the opposite of euphoria.

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17
Q

fasciculations

A

involuntary muscle twitching

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18
Q

hypoventilation

A

slow and or shallow ventilation, resulting in decreased minute volume; the opposite of hyperventilation.

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19
Q

macroemulsion

A

A type of emulsion (a fine dispersion of minute droplets of one liquid in another with which it does not mix) in which the particles of one liquid are large enough to scatter light, causing the liquid to look cloudy.

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20
Q

microemulsion

A

A type of emulsion in which the particles of the dispersed liquid are so small they don’t scatter light, resulting in a liquid that appears clear

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21
Q

mydriasis

A

dilation of the pupil of the eye; opposite of miosis

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22
Q

myoclonus

A

spontaneous muscle twitching

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23
Q

neuroleptanalgesia

A

a state of profound sedation and analgesia induced by the simultaneous administration of an opioid and a tranquilizer.

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24
Q

neuromuscular blockers

A

an adjunct used to relax or paralyze skeletal muscles as a part of balanced anesthesia.

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25
Q

nystagmus

A

a rhythmic, involuntary oscillation of both eyes

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26
Q

parasympatholytics

A

anticholinergic

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27
Q

partial agonists

A

a drug that binds to and partially stimulates tissue receptors

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28
Q

pharmacodynamics

A

the effect that a drug has on the body. drug action

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29
Q

pharmacokinetics

A

the effect that the body has on a drug, including movement of a drug in the body

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30
Q

preanesthetic medications

A

An anesthetic agent or adjunct administered during the preanesthetic period to provide one or more of a variety of desired effects, including analgesia, sedation, and muscle relaxation.

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31
Q

reversal agents

A

A drug used to lessen or abolish the effects of anesthetic agents or adjuncts, and which is therefore used to wake the patient after sedation or anesthesia.

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32
Q

somatic analgesia

A

absence of pain of the skin, muscle, bone, and connective tissue

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33
Q

status epilepticus

A

continuous seizures, or a series of seizures in rapid succession.

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34
Q

synergistic (supra-additive)

A

an interaction between two drugs in such a way that the total effect is greater than the sum of the individual effects.f

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35
Q

tachycardia

A

rapid heart rate; the opposite of bradycardia

36
Q

visceral analgesia

A

absence of pain in the internal organs.

37
Q

tidal volume

A

The volume of a normal breath (about 10 to 15ml/kg)

38
Q

____________Block the generation and conduction of nerve impulses by inhibiting voltage gated sodium channels within neuronal membranes

A

local anesthetics

39
Q

_____Solutions contain water and small molecular weight solutes, such as electrolytes, that pass feely through vascular endothelium

A

crystalloid

40
Q

Which fluid is used in small volumes to treat patients in hypovolemic shock

A

hypertonic saline

41
Q

In small animals, particularly dogs, vocalization is common in the immediate post operative period and may be caused by

A

Emergence delirium

42
Q

The term ______ refers to a drug induced sleeplike state that impairs the ability of the patient to respond appropriately

A

hypnosis

43
Q

What is a disadvantage to a red rubber endotracheal tube

A

They are more prone to kinking and collapsing

44
Q

What figure is used to calculate the infusion rate for dogs in shock

A

90ml/kg

45
Q

Why is a valve cap used on H cylinder oxygen tanks

A

to prevent damage to the valve when not in use

46
Q

Temp changes will affect the output of what time of vaporizers

A

Noncompensated vaporizer

47
Q

An ideal body condition is described as

A

Well proportioned; observable waist behind ribs; ribs palpable with slight fat covering; abdominal fat pad minimal

48
Q

What is a general accepted IV fluid rate for large and small animals during the 1st hour of an anesthetized procedure?

A

10ml/kg/hr

49
Q

Granules in the CO2 absorber canister must be changed after ______hours of use

A

6-8

50
Q

What is not an indication of a patients need for IV fluid administration

A

hypoproteinemia

51
Q

What is the maximum safe pressure manometer in a small animal with a closed thorax receiving positive pressure ventilation?

A

20cm H2O

52
Q

What piece of equipment converts liquid anesthetic to a gaseous state

A

Vaporizer

53
Q

Analgesia administered during the preanesthetic period is known as

A

preemptive analgesia

54
Q

What is not a function of the reservoir bag

A

causes atelectasis

55
Q

Atelectasis can be prevented by

A

bagging the patient

56
Q

to bag or ventilate an animal the pop off valve must be

A

closed or nearly closed

57
Q

Neonatal and geriatric patients are automatically assessed a minimal physical status classification of

A

PS2

58
Q

What is a short term effect of waste anesthetic gas exposure

A

headache

59
Q

You are setting up IV fluids at a rate of 10ml/kg/hr using a microdrip set what size patient would this be best for

A

Under 10kg

60
Q

Dehydration in a patient increases the risk for what anesthetic complications

A

Hypotension

61
Q

Drug dosages and IV administration should be according to the animals?

A

weight in kg

62
Q

A neuroleptanalgesic is a combination of

A

An opioid and a tranquilizer

63
Q

most preanesthetic will not cross the placental barrier.

A

False

64
Q

It is recommended that atropine not be given to an animal that has tachycardia

A

True

65
Q

Anticholinergic drugs such as atropine block the release of acetylcholine at the

A

muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic system

66
Q

High doses of opioids can cause bradycardia and respiratory depression

A

true

67
Q

severe bradycardia caused by dexmedetomidine is best treated with

A

atipamezole

68
Q

Opioids may be reversed with

A

Naloxone

69
Q

What drugs will precipitate out when mixed with other drugs or solutions

A

diazepam

70
Q

Etomidate is particularly well suited for induction of dogs with what conditions?

A

Severe cardiac disease

71
Q

What is an example of a dissociative anesthetic

A

Ketamine hydrochloride

72
Q

One of the disadvantages of the drug etomidate is that animals that are anesthetized with it may demonstrate excitement during recovery.

A

true

73
Q

Compared with methoxyflurane, isoflurane is considered to have a

A

higher vapor pressure

74
Q

An anesthetic agent that has a low blood gas partition coefficient will result in _______induction and recovery time.

A

fast recovery

75
Q

What anesthetic agent has one of the lowest gas partition coefficients?

A

Sevoflurane

76
Q

As a rough guideline, to maintain surgical anesthesia safely, the vaporizer should be set at about

A

1.5 mac

77
Q

Propofol sometimes causes transient apnea. To avoid this the anesthetist should

A

.Titrate in several boluses

78
Q

One problem frequently associated with recovery from tiletamine zolazepam in dogs is

A

excitement

79
Q

The concentration of propofol entering the brain is affected by a variety of factors such as

A

perfusion of the brain
lipid solubility
plasma protein levels
The rate at which it is given

80
Q

Effects that are commonly seen after administration of a dissociative include

A

increased BP
increased heart rate
increased CSF pressure
increased intraocular pressure

81
Q

adverse effects common with isoflurane include

A

Depression of respiration

82
Q

MAC will vary with

A

body temp of patient
age of patient
concurrent use of other drugs
anesthetic agent

83
Q

factors that may affect the speed of anesthetic induction with a volatile gaseous anesthetic include

A

Partition coefficient of the agent
vaporizer setting
MAC of agent

84
Q

Give examples of alpha 2 agonists

A

xylazine
dexmedetomidine

85
Q

effects that atropine may have on the body include

A

decreased salivation
decreased GI motility
Mydrasis

86
Q

Characteristic effects of benzodiazepines include

A

Muscle relaxation
minimal effect on cardiovascular system