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EMT 2 > Ch 27, 28, 29, 30, & 31 > Flashcards

Ch 27, 28, 29, 30, & 31 Flashcards

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1
Q

The ——— refers to how a person was injured

A

Mechanism of injury

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2
Q

The science of analyzing MOI’s, sometimes called the ———, helps you to predict the kind and extent of injuries as a basis for your priority decisions regarding continuing assessment care, and transport

A

Kinetics of trauma

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3
Q

The ——— is used for determining the level of responsiveness, the systolic blood pressure, the respiratory rate, and the anatomical type or location of injury

A

Glasgow coma scale

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4
Q

— is nearly always the result of two or more bodies colliding with each other

A

Trauma

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5
Q

— is the branch of mechanics dealing with movements of bodies, so understanding — is helpful in understanding MOI and trauma

A

Kinetics

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6
Q

The energy contained in a moving body is called ——

A

Kinetic energy

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7
Q

What is the formula for kinetic energy?

A

Kinetic energy = body’s mass x body’s velocity/2

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8
Q

The ———, which is one of the laws of motion described by sir Isaac newton, states: a body at rest will remain at rest, and a body in motion will remain in motion unless acted upon by an outside force

A

Law of inertia

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9
Q

The rate at which a body in motion increases its speed is known as —

A

Acceleration

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10
Q

The rate at which a body in motion decreases its speed is known as —

A

Deceleration

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11
Q

Which type of collision happens when the vehicle is suddenly stopped and gets bent out of shape?

A

Vehicle collision

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12
Q

Which type of collision happens when the patient comes to a quick stop on some part or parts of the inside of the vehicle, such as a steering wheel, causing injury to the chest?

A

Body collision

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13
Q

Which type of collision happens when the patients internal organs, which are all suspended in their places by tissue, come to a quick stop, sometimes striking and inside surface of the body (the inner chest wall or inner skull)?

A

Organ collision

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14
Q

Motor vehicle collisions can be classified as:

A

-frontal
-rear end
-rotational or rollover
-lateral

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15
Q

In the ——, the driver continues to move forward at the same speed the vehicle is traveling

A

Frontal impact

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16
Q

—— occurs when the heart is caught between the sternum and the spine, which can bruise the heart muscle

A

Compression force

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17
Q

—— tends to pull the aorta at the ligament, which can tear or transect the aorta

A

Shear force

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18
Q

Air trapped in the lungs by sudden closure of the epiglottis is compressed between the ribs and spine, this is known as a ———, because it is like blowing up a paper bag and then popping it in your hands

A

Paper bag injury

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19
Q

In the ———, the patients head and neck are immediately whipped back

A

Rear end impact

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20
Q

If the vehicle does not have headrests or they are improperly positioned, the neck is hyperextended during a rear end impact and the anterior spinal ligaments are often stretched or torn, this is known as a — injury

A

Whiplash injury

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21
Q

When a vehicle is struck —, or directly on the side, it can be crushed inward, impinging on the occupants

A

Laterally

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22
Q

Injuries from — crashes are those in which the vehicle spins around the point of impact, causing the occupants who are not restrained to strike the mirror, posts, and doors, resulting in many injuries

A

Rotational

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23
Q

During a —, the vehicle hits the ground multiple times and in various places, the occupant changes direction every time the vehicle does

A

Rollover

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24
Q

— injuries can occur from the use of restraints in motor vehicles, including air bags and seat belts

A

Hidden injuries

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25
Q

When a —— impact occurs, the motorcycle tends to tip forward because of the location of its center of gravity

A

Head on

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26
Q

In — motorcycle impacts, the rider strikes an object, usually a protruding object, at an angle

A

Angular

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27
Q

After a motorcycle collision, — occurs if the rider clears the handlebars

A

Ejection

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28
Q

This is an evasive action on the part of the rider, designed to prevent ejection and separation of the driver from the bike in an impending collision, this is known as:

A

“Laying the bike down”

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29
Q

What is the most common MOI?

