CH. 21: The Immune System Flashcards

1
Q

What is the lymphatic system?

A

An extensive network of one-way lymphatic vessels, lymphatic tissues and organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the function of the lymphatic system?

A

Return of excess fluid (3 liters/day)

Defense against disease using lymphocytes at the lymph nodes

Transportation of absorbed fats by lymphatics moving filtered proteins to the venous fluids (too big for capillaries)

Return of filtered proteins because filtered proteins cannot return back into the capillaries so they are returned through the venous fluids via lymphatics

No unique functions of its own (has to work with other systems)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are lymph and its components?

A

An interstitial fluid that moves into lymphatic capillaries due to pressure gradient during the capillary exchange
-15% of fluid does not get reabsorbed back into the capillaries
-Blood is not returned as much as it was filtered out, so it goes through the lymphatic vessels

Components:
-Water & dissolved solutes
-Few proteins
-Foreign materials (cellular debris, pathogens, metastasized cancer cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are lymphatic capillaries and its components?

A

Are initial lymphatics located at the terminal end of the lymphatic system

Components:
-Blind-ended
-Intertwined with the capillary bed
-Interspersed throughout areolar connective tissue except in red bone marrow and CNS
-Absent in avascular tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the structure of lymphatic capillaries?

A

Larger than capillaries

Lack of a basement membrane

Possess free-edged overlapping endothelial cells serving as one-way mini valves to allow fluid into the capillary

Anchoring filaments hold the endothelial cells in place to prevent lymphatics from collapsing due to excessive interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure (HPif)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What happens when you move lymph into lymphatics?

A

The pressure drives function where interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure (HPif) forces fluid between endothelial cells, and internal hydrostatic pressure forces endothelial cells together preventing fluid outflow to ECF

Escaped proteins, cellular debris, & pathogens are shunted to lymphatics because the openings are larger than capillary pores (following the direction of bulk flow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are lymphatic vessels and their components?

A

Vessels that are formed by the convergence of the lymphatic capillaries

Superficial lymphatics are adjacent to superficial veins, and deep lymphatic vessels are adjacent to both deep arteries and veins

Posses all 3 vessel tunics and one-way valves

Lacks a pump so it relies on the skeletal and respiratory pump to drive pulsatile movement of blood in nearby arteries. The rhythmic contraction of lymphatic smooth muscle also helps with lymph flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are lymphatic trunks and their components?

A

They form the union of lymphatic vessels and are named for the region of the body from which they collect lymph

Paired Trunks (right & left)
-Jugular: head and neck
-Subclavian: upper limbs, breasts, & superficial thoracic wall
-Bronchomediastinal: deep thoracic structures
-Lumbar: lower limbs, pelvis, and abdominopelvic wall

Unpaired Trunks
-Intestinal: most abdominal structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are lymphatic ducts and their components?

A

They are where lymph empties into the venous circulation

Consists of right lymphatic duct and thoracic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the components of the thoracic duct?

A

Larger of the two ducts and is responsible for the rest of the body extending from the left subclavian and jugular veins and consist of the cisterna chyli at the end of the duct

Cisterna Chyli
-Receives from vessels that drain the small intestine, intestinal trunk, and from lumbar trunk
-Lipid-rich lymph (chyle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are primary lymphatic structures?

A

Involved in the formation and maturation of lymphocytes

Includes the red bone marrow and thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are secondary lymphatic structures?

A

House lymphocytes and other immune cells following their formation

Provide the site where an immune response is initiated

Includes the lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils, lymphatic nodules, and MALT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are red bone marrow and its components?

A

They are found in between trabeculae in selected portions of spongy bone

In adults, it includes flat bones of the skull, vertebrae, ribs, sternum, ossa coxae, and proximal epiphysis of the humerus & femur

Responsible for hematopoiesis:
-T-cells: must migrate from bone marrow to thymus to complete maturation
-B-cells: mature in the bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the thymus and its components?

A

Composition:
-Lobules are composed primarily of the epithelium to secrete hormones (thymopoietin & thymosins) that participate in T-cell maturation
-Infiltrated with T-cells at various stages of maturation

The most important function is early in life and continues to grow until puberty and regresses into adulthood (thymic tissue is replaced by adipose tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the structure of the thymus?

