Ch 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, & 20 Flashcards
1
Q
——- is the emergency care process that attempts to restore lost vital functions, focuses on managing the airway, oxygenation, ventilation, and circulation.
A
Resuscitation
2
Q
—— is a critical condition that results in the inadequate perfusion of cells, tissue, and organs, leading to cellular and organ dysfunction, carries high morbidity and mortality if it is allowed to progress.
A
Shock
3
Q
Shock is also referred to as:
A
Hypoperfusion
4
Q
What are the three basic etiologies of shock?
A
- inadequate volume
-inadequate pump function - inadequate vessel tone
5
Q
What is the formula for cardiac output?
A
Cardiac output= heart rate x stroke volume
6
Q
A decrease in —— causes a drop in the systolic blood pressure.
A
Cardiac output
7
Q
A decrease in systolic blood pressure can result in ——
A
Inadequate tissue perfusion
8
Q
The —- is related to the size of the vessel and the resistance created within it and is referred to as the systemic vascular resistance or peripheral vascular resistance.
A
Tone
9
Q
What are the 4 major categories of shock?
A
- hypovolemic
- cardiogenic
-distributive - obstructive
10
Q
The term —— means shock that is caused from a low blood volume
A
Hypovolemic shock
11
Q
What is the most common cause of hypovolemic shock?
A
Hemorrhage
12
Q
——- shock is associated with a decrease in intravascular volume caused by massive systemic vasodilation and an increase in capillary permeability.
A
Distributive
13
Q
—— shock is caused by an ineffective pump function of the heart
A
Cardiogenic shock
14
Q
When more than —% of the left ventricle tissue has been deadened from a myocardial infarction, the patient is prone to cardiogenic shock
A
40%
15
Q
—— shock results from a condition that obstructs forward blood flow.
A
Obstructive shock
16
Q
What are 3 causes of obstructive shock?
A
-pulmonary embolism
-tension pneumothorax
-pericardial tamponade
17
Q
—— shock is described as a dysfunction in the ability of oxygen to diffuse into the blood, be carried by hemoglobin, offload at the cell, or be used effectively by the cell for metabolism.
A
Metabolic or respiratory shock
18
Q
—— shock results from the loss of whole blood from the intravascular space.
A
Hemorrhagic shock
19
Q
—— shock is caused by the shift of fluid out of the intravascular space; however, red blood cells and hemoglobin remain within the vessels
A
Nonhemorrhagic hypovolemic shock
20
Q
—- shock is a specific form of nonhemorrhagic shock resulting from a burn injury.
A
Burn shock
21
Q
The key emergency care in a burn patient is to establish and maintain:
A
-an adequate airway
-ventilation
-oxygenation
22
Q
—- shock is a type of distributive shock usually treated with epinephrine
A
Anaphylactic shock
23
Q
—- shock is another type of distributive shock, it results from sepsis, which is an exaggerated inflammatory response to an infection that causes the vessels throughout the body to dilate and become permeable
A
Septic shock
24
Q
——, is the body’s exaggerated inflammatory response to an infection, typically fungal, viral, or bacterial, that overwhelms the body’s normal defense and regulatory systems causing a disruption in cell and organ function
A
Sepsis
25
What are the key physical exam findings of sepsis?
-tachycardia
-tachypnea
-hyperthermia and hypothermia
-hypotension
26
—- shock is another type of distributive shock, is usually caused by spinal cord injury.
Neurogenic or vasogenic shock
27
What is hypovolemic shock caused by?
Hemorrhage, fluid loss, burns
28
What is cardiogenic shock caused by ?
CHF, abnormal rhythm, beta blocker, pneumothorax
29
What is distributive shock caused by?
Sepsis, anaphylaxis, CNS injury
30
What is metabolic shock caused by?
Decreased oxygen delivery
31
When the body compensates for a decrease in pressure, maintains a normal to near normal blood pressure and perfusion of the vital organs, this is known as:
Compensatory shock
32
—— shock is an advanced stage of shock in which the body’s compensatory mechanisms are no longer able to maintain a blood pressure and perfusion of the vital organs
Decompensatory or progressive shock
33
—— (MODS) is the stage in which multiple organs begin to fail throughout the body from extreme and prolonged hypoxia, altered metabolism, and elevated carbon dioxide and acid levels
Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome or multiple organ failure
34
What are some signs of poor perfusion?