A

Falls

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30
Q

A —— landing causes energy to travel up the skeleton

A

Feet first

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31
Q

In —— falls, the pattern of injury begins with the arms and extends up to the shoulders

A

Head first

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32
Q

— injuries are caused by any object that can penetrate the surface of the body, such as bullets, nails, darts, and knives

A

Penetrating

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33
Q

Penetrating injuries can be classified as:

A

-low velocity
-medium velocity
-high velocity

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34
Q

A low velocity penetrating injury usually occurs with?

A

A knife or other object impaled in the body

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35
Q

A medium to high velocity penetrating injury usually occur with?

A

Pellets or bullets

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36
Q

Most handguns or shotguns fire at what velocity?

A

Medium

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37
Q

High speed rifles such as an M-16 or 30-30 Winchester fire at what velocity?

A

High

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38
Q

The damage caused by medium and high velocity projectiles depends on what two factors?

A

-trajectory
-dissipation of energy

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39
Q

— is the path or motion of a projectile during its travel

A

Trajectory

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40
Q

——— is the way energy is transferred to the human body from the force acting on it

A

Dissipation of energy

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41
Q

— are the factors that slow a bullet down, such as wind resistance.

A

Drag

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42
Q

The impact point of the bullet is its —

A

Profile

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43
Q

Sometimes called pathway expansion, — is the cavity in the body tissues formed by a pressure wave resulting from the kinetic energy of the bullet

A

Cavitation

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44
Q

— occurs when a bullet breaks up into small pieces or releases small pieces upon impact increasing the body damage

A

Fragmentation

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45
Q

Of fatal wounds that occur from firearms, —% involve the head, thorax, and abdomen

A

90%

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46
Q

The — is often secondarily injured when the chest is injured

A

Abdomen

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47
Q

— injuries can occur because of explosions from, for example, natural gas, gasoline, fireworks, improvised explosive devices, and grain elevators

A

Blast

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48
Q

Every explosion has what 5 phases?

A

-primary
-secondary
-tertiary
-quaternary
-quinary

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49
Q

In the — phase of an explosion, air molecules slam into one another, creating a pressure wave moving outward from the blast center, causing pressure injuries

A

Primary phase

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50
Q

In the — phase of an explosion instantaneous combustion of the explosive agent creates superheated gases. The resulting pressure blows the bomb casing apart. Pieces of the bomb can cause — injuries by striking the patient

A

Secondary

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51
Q

In the — phase of an explosion, the blast wind may propel the patient to the ground or against objects causing further injuries

A

Tertiary

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52
Q

In the — and — phases of an explosion, the patient may also be exposed to harmful chemicals or toxins or may be injured by structural collapse

A

Quaternary and quinary

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53
Q

The —— has been established as a parameter for emergency care because severely injured patients have the best chance for survival if intervention takes place as quickly as possible from the time of injury

A

Golden period

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54
Q

Some EMS systems refer to the ———, this means that in cases of severe trauma, 10 minutes is the maximum time the EMS team should devote to on scene activities, with patient assessment, emergency care for life threats, and preparation for transport all being accomplished within 10 minutes of arriving on the scene

A

Platinum 10 minutes

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55
Q

The —— is designed to provide immediate surgical intervention for patients with internal trauma if necessary, extensive intensive care services specific to trauma, and rehabilitation services

A

Trauma system

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56
Q

What level trauma center can manage the full range of traumatic injuries 24 hours a day, 7 days a week?

A

Level 1 regional trauma center

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57
Q

What level trauma center can manage the vast majority of trauma with surgical capabilities 24 hours a day, 7 days a week and are capable of stabilizing more specialized trauma patients and then transferring them to a level 1 center?

A

Level 2 area trauma center

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58
Q

What level trauma center has some surgical capability and specially trained emergency department personnel to manage some traumatic injuries, this type of center focuses on stabilizing the seriously injured trauma patient and then transferring to a higher level center?