A

Two fused lobes surrounded by a connective tissue capsule

Extensions of the capsule (trabeculae) subdivide the lobes into lobules

Lobules are arranged by the outer region (cortex) and inner region (medulla)

Blood-thymus barrier prevents entry of bloodborne pathogens into the cortex and premature activation of the immature T-cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the difference between macrophages, dendritic cells, and immune cells within the secondary lymphatic structures?

A

Macrophages - phagocytize foreign substances

Dendritic Cells - capture antigens & bring them to the lymph nodes

Immune cells - are enmeshed within a reticular extracellular matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How are the secondary lymphatic structures are organized?

A

Organized into either an organ or an aggregate of lymphatic nodules in the presence/absence of a dense irregular CT capsule

Complete CT capsule = organ
-Lymph nodes and spleen

Incomplete or absent capsule = other lymphatic structure
-Tonsils, MALT, and diffuse lymphatic nodules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are lymph nodes and their components?

A

Clusters that receive lymph from selected body regions or individually throughout the body
-Most are embedded in CT and not readily observed
-Large clusters are found near the body surface in the axillary, inguinal, and cervical regions

Functions to filter the lymph before it returns to the bloodstream
-Macrophages in the node destroy microorganisms and other cellular debris to prevent them from entering the bloodstream
-Monitor for the presence of antigens and mount attacks against them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the lymph node structure?

A

Capsule
Outer cortex
Inner medulla
Cortical and Medullary sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the components of the capsule of the lymph node?

A

It is a dense fibrous enclosure made of trabeculae

Trabeculae
-connective tissue strands that extend from the capsule to divide the node into compartments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the components of the outer cortex of the lymph node?

A

It is the activation and proliferation site of lymphocytes that is divided into the lymphatic nodules

Lymphatic Nodule
-Composed of reticular fibers
-Activation/proliferation site for B-cells in inner germinal centers
-Outer mantle zone contains T-cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the components of the inner medulla of the lymph node?

A

It is the center of most portion of the node

Consists of medullary cords
-CT extension from the lymphoid tissue of the cortex
-Supports B-cells, T-cells, and macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the components of the sinuses in the lymph node?

A

The lymph capillary system allows the lymph to be exposed to the cells in the node that is lined with macrophages

Includes cortical and medullary sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does lymph flow through the nodes?

A
  1. Afferent Lymphatic Vessels
    -Numerous
  2. Sinuses (cortical and medullary)
    -Macrophages remove foreign debris
    -Lymphocytes come into contact with foreign debris and become activated
    -Cortical Sinus initiates B-cell activation and proliferation
    -Medullary Sinus is where B-cells & T-cells enter the circulation to sites of infection
  3. Efferent Lymphatic Vessel
    -Only one per many afferent vessels because lymph flows slow down in the node to allow the cells within the node to be exposed longer to the lymph and perform their protective function
    -Originates from the hilum

Lymph nodes move through a series of nodes (in a cluster) and the same lymph is repeatedly screened for unwanted materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the spleen and its components?

A

It is the largest lymphatic organ that is responsible for fighting any invading germs in the blood

Located:
-On the left side of the abdominal cavity
-Curves around the anterior aspect of the stomach
-Lies lateral to left kidney
-Posterolateral side (diaphragmatic surface) lies against the diaphragm

The medial side is concave and contains the hilum (blood vessels and nerves)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the spleen strcuture?

A

CT capsule

Trabeculae responsible for subdividing spleen into white and red pulp

Populated with lymphocytes and macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the structure of the white pulp of the spleen?

A

Spherical structures of T-cells, B-cells, & macrophages resiting on reticular fibers

Each structure surrounds a branch of the splenic artery (central artery)

Involved in immune function of the spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the function of the red pulp in the spleen?

A

Surrounds white pulp

Consists of B-cells, macrophages, erythrocytes, and platelets residing on splenic cords consisting of reticular fibers (platelet reservoir)

Splenic sinuses are associated with red pulp for permeable capillaries to drain into small venules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the functions of the spleen?

A

Immune surveillance and response by having macrophages remove debris and foreign matter (white & red pulp)

Is a blood cleanser by extracting aged and defective RBCs and platelets from circulation (red pulp)

Is a reservoir for platelets (red pulp)

Responsible for erythrocyte production in the fetus during the first 5 months of development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the direction of flow of the spleen?