-altered mental status
-pale, cool, clammy, skin
-delayed capillary refill
-decreased urine output
-weak or absent peripheral pulses
35
—— occurs when the ventricles of the heart, for any of a variety of reasons, are not contracting or when the cardiac output is completely ineffective and no pulses can be felt.
Cardiac arrest
36
Cardiac arrest patients are often described as having suffered from ——, which occurs when the patient dies within 1 hour of the onset of the signs and symptoms
Sudden death
37
—— is a chaotic and disorganized cardiac rhythm that causes the ventricles to quiver and does not produce ventricular contraction.
Ventricular fibrillation
38
What are the 3 phases a patient goes through following cardiac arrest that lead to death?
- electrical phase
-circulatory phase
-metabolic phase
39
The —- phase begins immediately upon cardiac arrest and ends 5 minutes afterward.
Electrical phase
40
If CPR is started within — minutes during the electrical phase it gives a further chance of resuscitation.
4 minutes
41
The —- phase begins at 5 minutes following the cardiac arrest and lasts through 10 minutes following the cardiac arrest.
Circulatory phase
42
The —— phase begins 10 minutes after cardiac arrest, the chances of survival drop dramatically during this phase
Metabolic phase
43
What terms are related specifically to resuscitation of a cardiac arrest patient?
-downtime
-total downtime
-return of spontaneous circulation
-survival
-witnessed cardiac arrest
-unwitnessed cardiac arrest
44
This time starts when the patient goes into cardiac arrest until CPR is effectively being performed:
Downtime
45
This is the total time from when the patient goes into cardiac arrest until you deliver the patient to the emergency room or there is a return of spontaneous circulation:
Total downtime
46
This is when the patient regains a spontaneous pulse during the resuscitation effort:
Return of spontaneous circulation
47
In cardiac arrest, this is defined as a patient who survives to be discharged from the hospital:
Survival
48
This is when the EMT witnesses the patient become unresponsive, apneic, and pulse less:
Witnessed cardiac arrest
49
This is when the EMT arrives on the scene and the patient is already unresponsive, apneic, and pulse less:
Unwitnessed cardiac arrest
50
When resuscitating a cardiac arrest patient, success depends on a sequence of events that the AHA has termed the ———.
Chain of survival
51
—- is the procedure of sending an electrical current through the chest, is necessary to convert an abnormal and lethal non perfusion rhythm with no pulse to an organized rhythm capable of producing a pulse.
Defibrillation
52
What components make up the AHA adult chain of survival?
-activation of emergency response
-high quality CPR
- defibrillation
-advanced resuscitation
- post cardiac care
-recovery
53
What components make up the AHA pediatric chain of survival?
-prevention
-activation of emergency response
-high quality CPR
-advanced resuscitation
-post cardiac care
-recovery
54
When performing chest compressions, deliver compressions at —— per minute to maximize the pressures needed for blood circulation.
100 to 120 per minute
55
Deliver compressions at a rate of — compressions to — ventilations to minimize the interruption of chest compressions.
30:2
56
Following defibrillation, immediately resume —-.
CPR
57
Deliver the —- rate and volume of artificial ventilation.
Minimum
58
What are the two basic categories of external defibrillators?
-manual
-automated
59
What are some advantages of the AED?
-speed of operation
-safer, more effective delivery
-more efficient monitoring
60
What are the two types of AED’s?
-semi automated
-fully automated
61
Most current AED’s use what type of wave form?
Biphasic waveform
62
—— is a very fast heart rhythm that is generated in the ventricle instead of the sinoatrial node in the atrium.
Ventricular tachycardia
63
—- is the absence of electrical activity and pumping action in the heart.
Asystole
64
In cases of —— (PEA), the heart has an organized rhythm, but either the heart muscle is so weakened that it fails to pump or the heart muscle does not respond to electrical activity, or the circulatory system has lost so much blood that there is nothing to pump.