A

Level 3 community trauma center

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59
Q

What level trauma center is typically a small community hospital in a remote area capable of stabilizing seriously injured trauma patients and then transferring them to a higher level trauma center?

A

Level 4 trauma facility

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60
Q

Blood loss of —% of blood volume or more is considered significant and can lead to shock

A

15%

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61
Q

The middle layer of a blood vessel consists of smooth muscle (tunica media) that gives it the capability to — when injured

A

Constrict

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62
Q

A — (across) cut of a vessel causes the vessel to retract, thickening the smooth muscle layer at the cut end of the vessel and reducing the diameter of the vessel, which reduces blood flow and enables clotting to occur more easily

A

Transverse

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63
Q

What are the three types of bleeding?

A

-arterial
-venous
-capillary

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64
Q

— bleeding will cause bright red, spurting blood, from a wound usually indicates a severed or damaged artery

A

Arterial bleeding

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65
Q

A — bleed will cause dark red blood that flows steadily and briskly from a wound usually indicates a severed or damaged vein

A

Venous

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66
Q

A — bleed will cause slowly oozing blood that is dark or intermediate color of red usually indicates damaged capillaries

A

Capillary bleed

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67
Q

What are some methods that are used to control major external hemorrhage?

A

-direct pressure with hand
-compression or pressure dressing
-tourniquet
-wound packing
-hemostatic agent
-junctional tourniquet

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68
Q

Up to — mL of blood can be lost around each femur and — mL around the tibia and fibula

A

-1,500 mL
-500-750 mL

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69
Q

Possible causes of bleeding from the nose, mouth or ears include:

A

-skull injury
-facial trauma
-digital trauma (nose picking)
-sinusitis
-clotting disorders
-esophageal disease

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70
Q

—, or nosebleed, is bleeding from the nose, which can result from injury, disease, or the environment

A

Epistaxis

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71
Q

A — is a contained collection of blood

A

Hematoma

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72
Q

The two most common sources of internal bleeding are:

A

-injured or damaged internal organs
-fractured extremities

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73
Q

There can be internal bleeding with no obvious distinction, — L can distend the abdomen only 1 inch

A

1-2L

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74
Q

What are some factors that can interfere with the clotting process and increase bleeding?

A

-movement
-low body temp
-medications
-intravenous fluids
-removal of dressings or bandages

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75
Q

— is most often the direct result of inadequate perfusion of tissue from the loss of blood volume

A

Shock

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76
Q

When the fluid loss results from bleeding or hemorrhage it is known as ——

A

Hemorrhagic shock

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77
Q

———, also referred to as a wound or wounds, involves injuries to the skin and underlying tissues

A

Soft tissue trauma

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78
Q

Wounds to the skin can be categorized as :

A

-closed
-open
-single
-multiple

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79
Q

A wound in which there is no break in the skin is called a ——

A

Closed injury

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80
Q

What are the 3 specific types of closed injuries?

A

-contusions
-hematomas
-crush injuries

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81
Q

A —, or bruise, is an injury to the tissue and blood vessels contained within the dermis

A

Contusion

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82
Q

The patient can have discoloration at the injury site of a contusion caused by blood leaking from damaged vessels and accumulating in the surrounding tissues, the black and blue discoloration is called —

A

Ecchymosis

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83
Q

A — is similar to a contusion, except it usually involves damage to a larger blood vessel and a larger amount of tissue

A

Hematoma

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84
Q

A —— is one in which force great enough to cause injury has been applied to the body

A

Crush injury

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85
Q

When the continuity of the skin is broken, the wound is called an ——

A

Open injury

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86
Q

What are the six general types of open injuries?