A
  1. Splenic artery
  2. Central arteries (white pulp)
  3. Sinusnoids (red pulp)
  4. Venules
  5. Splenic vein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the tonsils and their components?

A

They are the simplest lymphatic organs with incomplete connective tissue capsule

Three Pairs of Tonsils:
-Pharyngeal
-Palatine
-Lingual

Functions to help protect against ingested or inhaled foreign substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the three pairs of tonsils?

A

Pharyngeal
-Posterior wall of the nasopharynx
-Also referred to as adenoids

Palatine
-Posterolateral region of the oral cavity

Lingual
-Posterior third of the tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the structure of the tonsils?

A

Tonsillar Crypts
-Invaginated outer edges
-Increases surface to entrap bacteria and particulate matter
-Presents antigens to the lymphocytes for heightened immunity

Lymphatic Nodules
-Contain loosely scattered lymphocytes and some contain germinal centers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is lymphatic nodules?

A

They are small oval clusters of lymphatic cells with incomplete/absent CT capsules (some have an extracellular matrix)

Diffuse lymphatic nodules are scattered and found within every body organ

Function to localized to destroy bacteria and generate “memory” T cells for long-term immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is MALT?

A

Mucosa-associated lymphatic tissues (MALT) are located within lamina propria of the mucosa of the GI, respiratory, genital, and urinary tract

If located in the small intestine, they are called Peyer patches

Functions to defend against foreign materials in mucosal membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the components of the right lymphatic duct?

A

Responsible for the upper right quadrant of the body

Receives lymph draining from the right:
-Head & neck (jugular)
-Upper limb (subclavian)
-Thorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are infectious agents and their categories?

A

Organisms that cause damage to the host organism (pathogenic)

Categories:
-Bacteria
-Viruses
-Fungi
-Protozoans
-Multicellular parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are bacterias and their components?

A

They are prokaryotic, microscopic, single-celled organisms enclosed in a capsule

They are named based on the shape
-Spherical (cocci)
-Rod-like (bacilli)
-Coiled (spirilla)

Certain kinds produce a disease (can be extracellular or intracellular parasites or produce enzymes or toxins). Some examples are:
-Tuberculosis
-Syphilis
-Lyme disease
-Salmonella
-Anthrax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are viruses and their components?

A

They are NOT a cell but is composed of DNA or RNA with a protein capsid. They are obligate intracellular parasite and uses cells to replicate. It ultimately kills the infected cells

Examples:
-Common cold
-Influenza
-Polio
-Chickenpox
-Herpes
-HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are fungi and their components?

A

They are eukaryotic cells with cell walls. They produce spores and release proteolytic enzymes. These include mold, yeasts, and multicellular fungi

Examples:
-Superficial (ringworm, athlete’s foot)
-Mucosal (vaginal yeast infections)
-Internal (histoplasmosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are protozoans and their components?

A

They are eukaryotic cells without a cell wall and could be either intracellular or extracellular parasites

Examples:
-Malaria
-Toxoplasmosis
-Giardiasis
-Amoebiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are multicellular parasites and their components?

A

They are nonmicroscopic parasites that live in the host and use nutrients provided by the host

Examples:
-Tapeworms
-Flukes
-Hookworms
-Pinworms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are prions and their components?

A

Small infectious proteins that cause disease in nervous tissue and are spread by consuming infectious meat

Examples:
-Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (mad cow disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the immune system and the defense components?

A

It provides resistance to disease by including immune cells, plasma proteins, and cytokines (hormone-like chemicals)

Intrinsic Defense Components:
-Innate Immune Component is non-specific and fast
-Adaptive Immune Component is specific and slow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the primary locations of immunocytes?

A

Most leukocytes are not circulating in the blood so they are found at either:
-Lymphatic tissue
-Select organs
-Epithelium of the skin and mucosa
-Connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What types of immunocytes are found in the lymphatic tissues?

A

T-cells, B-cells, macrophages, & NK cells in secondary lymphatic structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What types of immunocytes are found in select organs?

A

Specifically named macrophages in specific tissues

Permanent Resident = fixed macrophages
Migrating Macrophage = wandering macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What types of immunocytes are found in the epithelium of the skin and mucosa?

A

Dendritic cells (from monocytes) are phagocytic cells that engulf pathogens and then migrate to lymph tissue to present antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What types of immunocytes that are found in the connective tissue?