Pulseless electrical activity
65
What are the signs and symptoms of cardiac arrest?
- unresponsive
-no breathing
-no pulse
-no other signs of life
66
What are some signs of cardiac arrest in a child?
-unresponsive
-gasping or no respiratory sounds
-no heart sounds
-cyanosis
67
What are the key components of management for cardiac arrest?
-provide positive pressure ventilation
-perform CPR
-defibrillate
-call for ALS backup
-transport rapidly to appropriate facility
68
——- (SIDS), commonly known as “crib death”, is defined as the sudden and unexpected death of an infant under 1 year of age in which an autopsy fails to identify the cause of death.
Sudden infant death syndrome
69
—— is a high pitched, musical, whistling sound that is best heard initially on exhalation but can also be heard during inhalation in more severe, it is an indication of swelling and constriction of the inner lining of the lower airways, primarily the bronchioles.
Wheezing
70
—-, which can also be referred to as coarse crackles, are snoring, or rattling noises heard on auscultation, indicate obstruction of the larger conducting airways of the respiratory tract by thick secretions of mucous.
Rhonchi
71
—- also known as rales, are bubbly or crackling sounds heard during inhalation, these sounds are associated with fluid that has surrounded or filled the alveoli or small bronchioles.
Crackles
72
Failing to breathe adequately, even for short periods of time, can result in —- (decreased oxygen in the bloodstream) and —- (increased carbon dioxide in the blood stream)
-Hypoxemia
-Hypercarbia
73
Respiratory emergencies can range from “shortness of breath” or —-, to complete respiratory arrest, or —-.
-dyspnea
-apnea
74
What is it termed when a patient is found leaning forward, braced with arms and elbows locked and hands on a hard surface?
Tripod position
75
Many complaints of breathing difficulty result from significant narrowing of the lower airways, which include the bronchi and bronchioles, from inflammation, swelling, or constriction of the muscle layer, a condition known as ——.
Bronchoconstriction
76
A beta 2 agonist, or a ——, is designed to help relax the bronchi and bronchiole smooth muscle, causing dilation, which results in a decrease in airway resistance and an increase in the effectiveness of moving air in and out of the alveoli, better gas exchange, and a relief from the signs and symptoms.
Bronchodilator
77
A breathing disturbance in a patient can be categorized in one of 3 ways:
-respiratory distress
-respiratory failure
-respiratory arrest
78
A patient who is having difficulty breathing but has an adequate tidal volume and respiratory rate is said to be in ——.
Respiratory distress
79
The patient is said to be in —— when the tidal volume or respiratory rate is inadequate and no longer can provide an adequate oxygenation of the cells.
Respiratory failure
80
—— is a complete cessation of breathing effort or the patient experiences agonal breathing.
Respiratory arrest
81
An —— causes an obstruction of airflow through the respiratory tract, leading to a reduction in gas exchange.
Obstructive pulmonary (lung) disease
82
What is the most severe consequence of reduced airflow?
Hypoxia
83
What are the 3 most commonly encountered obstructive Pulmonary diseases?
-emphysema
-chronic bronchitis
-asthma
84
—- is considered to result primarily from inflammation of the lower airways, which can lead to airway hyperactivity, resulting in bronchospasm.
Asthma
85
—— is a permanent disease process distal to the terminal bronchioles that is characterized by the destruction of the alveolar walls and the distention of the alveolar sacs and a gradual destruction of the pulmonary capillary beds with a severe reduction in the alveolar/capillary area in which gas exchange can occur.
Emphysema
86
—— is a disease process that affects primarily the bronchi and bronchioles., is characterized by a productive cough that persists for at least three consecutive months a year for at least 2 consecutive years.
Chronic bronchitis
87
A prolonged life threatening attack that produces inadequate breathing and severe signs and symptoms is called—-.
Acute severe asthma
88
What is it termed when there is a drop in systolic blood pressure of 10mmHg or more on inhalation?
Pulsus paradoxus
89
—- is primarily an acute infectious disease caused by bacterium or a virus that affects the lower respiratory tract and causes lung inflammation and fluid or pus filled alveoli.