A

-amputation
-avulsion
-crush injury
-puncture
-abrasion
-laceration

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87
Q

An — generally is caused by scraping, rubbing, or shearing away of the epidermis, the outermost layer of the skin

A

Abrasion

88
Q

A break in the skin of varying depth, a — can be linear (regular) or stellate (irregular)

A

Laceration

89
Q

— lacerations are usually created by a knife, razor, or broken glass

A

Linear

90
Q

— lacerations are commonly caused by a blunt object

A

Stellate

91
Q

An — is a loose flap of skin and underlying soft tissue that has been torn loose (partial) or completely pulled off (total or complete)

A

Avulsion

92
Q

An — involves a disruption in the continuity of an extremity or other body part

A

Amputation

93
Q

A — or — injury generally is the result of a sharp, pointed object being pushed or driven into the soft tissues

A

Penetration or puncture

94
Q

Human bites can cause — (inflammation of the liver)

A

Hepatitis

95
Q

A — injury occurs when a body part is caught or strangled by some piece of machinery, a tool, or other object or equipment

A

Clamping injury

96
Q

An —— is a dressing for a wound that can form an airtight seal

A

Occlusive dressing

97
Q

Abdominal wounds sometimes result in an —, meaning that abdominal organs protrude through the wound

A

Evisceration

98
Q

An ——, an object that is still embedded in a wound, should never be removed in the field, unless it is impaled in the cheek or in the neck with obvious obstruction of airflow through the trachea

A

Impaled object

99
Q

What is an air embolism?

A

An air bubble under the skin

100
Q

A — covers an open wound to aid in the control of bleeding and to prevent further damage or contamination

A

Dressing

101
Q

The dressing should be —, or free of any organisms (bacteria, virus, or spore) that can cause infection

A

Sterile

102
Q

After a dressing is applied, a — is used to secure a dressing in place

A

Bandage

103
Q

A — burn is formerly referred to as a first degree burn, involves only the epidermis, is usually caused by a flash, hot liquid, or the sun

A

Superficial

104
Q

Formerly known as a second degree burn, a —— burn involves not only the epidermis but also portions of the dermis, can occur from contact with fire, hot liquids or objects, chemical substances, or the sun

A

Partial thickness

105
Q

Partial thickness burns can be classified as either:

A

-superficial partial thickness burns
-deep partial thickness burns

106
Q

Superficial partial thickness burns typically present with:

A

-thin walled blisters
-skin is red and weeping
-skin blanches with pressure
-skin is soft and tender to touch

107
Q

Deep partial thickness burns typically present with:

A

-thick walled blisters that often rupture
-variable color with patchy areas that are red to cheesy white
-skin is wet or waxy dry
-patient can still feel pressure
-poor capillary refill time

108
Q

Formerly known as a third degree burn, a —— burn involves all the layers of the skin, usually results from extreme heat sources such as hot liquids or solids, flames, chemicals, or electricity

A

Full thickness burn

109
Q

The tough and leathery dead soft tissue formed in the full thickness burn injury is called an —

A

Eschar

110
Q

What are the most important factors to consider when determining burn severity?

A

-depth
-location
-patients age
-preexisting medical conditions
-percentage of body surface area burned

111
Q

— burns, which encircle a body area such as an arm, a leg, or the chest and especially ones that encircle joint areas are critical because of the circulatory compromise and nerve damage that potentially can occur

A

Circumferential

112
Q

The ——— is a standardized way to quickly determine the amount of skin surface, or the body surface area (BSA) percentage of a burn

A

Rule of nines

113
Q

The rule of nines is only applied to what type of burns?

A

Partial thickness and full thickness burns

114
Q

The head, neck, and both arms represent how much % of the body burned in the rule of nines in an adult?

A

9% head and neck total
9% each arm

115
Q

The posterior trunk, anterior trunk, and each leg accounts for how much % of the body burned in regards to the rule of nines in an adult?

A

18% each

116
Q

The external genitalia represent how much % of the body burned in regards to the rule of nines in an adult?

A

1%

117
Q

The head, neck, posterior trunk, and anterior trunk represent how much % of the body burned in the rule of nines in an infant?

A

18% each

118
Q

Each arm of an infant represent how much % of the body burned in the rule of nines?

A

9% each

119
Q

Each leg of an infant represent how much % of the body burned in the rule of nines?