A

Mast cells are abundant in skin and mucosa or respiratory, GI, and urogenital tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are cytokines and their components?

A

They are small soluble proteins produced by immune cells. They function to:
-Means of communication between cells
-Control development and behavior of effector cells
-Regulate inflammatory response
-Serve as a weapon of destruction

In the mode of action, they are:
-Released by a cell to bind to a receptor on the target cell to activate a signal cascade
-Can be an autocrine, paracrine, or endocrine signal

Relatively short half-lives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the four classes of cytokines?

A

Interleukins (ILS) regulate immune cells

Tumor Necrosis Factors (TNFs) destroy tumor cells

Colony-Stimulating Factors (CSFs) stimulate leukopoiesis

Interferons (INFs) are anti-viral and pro-inflammatory agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is innate immunity?

A

They are born defenses to protect against non-specific substances

It prevents entry of potentially harmful substances which is the 1st line of defense (external) through skin and mucosal membranes

It responds non-specifically to a wide range of harmful substances after entering the body as the 2nd line of defense
-Cellular (activities of neutrophils, macrophages, and NK cells)
-Chemical (interferons and complement)
-Physiological (inflammation and fever)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How does the skin prevent the entry of pathogens?

A

Epidermis is a heavily keratinized epithelial membrane acting as a physical barrier to most microorganisms

Mucosa is structurally modified to trap and move invading particles away from the internal environment. They also produce acids and enzymes

Secrete a variety of antimicrobial substances
-IgA: binds to foreign particles
-Lysozyme, Defensins, & Dermicidin: antibacterial and antifungal substances
-Sebum: biotoxic and creates a low pH that inhibits bacterial growth

Mucus traps microorganisms to prevent them from spreading

Other pathogen removals:
-Skin slough off
-Saliva washes materials away and contains antibacterial enzymes
-Lacrimal fluids
-Urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the phagocytic cells of innate defense and their function?

A

Neutrophils
-The most abundant type of leukocyte and is the first to arrive during an inflammatory response

Macrophages
-Derived from monocytes and arrive at the site of injury after the inflammatory response begins and remain
-Reside in tissues as fixed or wanderers

Both are phagocytes where they engulf and degrade unwanted substances

55
Q

What are the steps of phagocytosis?

A

Adherence
Engulfing the particle
Lysosomal digestion
Exocytosis of degraded residue

56
Q

What occurs in adherence of phagocytosis?

A

The particle to be ingested needs to be recognized and then adhered to by the phagocytes

Some particles are not easily identified, so complement proteins can adhere to the foreign particles to mark it for destruction (opsonization)

57
Q

What occurs in the engulfment of phagocytosis?

A

Phagocytes release their chemicals into the surrounding environment if the particles are too large

58
Q

What occurs in the lysosomal digestion of phagocytosis?

A

Enzymatic digestion of the foreign particle

Cells can also introduce free radicals to help destroy the particles that are resistant to the standard enzymes

Increase acidity and osmolarity to promote specific protease activity

Neutrophils can release molecules (defensins) to pierce the pathogen’s membrane

59
Q

What are the proinflammatory immunocytes and their function?

A

Basophils circulate in the blood and mast cells reside in CT of the skin, mucosa, and various organs

They are pro-inflammatory, chemical-secreting cells that promote inflammation through:
-Histamine to promote vasodilation and capillary permeability
-Heparin as an anticoagulant
-Eicosanoids as lipids that promote inflammation

60
Q

What are natural killer cells and their components?

A

They are large granular lymphocytes for immune surveillance. They look for “self” markers or lack of the proper markers to target and destroy the cell

They are NOT phagocytic but induce apoptosis in target cells. Secrete chemicals to enhance inflammatory response:
-Perforin creates holes in cell membranes
-Granzymes initiates apoptosis

61
Q

What is the function of eosinophils?

A

They are weakly phagocytic against parasitic worms

They attach to parasites and release their chemicals to kill and destroy the parasite

Other functions:
-Participate in immune response associated with allergy/asthma
-Phagocytose antigen-antibody complexes

62
Q

What are antimicrobial proteins and their function?

A

They enhance the innate defense response

Consists of:
-Interferons for non-specific defense against viral infection
-Complement to mediate several defense mechanisms

63
Q

What are interferons and their components?