Pneumonia
90
—— is a sudden blockage of blood flow through a pulmonary artery or one of its branches.
Pulmonary embolism
91
——, usually caused by a cardiogenic etiology, occurs when an excessive amount of fluid collects in the spaces between the alveoli and the capillaries.
Acute pulmonary edema
92
Crackles or rales are a sign of ——.
Pulmonary edema
93
A —— is a sudden rupture of a portion of the visceral lining of the lung, not caused by trauma, that causes the lung to partially collapse.
Spontaneous pneumothorax
94
The —— patient is often anxious and experiences the feeling of not being able to catch his breath.
Hyperventilation syndrome
95
In ——, the epiglottis, area around the epiglottis, and the base of the tongue become infected.
Epiglottitis
96
—— also known as whooping cough is a respiratory disease that is characterized by uncontrolled coughing.
Pertussis
97
In ——, an abnormal gene alters the functioning of the mucous glands lining the respiratory system, and there is an over abundant production of mucous, which is thick and sticky.
Cystic fibrosis
98
——- is an umbrella label for any type of inhalation injury that occurs secondary to exposure to toxic substances that can cause airway occlusion and or pulmonary dysfunction by inhibiting the normal exchange of gases at the cellular level.
Poisonous inhalation injury
99
What are some side effects associated with a metered dose inhaler and the medication?
-tachycardia
-tremors, shakiness
-nervousness
-dry mouth
-nausea, vomiting
100
What are 2 accessory devices that can be connected to an MDI?
-spacer
-valved holding chamber
101
A drug that is commonly prescribed for patients with uncontrolled asthma is the —-.
Advair diskus
102
In severe cases of respiratory distress, the patient usually assumes a — position.
Tripod
103
—- causes the patient to become agitated and aggressive.
Hypoxia
104
—- causes confusion, disorientation, and lethargy.
Hypercarbia
105
If a child becomes cyanotic, he has experienced profound —-.
Hypoxia
106
—— which is easily confused with asthma, is caused when the mucosal layer within the bronchioles in the lungs becomes inflamed by a viral infection.
Brochiolitis
107
What is it termed when there is an accidental aspiration of food or vomit into the lungs?
Aspiration pneumonia
108
The —— also known as the cardiovascular system, has three major components: the heart, the blood vessels, and the blood.
Circulatory system
109
The heart contains specialized conductive tissue called the —— which generate electrical impulses to conduct rapidly to other cells of the heart.
Cardiac conduction system
110
What are the top two chambers of the heart called?
The atria
111
What are the two bottom chambers of the heart called?
Ventricles
112
Where does the superior vena cava receive blood from?
The body
113
Where does the right pulmonary artery bring blood to?
The lungs
114
Where does the right pulmonary vein receive blood from?
From the lungs
115
Where does the left pulmonary artery bring blood to?
The lungs
116
Where does the left pulmonary vein receive blood from?
From the lungs
117
The descending aorta brings blood where?
To the body
118
The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the inferior and superior —-, the largest veins of the body.
Vena cava
119
The blood in the right atrium travels through the —- and into the right ventricle.
Tricuspid valve
120
From the right ventricle, the deoxygenated blood is ejected through the pulmonic semilunar valve and into the —-
Pulmonary arteries
121
If high pressure in the right ventricle is sustained over time, the right ventricle begins to weaken and eventually fail, his is known as —-
Right ventricular heart failure or cor pulmonale
122
After the blood is oxygenated in the alveoli of the lungs, it returns to the left atrium via the —-
Pulmonary veins
123
The blood in the left atrium is then ejected through the —- and into the left ventricle upon contraction of the atria.
Mitral or bicuspid valve
124
On the next contraction, the blood is ejected through the aortic semilunar valve and into the —.
Aorta
125
The arteries carry oxygenated blood to the —- and then to the —-.
-arterioles
-capillaries
126
The veins carry deoxygenated blood from the capillaries, where the blood has picked up carbon dioxide and other waste products given off by the cells, through the —-, to the veins and back to the right atrium through the inferior and superior vena cava.
Venules
127
The —- arteries are the first two arteries to originate off the aorta and are the same arteries that are associated with many cardiac emergencies.