A

14% each

120
Q

An alternative way to determine the BSA estimate is to compare it to the patients palm surface area with the fingers closed which equals approx 1% of the BSA, this is known as the ———

A

Rule of ones or rule of palms

121
Q

— burns are associated with heat applied to the body, caused by flames, hot water, and steam

A

Thermal burns

122
Q

— burns are associated with high temp air or steam that is inhaled and causes damage to the mucosa of the upper airway, results in edema that could restrict airflow and lead to airway obstruction

A

Inhalation burns

123
Q

Hot water causes thermal burns called —

A

Scalds

124
Q

— burns are caused by acids, alkalis, and other heat generating chemicals

A

Chemical burns

125
Q

— burns result from resistance to electrical current flow in the body, the burns are primarily internal, the electricity can interfere with the conduction system of the heart and result in cardiac arrest

A

Electrical burns

126
Q

— burns occur from the absorption of radiation into the body

A

Radiation burns

127
Q

A — burn occurs when the patient comes into contact with an open flame

A

Flame burn

128
Q

A — burn normally occurs when a patient comes into contact with a hot object

A

Contact burn

129
Q

A — burn is caused when a patient comes into contact with a hot liquid

A

Scald burn

130
Q

A — burn is caused by hot steam and is often more severe than flame burns, because of the high heat capacity of the steam

A

Steam burn

131
Q

A — burn occurs when a patient comes into contact with hot gases

A

Gas burn

132
Q

A — burn is a type of flame burn, but it is the result of a flammable gas or liquid that ignites quickly

A

Flash burn

133
Q

When treating a burn patient, you should cover the burned area with a sterile dressing or a disposable, sterile and particle free ——

A

Burn sheet

134
Q

What are some substances that can cause chemical burns?

A

-dry lime
-hydrofluoric acid (delayed burn reaction)
-carbolic acid (phenol)
-sulfuric acid

135
Q

— connect muscle to bone

A

Tendons

136
Q

— connect bone to bone

A

Ligaments

137
Q

— is an extension of the bone and is composed of connective tissue, allows for bone to ride over each other and absorb shock

A

Cartilage

138
Q

This bending motion moves the extremity towards the body:

A

Flexion

139
Q

This bending motion moves the extremity away from the body:

A

Extension

140
Q

This is a movement of a body part towards the midline:

A

Adduction

141
Q

This is a movement of a body part away from the midline:

A

Abduction

142
Q

This movement turns the body along the axis of a bone or joint:

A

Rotation

143
Q

This is a movement through an arc of a circle or in a circular motion from a central point:

A

Circumduction

144
Q

What are the six basic components of the skeletal system?

A

-skull
-spinal column
-thorax
-pelvis
-lower and upper extremities

145
Q

The axial skeleton is made up of:

A

The head, thorax, and vertebral column

146
Q

The appendicular skeleton is made up of:

A

The extremities, to include the shoulder girdle and the pelvis

147
Q

A — is a break in the continuity of a bone

A

Fracture

148
Q

An — fracture is a fracture associated with an open wound

A

Open fracture

149
Q

If there is no break in the skin associated with a fracture, it is called a — fracture

A

Closed

150
Q

A — fracture is a small crack in the bone that doesnt create instability

A

Hairline

151
Q

— is a degenerative bone disorder associated with an accelerated loss of minerals, primarily calcium, from the bone

A

Osteoporosis

152
Q

A — is an injury to muscle or tendon, possibly caused by overextension, or overstretching

A

Strain

153
Q

A — is an injury to a joint capsule, with damage to or tearing of the connective tissue, and usually involves ligaments

A

Sprain

154
Q

A — is the displacement of a bone from its normal position in a joint

A

Dislocation

155
Q

The injury from ——, or a direct blow, occurs at the point of impact

A

Direct force

156
Q

With ——, the force impacts on one end of a limb, causing injury some distance away from the point of impact

A

Indirect force

157
Q

In ——, one part of the extremity remains stationary while the rest twists

A

Twisting force

158
Q

Grating, or —, the sound or feeling of broken fragments of bone grinding against each other