A

They are used to help prevent the spread of viruses and are released from infected cell

They bind to receptors on neighboring cells, preventing them from becoming infected, and trigger the synthesis of enzymes that destroy viral RNA and DNA to inhibit the synthesis of viral proteins

They also mobilize the immune system (macrophages and NK) to destroy virally infected cells

Three types:
-alpha (leukocytes) for inflammation reduction
-beta (fibroblasts) for inflammation reduction
-gamma (lymphocytes)

64
Q

What are complement proteins and their components?

A

They are a group of approximately 30 plasma proteins that are normally inactive in the bloodstream

They are continuously produced by the liver

They account for approximately 10% of serum proteins

Identify as “C” + a number

65
Q

What are the pathways for complement activation?

A

Classical Pathway
-Complement binds to antigen-antibody (Ag-Ab complex)

Alternate Pathway
-Complements binds directly to bacterial polysaccharide coat/fungal cell wall and DOES NOT require antibody

66
Q

What are the complement defense mechanisms?

A

Opsonization
Inflammation
Cytolysis
Elimination of Immune Complexes

67
Q

What occurs in the opsonization of complement defense mechanisms?

A

It is the binding of complement to a bacteria or cell to enhance phagocytosis using a bind protein (opsonin)

It makes it easier to identify the substance to be engulfed

68
Q

What occurs in the inflammation of complement defense mechanisms?

A

It activates mast cells and basophils and attracts neutrophils and macrophages

69
Q

What occurs in the cytolysis of complement defense mechanisms?

A

Formation of the membrane attack complex (MAC) from C5-C9

Creates holes in the plasma membrane to compromise cell

70
Q

What occurs in the elimination of immune complexes of complement defense mechanisms?

A

It links Ag-Ab to erythrocytes which carry complex to the liver/spleen for removal & destruction

Erythrocytes act as a transporter and continue to circulate

71
Q

Why does inflammation occur? What are its benefits?

A

Occurs in response to physical trauma, intense heat, irritation, or infection

Benefits:
-Prevent the spread of damaging agents to nearby tissues
-Disposal of cellular debris and pathogens
-Prepares area for repair

72
Q

What occurs in chemical release?

A

Release of chemicals by inflammatory and chemotactic factors

Accomplished through damaged tissue, basophils, and mast cells, or infectious organisms

73
Q

What occurs in vascular response?

A

Occurs in response to inflammatory chemicals

Includes:
-Vasodilation
-Increased capillary permeability
-CAM expression within endothelium to attract leukocytes

74
Q

What occurs in leukocyte recruitment?

A

Margination
-Use of CAMs to arrest leukocyte flow through blood vessels

Diapedesis
-Cells exit blood stream by squeezing between endothelial cells

Chemotaxis
-Migration of cells to site of injury following the chemical trail

75
Q

What occurs when plasma proteins migrate to injury?

A

Immunoglobulins and complement

Clotting proteins walls off injuries and prevents the spread of microbes

Kinins increase capillary permeability, promote endothelial CAM production, and stimulate pain receptors

76
Q

What are the cardinal signs of inflammation?

A

Redness
-Due to increased blood flow resulting in increased oxygen and nutrients to the area

Heat
-Due to increased blood flow resulting in increased metabolic activity within the area

Swelling
-Due to increased fluid out of capillaries (limiting movement) resulting in decreased use of area and dilutes potential pathogen

Pain
-Due to stimulation of nociceptors by mechanical stimulation of swelling and chemical stimulation of kinins (limiting movement) resulting in decreased use of area

Loss of Function
-Occurs in severe cases of inflammation resulting in decreased use of area

77
Q

What is a fever? What are its benefits?

A

It is an abnormally high body temperature (pyrexia)

The body’s thermostat (hypothalamus) is reset in response to pyrogens
-Interferons and interleukins toxins are released by infectious agents
-Secreted by leukocytes and macrophages

Benefits:
-Inhibits bacterial and viral production
-Promotes interferon activity and adaptive immunity activity
-Accelerates tissue repair (increased metabolic activity)
-Promotes immune cell migration (increased CAM expression)

78
Q

What are the stages of a fever?