Coronary
128
Blood components respond to injury by forming clots, these clots that are formed are called a:
Thrombus
129
—- disk shaped elements in the blood that are fragments of cells from the bone marrow; most important for clotting.
Platelets
130
What is the protein responsible for activating the formation of a clot?
Thrombin
131
What are the protein strands that form a mesh that strengthens a clot called?
Fibrin
132
What is another name for a fatty deposit?
Plaque
133
Each heart beat, or mechanical contraction of the heart, has two distinct components of electrical activity, these are?
-depolarization
-repolarization
134
—- is the first component of electrical activity, in which electrical charges of the heart muscle change from negative to positive and cause heart muscle contraction.
depolarization
135
—— is the second component in electrical activity, in which the electrical charges of the heart muscle return to a resting negative charge and cause relaxation of the heart muscle, this phase requires energy.
Repolarization
136
The first waveform of the ECG and represents the depolarization (contraction) of the heart, what is this called?
P wave
137
This is the second waveform of the ECG and represents the depolarization (contraction) of the ventricles and the main contraction of the heart, what is this called?
QRS complex
138
This is the third wave form of the ECG and represents the repolarization (relaxation) of the ventricles, what is this called?
T wave
139
The —- is the amount of pressure exerted against the arterial wall during circulation.
Blood pressure
140
The delivery of oxygen and nutrients from the blood through the thin capillary walls into the cells, and the removal of carbon dioxide and other wastes is known as?
Perfusion
141
——, is the narrowing and hardening of the coronary arteries, is the most common type of heart disease and is responsible for more than 385,000 deaths each year.
Coronary artery disease
142
Recognizing the signs and symptoms of the many possible cardiac conditions, is referred to as?
Cardiac compromise
143
—— is a condition that causes the smallest of arterial structures to become stiff and less elastic
Arteriosclerosis
144
—— is a systemic arterial disease in which plaque builds up inside the arteries.
Atherosclerosis
145
—— is a state in which there is inadequate delivery of oxygen to the heart muscle
Myocardial ischemia
146
—— literally means “pain in the chest” is a symptom commonly associated with coronary artery disease.
Angina pectoris
147
—— indicates angina discomfort that is prolonged and worsening or that occurs without exertion and when the patient is at rest.
Unstable angina
148
—— occurs when a portion of the heart muscle dies because of lack an adequate supply of oxygenated blood.
Acute myocardial infarction or heart attack
149
—— occurs when a weakened section of the aorta begins to dilate or balloon outward from the pressure exerted by the blood flowing through the vessel
Aortic aneurysm
150
—— occurs when there is a tear in the inner lining of the aorta and blood enters the opening and causes separation of the layers of the aortic wall
Aortic dissection
151
The restoration of blood to an area of tissue that was ischemic from low blood flow or occlusion of a vessel is called?
Reperfusion
152
—- occurs when the heart can no longer adequately eject blood out of the ventricle, commonly seen in geriatrics.
Heart failure
153
The —- is a device that assists the pump function of the ventricles.
Ventricular assist device
154
—- occurs when the heart is not pumping effectively or at all, and no pulses can be felt.
Cardiac arrest
155
—- is a potent vasodilator (increases the diameter of blood vessels) and is most common used in treating cardiac problems.
Nitroglycerin
156
Geriatric patients can experience a ———, in which the heart attack patient feels no or little chest pain.
Silent heart attack
157
What is it called when a patient is found with a fist clenched over their chest and is an indication of severe chest discomfort ?
Levine sign
158
The —— is a network of nerve cells in the brain stem that constantly transmit environmental and sensory stimuli to and from the cerebrum
Reticular activating system
159
An unconscious state in which the patient does not respond to painful stimuli is referred to as:
Coma
160
Even though the patient can still have a cough or gag reflex, he might not maintain his airway if he has an ———
Altered mental status
161
Narcotics such as ——-, can typically cause the pupils to constrict and become pinpoint in size.
- morphine
-heroine
-codeine
162
Narcotics such as —-, might not cause the typical constriction of the pupils.