A

Crepitus

159
Q

The skin distal to the injury site might be pale and capillary refill delayed if an artery is compressed or torn, this is known as:

A

Pallor

160
Q

A patient with a fracture may complain of numbness or a tingling sensation in the fractured extremity, can indicate nerve damage, this is known as :

A

Paresthesia

161
Q

Suspect a — when deformity and pain are found at joint

A

Dislocation

162
Q

Any device used to immobilize a body part is called a —

A

Splint

163
Q

— splints are commercially manufactured and made of wood, plastic, cardboard, or compressed wood fibers

A

Rigid

164
Q

An — splint is soft and pliable before being inflated, but they are rigid after they are applied and filled with air

A

Air splint or pressure splint

165
Q

— splints provide a counter pull, alleviating pain, reducing blood loss, and minimizing further injury

A

Traction

166
Q

— splints are a type of rigid splint that is malleable enough to conform to a deformed or angulated extremity

A

Formable

167
Q

— splints are soft, pliable, splints that are easily formed to deformed extremities, the air is sucked out of the splint, causing it to become rigid in its position of placement

A

Vacuum

168
Q

A — or — is often used to provide stability to a painful and tender shoulder, elbow, or upper numerous injury

A

Sling or swathe

169
Q

A ——— or ———— is a full body splint, used in the case of a critical injury when extremity fractures cannot be splinted at the scene

A

Spine board or full body vacuum mattress

170
Q

A ———— is sometimes used to splint a suspected pelvic injury when turned upside down

A

Vest type immobilization device

171
Q

—— can occur when an extremity is fractured or injured, if the pressure in the space around the capillaries exceeds the pressure needed to perfuse the tissues, the blood flow is cut off and the cells become hypoxic, leading to ——

A

Compartment syndrome

172
Q

A ——, or pathological fracture, results from a disease that causes degeneration and dramatically weakens the bone, making it prone to fracture

A

Nontraumatic fracture

173
Q

The brain, which occupies 80 to 90% of the space inside the skull, is surrounded by plates of large, flat bones that are fused together to form a helmet like covering called the ——

A

Cranial skull

174
Q

The ——, or floor of the skull, is made up of many separate pieces of bone and is the weakest part of the skull

A

Basilar skull

175
Q

Within the skull, the brain is cushioned in a dense, serous substance called ——

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

176
Q

Inside the skull, the brain is protected by 3 —, or layers of tissue that enclose the brain, what are the 3 layers?

A

-meninges
-duramater (outermost )
-arachnoid (middle layer)
-pia mater (innermost)

177
Q

Bleeding that occurs between the arachnoid membrane and the surface of the brain is called a ——

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

178
Q

The — is the largest part of the brain, compromises three fourths of the brains volume , responsible for most conscious and sensory functions, the emotions, and the personality

A

Cerebrum

179
Q

The — also called the little brain, controls equilibrium and coordinates muscle activity

A

Cerebellum

180
Q

The — is the brains funnel shaped inferior part, is the best protected part of the brain and controls most automatic functions of the body, including cardiac, respiratory, and vasomotor (blood pressure)

A

Brain stem

181
Q

A ———, which is the most common type, resembles a line. There is no gross deformity in a —— fracture and can be diagnosed through a radiograph

A

Linear skull fracture

182
Q

A ——— occurs when the bone ends are pushed inward toward the brain, the depression is palpated in the area of the fracture

A

Depressed skull fracture

183
Q

A ——— is an injury in which the skull is fractured but there isn’t an open wound to the overlying scalp

A

Closed skull fracture

184
Q

An ——— is a fracture of the skull with an associated open wound to the scalp

A

Open skull fracture

185
Q

A ——— is a fracture to the floor or bottom of the cranium, these often leak cerebrospinal fluid from the ears, nose or mouth

A

Basilar skull fracture

186
Q

The thinnest portion of the skull is the — region

A

Temporal

187
Q

A — brain injury is the result of trauma to the brain that occurs at the time of insult from direct impact, acceleration/deceleration, or a penetrating wound

A

Primary brain injury

188
Q

A — brain injury occurs from a complex cascade of pathophysiologic processes following the primary brain injury, which can continue for hours to days

A

Secondary brain injury

189
Q

Whenever ICP rises, the brain is compressed and pushed out of its normal position, downward and through the foramen magnum (the large opening in the base of the skull) is referred to as:

A

Brain herniation

190
Q

What are Cushing reflexes?