A

Onset
-Vasoconstriction in the skin to prevent heat loss
-Shivering produces heat through muscle contraction

Stadium
-Increased metabolic rate promotes the elimination of harmful substances
-Liver & spleen sequester key minerals (Zn and Fe) to slow microbial reproduction

Defervescence
-Temperature returns to its normal set point
-Hypothalamus (without pyrogens) promotes heat shedding

Cycles until the pathogen is removed

79
Q

What is adaptive immunity?

A

Specific defense against specific infections and is systemic

Has a delayed response and memory (frequent exposure = stronger)

80
Q

What are the 2 subcategories of adaptive immunity?

A

Cell-Mediated (cellular)
-Lymphocytes are responsible for immune response

Antibody-Mediated (humoral)
-Free antibodies target and mark foreign material for destruction
-Mediated through B-cells

81
Q

What are antigens?

A

Substances that can be recognized by the immune system

They are large and complex and bounded by an antibody or a T-cell

82
Q

What are foreign antigens?

A

They are not naturally found within the body

Usually recognized and bound by the adaptive immune system (unless with highly repetitive microstructures)

83
Q

What are self antigens?

A

Molecules produced by the body

Are not normally recognized and bound by the adaptive immune system

84
Q

What is autoimmunity antigens?

A

When self antigens are recognized as foreign and an immune response is initiated

85
Q

What are epitopes?

A

Known as antigenic determinants where the specific portions of the antigen that is recognized by the immune system

The more chemically complex an antigen is, the more immunogenicity it has

86
Q

What is an immunogen?

A

An antigen that induces an immune response

87
Q

What is immunigenicity?

A

The degree an antigen can induce an immune response

Dependent on:
-Degree of foreignness
-Size
-Complexity
-Quantity

88
Q

What is hapten?

A

Small molecules that are reactive but not immunogenic where it has the ability to reach with activated lymphocytes and antibodies release by the immunogenic reaction

Require a carrier molecule to bind it to trigger an immune response

89
Q

What are the antigen receptors?

A

A portion of the receptor complex that lies on the cell’s surface and is composed of TCR and BCR

TCR (T-cell receptor):
-Antigen must be processed and presented by another cell requiring a co-receptor molecule that helps T-cell interaction with APC (antigen-presenting cell)

BCR (B-cell receptor):
-Contacts antigens directly

90
Q

What is difference between T-helper cell and cytotoxic T cell?

A

T-helper cell (Th)
-Activate B cells and other immune cells
-Possess CD4

Cytotoxic T-cells (Tc)
-Release chemicals that attack other cells
-Possess CD8

91
Q

What is antigen presentation?

A

Display of an antigen on the cell surface and enables T-cells to see antigens

Requires physical attachment of the antigen to a specialized self surface protein (MHC)

92
Q

What are the 2 cell types that present antigens?

A

All nucleated cells:
-Includes all cells in the body except RBCs & APCs

Antigen-Presenting cells (APCs):
-Any immune cell that functions to communicate the presence of an antigen to TH and TC cells (includes dendritic cells, macrophages, and B-cells)

93
Q

What are MHC proteins?

A

Glycoproteins that are genetically determined and display small peptides to help mobilize the immune system
-Healthy Cells = peptides are partially degraded self-proteins
-Infected Cells = peptides include partially degraded non-self proteins

Continuously produced in RER, loaded with peptide and embedded within plasma membrane

94
Q

What are the 2 categories of MHC proteins?

A

MHC Class I:
-Found on all nucleated cells including APCs

MHC Class II:
-Found only on APCs

95
Q

How are MHC Class I proteins formed?

A

1) MHC class I molecules are synthesized by the RER and peptide fragments attached to MHC class I molecules

2) MHC class I molecules are shipped by the endomembrane system through the Golgi and then to the plasma membrane

3)MHC class I molecules with bound foreign antigens are displayed

96
Q

How are MHC Class II proteins formed?

A

1) MCH class II is synthesized by the RER of the APC

2) MHC class II molecules are shipped by the endomembrane system through the Golgi to the plasma membrane

3) Phagocytosis of exogenous antigen

4) MHC class II molecules and foreign antigen are displayed within the plasma membrane

97
Q

What are the significant steps of the life of lymphocytes?

A

Formation, activation, and effector response of T- and B- cells

98
Q

What happens in formation of lymphocytes?

A

It is the maturation process that occurs in the primary lymphatic structures (thymus and red bone marrow)

It becomes specialized to recognize only one specific foreign antigen

99
Q

What happens in the activation of lymphocytes?