- meperidine (Demerol)
-propoxyphene (Darvon)
-pentazocine (talwin)
163
The term ——— (BRUE) is used when the infant is younger than 1 year and the episode was sudden, brief, is now resolved, and included > 1 of the assessment.
Brief resolved unexplained event
164
—— involves the deterioration of the elderly persons thinking, memory, language, and judgment skills
Cognitive impairment
165
— is a form of malfunctioning brain activity, causes forgetfulness
Dementia
166
—- can also result in an altercation in mental status, it unlike dementia, which is a chronic condition, — presents with a more recent and sudden onset.
Delirium
167
—— is the number one cause of dementia, the disease does not directly cause death, but can cause patients to stop eating, become immobile, and eventually subject to numerous infections.
Alzheimer’s disease
168
When a patient loses the ability to speak, to feel sensations, and to move this is termed a?
Neurological deficit
169
A medical injury to the brain that is not related to trauma is called?
No traumatic brain injury
170
What does FAST stand for when recognizing a possible stroke?
-facial droop
-arm weakness
-speech difficulty
-time to call
171
The area of ischemia during the stroke, where the brain cells are electrically silent from a lack of ATP but are still alive, is referred to as the ——
Ischemic penumbra
172
The area of dead tissue after an infarction is referred to as the ——.
Infarct zone
173
A stroke caused by a blockage is known as ——.
Ischemic stroke
174
A stroke caused by rupture and bleeding is referred to as a ——.
Hemorrhagic stroke
175
A clot that develops at the site of occlusion during an ischemic stroke is known as:
Thrombus
176
The process of clot formation during an ischemic stroke is known as:
Thrombosis
177
A stroke resulting from a thrombus formation is called a ——
Thrombotic stroke
178
A clot or other matter that has traveled from another area of the body is called an —-
Embolus
179
When the embolus lodges in a cerebral artery and occludes it, is known as a —— and results in a ——.
-Cerebral embolism
-embolic stroke
180
What is outer surface of the brain called?
Subarachnoid space
181
An —- is a ballooning of a weakened area within an artery wall.
Aneurysm
182
An —— (AVM) is a tangle of abnormally formed blood vessels in the brain or on its surface, which divert blood directly from the artery to the vein, bypassing capillaries
Arteriovenous malformation
183
Chronic hypertension is a common risk factor for ——.
Hemorrhagic strokes
184
— is a communication disorder from damage to language areas of the brain.
Aphasia
185
In ——, also known as broca’s aphasia, the patient knows exactly what he wants to say, however he has trouble saying because he can’t form the right response in his brain or pick the correct words.
Expressive aphasia
186
in ——, known as wernickes aphasia, the person has difficulty understanding what you are asking or telling him.
Receptive aphasia
187
In ——, which is the most severe, but common after a stroke, the patient can neither understand nor speak
Global aphasia
188
Patients who experience a ——— (TIA) develop many of the same signs and symptoms of those who are experiencing a stroke, also known as a mini stroke.
Transient ischemic attack
189
A —— is defined as one that cannot be conclusively attributed to an embolism originating from the heart, thrombosis in an artery, or small artery disease despite extensive medical diagnostic testing
Cryptogenic stroke
190
A ——— (LVO) is a stroke caused by blockage of a large cerebral artery
Large vessel occlusion
191
What does VAN stand for when observing for a large vessel occlusion?
-visual disturbance
-aphasia
-neglect
192
A ——— is a specialized ambulance that is capable of diagnosing and treating ischemic and hemorrhagic strokes through a built in computerized tomography scanner, point of care laboratory testing, video or telehealth ability, and clot busting medications.
Mobile stroke unit
193
These types of headaches occur because of dilation or distention of vessels or inflammation within the cranium:
Vascular headaches
194
— headaches are thought to be caused by spasm of vessels followed by vasodilation and a change in the chemicals that transmit nervous impulses in the brain and can last from 4 to 72 hours.