A

Increased systolic blood pressure and decreased heart rate

191
Q

In cases of ———, the scalp or skull can be lacerated but the skull remains intact and there is no opening to the brain

A

Closed head injury

192
Q

Brain damage within the intact skull can, nonetheless, be —

A

Extensive

193
Q

An ——— involves a break in the skull and a break in the scalp, such as that caused by impact with a windshield or by an impaled object

A

Open head injury

194
Q

Injury to the brain that results from shearing, tearing, and stretching of nerve fibers is called a ———.

A

Diffuse axonal injury

195
Q

A — normally causes some disturbance in brain function, ranging from momentary confusion to complete loss of responsiveness, and it usually causes a headache.

A

Concussion

196
Q

A —, or bruising and swelling of the brain tissue, can accompany concussion

A

Contusion

197
Q

In ———, damage can be at the point of a blow to the head and or damage on the side opposite to the blow as the brain is propelled against the opposite side of the skull.

A

Coup/contrecoup injury

198
Q

In ———, typical of a car crash, the head comes to a sudden stop but the brain continues to move back and forth inside the skull, resulting in bruising (possibly severe) to the brain

A

Acceleration/deceleration injury

199
Q

—— is a collection of blood between the dura mater and the arachnoid layer of the brain

A

Subdural hematoma

200
Q

What are the two types of Subdural hematomas?

A

-acute
-occult or chronic

201
Q

—— accounts for only about 2% of all head injuries that require hospitalization, most commonly occurs from low velocity impact to the head or from a deceleration injury

A

Epidural hematoma

202
Q

Like a contusion, a — of brain tissue can occur in either an open or closed head injury. It often occurs when an object penetrates the skull and lacerates the brain

A

Laceration

203
Q

Nontraumatic injuries to the brain can be caused by:

A

Clots or hemorrhaging

204
Q

When a patient tries to move away from or remove the pain it is known as a:

A

Purposeful response

205
Q

When the patient responds to pain by inappropriately moving parts of his body, reacting to the pain but not trying to stop it, this is known as an:

A

Nonpurposeful response

206
Q

Patients who have an upper level brain stem injury often are found with — posturing in which their arms are flexed across their chest with their legs extended

A

Flexion or decorticate

207
Q

patients with a lower level brain stem injury often present with — posturing where they extend both arms down at their sides, extend their legs and often arch their backs

A

Extension or decerebrate

208
Q

If a patient has a GCS score of 14-15, how severe would their head injury be?

A

Mild

209
Q

If a patient has a GCS score of 9-13, how severe would their head injury be?

A

Moderate

210
Q

If a patient has a GCS score of 3-8, how severe would their head injury be?

A

Severe

211
Q

Both pupils should constrict the same when a light is shined in only one of the pupils, this reflex in the unstimulated eye is known as a ——

A

Consensual reflex

212
Q

A purplish discoloration of the soft tissues around one or both eyes is known as a ——, and can be an indication of intracranial injury

A

Raccoon sign

213
Q

——, a purplish discoloration of the mastoid area behind the ear, is another delayed and late sign of a basilar skull fracture

A

Battle sign

214
Q

What is diplopia?

A

Double vision

215
Q

In —— the patient is unable to remember circumstances leading up to the incident

A

Retrograde amnesia

216
Q

In ——, the patient is unable to remember circumstances after the incident

A

Anterograde amnesia

217
Q

——— is a brain injury that results from the abuse of an infant or toddler where they are shaken forcefully and repeatedly

A

Shaken baby syndrome

EMT 2 (5 decks)

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