Migraine headaches
195
These types of headaches occur repetitively, in clusters, and last from 15 minutes to 3 hours:
Cluster headaches
196
This type of headache is thought to be caused by contraction of the muscles of the neck and scalp and last longer than 30 minutes, typically 4-6 hours:
Tension headaches
197
— headaches are also known as traction or inflammatory headaches, this type of headache may be a result of tumors, infection, stroke, or inflammatory disorders.
Organic
198
A — is a sudden an temporary alteration in brain function caused by massive, continuing electrical discharges in a group of nerve cells in the brain.
Seizure
199
The abnormal electrical discharge typically produces changes in mental activity and behavior ranging from brief trancelike periods of inattention to unresponsiveness and the jerky muscle contractions known as a —.
Convulsion
200
— is a chronic brain disorder characterized by recurrent unprovoked seizures.
Epilepsy
201
These seizures involve both hemispheres of the brain and the reticular activating system, which typically results in a loss of consciousness:
Generalized seizures
202
—- seizures are typically related related to abnormal activity in just one cerebral hemisphere
Partial seizures
203
— is defined as having perception, attention, emotion, memory, and executive function
Cognition
204
—— is defined as a continuous seizure that lasts longer than 5 minutes and the patient has 2 or more sequential seizures without a full recovery of consciousness between seizures
Status epilepticus
205
A ———— seizure was once referred to as a grand mal seizure, begins with abnormal electrical activity low in the cerebral cortex that spreads upward, affecting both cerebral hemispheres, and downward, affecting the reticular activating system.
Generalized tonic clonic seizure
206
The — serves as a warning that a seizure is going to begin and involves some type of sensory perception by the patient.
Aura
207
The —- state is a the recovery phase of a seizure
Postictal state
208
—— which is known as a petit mal seizure, is most common in children, characterized by sudden cessation of conscious activity that involves a lack of vocalization, and a blank stare, lasting only 5-15 seconds.
Absence seizure
209
A — seizure involves sporadic brief jerks of the muscle groups on both sides of the body.
Myoclonic seizure
210
A — seizure is characterized by a sudden onset of greatly increased muscle tone in the body, arms, legs, and sudden muscular rigidity.
Tonic seizure
211
An — seizure results in total loss of muscle tone resulting in loss of muscle tone.
Atonic seizure
212
A — seizure is defined as a seizure associated with a high fever without any evidence of intracranial infection or other definite cause of seizure
Febrile seizure
213
A —— seizure is characterized by a patient being awake and aware that the seizure is occurring because the reticular activating system is not involved and only involves one cerebral hemisphere of the brain.
Simple partial seizure
214
A —— seizure usually lasts 30 seconds to 2 minutes, only includes one cerebral hemisphere of the brain.
Complex partial seizure
215
—— seizures occur when simple partial or complex partial seizure activity spreads to both sides of the brain and involves the entire body.
Secondarily generalized seizures
216
— seizures are characterized when the patient presents with clinical signs of a seizure however, there is no change in the brain physiology during these seizures that makes it a true pathophysiologic event.
Psychogenic seizures
217
—, or fainting, is a and temporary loss of consciousness
Syncope
218
A patient who experiences a syncopal episode, even from a simple vasovagal faint, may have twitching movements, or even brief generalized convulsion, which is referred to as:
Convulsion syncope
219
what are the three simple sugars?
-Glucose
- galactose
-fructose
220
— is secreted when the blood glucose level is elevated
Insulin
221
— is secreted when the blood glucose level is low
Glucagon
222
—- is typically defined as a blood glucose level of 70 mg/dL or less .
Hypoglycemia
223
—- can be defined as a blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL
Hyperglycemia
224
What type of diabetes does a patient have if they are required to inject insulin to regulate their blood glucose levels?
Type 1 diabetes
225
Type 1 diabetics often have difficulty keeping their blood glucose level within a normal range, with the possibility of having too high or too low a blood glucose level, they are prone to suffering from a hyperglycemic condition called:
Diabetic ketoacidosis
226
What type of diabetes does a patient have if they do not usually need to take insulin?
Type 2 diabetes
227
The hemoglobin — test, is done to test the blood glucose over a 2 to 3 month period
A1C test
228
—— is the medication of choice for the EMT in the emergency medical care of the diabetic patient with an altered mental status
Oral glucose