A

It occurs in the secondary lymphatic structures (lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils, MALT)

It leads to replication after exposure to the antigen

100
Q

What happens in the effector response in lymphocytes?

A

The specific action to eliminate the antigen at the site of infection
-T-cells leave a secondary structure and migrate to the site of infection
-B-cells stay in secondary structures and produce antibodies

101
Q

What is the T-cell formation?

A

It originates in the red bone marrow as immature T-cells where it possesses a unique TCR via the unique gene-shuffling mechanism

Immature T-cells migrate to the thymus to mature through the two-fold maturation process. It is tested to see if it can bind to or recognize the antigen on MHC molecule. It then results in T-cell selection

102
Q

What is T-cell selection?

A

It occurs in the thymus to see if TCR can recognize an MHC protein or self-antigens

98% of maturing T-cells are eliminated through this process and the remaining 2% are functional cells to recognize MHC

103
Q

What is positive T-cell selection?

A

A test to see if TCR can bind to and recognize an MHC protein

Thymic epithelial cells present MHC proteins to T-cells

If TCR cannot bind to MHC protein = apoptosis

104
Q

What is negative T-cell selection?

A

A test to see if TCR recognizes self-antigens

Thymic dendritic cells present self-antigens via MHC class I and II proteins to T-cells

If the TCR recognizes self-antigen = apoptosis

105
Q

What happens in T-cell differentiation & migration

A

T-cells differentiate into either T-helper cells or cytotoxic T-cells requiring a selective loss of either CD4 or CD8
-Loss of CD4 yields CD8 cell (Tc)
-Loss of CD8 yields CD4 cell (Th)

106
Q

What happens in B-cell development?

A

Occurs in the red bone marrow where different cell surface proteins are involved to be tested to determine if BCR detects self-antigen (negative selection)

Migration to secondary lymphatic structures to finish the maturation process where the final steps produce an immunocompetent and naive B-cell

107
Q

What happens if BCR detects self-antigen?

A

Clonal Deletion: apoptotic removal of B-cell

Receptor Editing: BCR is reconfigured and re-rested to produce a less auto-reactive BCR

Anergy: change in B-cell not the BCR (no longer capable of generating an adaptive response)

Ignorance: ignores and continues to mature

108
Q

What is lymphocyte activation?

A

Contact between the lymphocyte and the antigen it recognizes occurring in the secondary lymphatic structures (depending on the point of entry of antigen):
-Ag in blood = spleen
-Ag in skin = dendritic cells to lymph node
-Ag in respiratory = respiratory, GI, urogenital via MALT or tonsils

109
Q

What is clonal selection and expansion?

A

Recognition yields proliferation and differentiation to produce more of the same cell to respond to that antigen

110
Q

What happens in the 1st stimulation in the activation of T-helper cells?

A

Direct physical contact between an APC and the T-helper cell (Ag is presented via MHC class II)

Antigen inspection:
-TCR binds MHC class I protein
-CD4 stabilized interaction
-If no recognition, disengagement
-If recognition, contact is maintained

111
Q

What happens in the 2nd stimulation in the activation of T-helper cells?

A

T-helper cells begin to secrete cytokines (interleukin-2)

Cells proliferate and differentiate to produce 2 types of T-helper cells:
-Activated Th helper cell produces more IL-2
-Memory Th cells for later

112
Q

What happens in the 1st stimulation in the activation of T-cytotoxic cells?

A

Direct contact between the cytotoxic T-cells and an infected cell (antigen is presented via MHC class I on infected cell)

Antigen Inspection:
-TCR binds MHC class I
-CD8 stabilizes the interaction
-If no recognition = disengagement
-If recognition = contact is maintained

113
Q

What happens in the 2nd stimulation in the activation of T-cytotoxic cells?

A

IL-2 from T-helper cells binds to IL-2R on cytotoxic T-cells

Cells proliferate and differentiate to produce two types of cytotoxic T-cells:
-Activated cytotoxic T-cells
-Memory cytotoxic T-cells for later

114
Q

What happens in the 1st stimulation in the activation of B-cells?

A

Free antigen binds to BCR

B-cell engulfs, processes, & presents antigen via MHC class II to present to T-helper cells

115
Q

What happens in the 2nd stimulation in the activation of B-cells?

A

Activated T-helper cells release IL-4 (paracrine fashion) that activates B-cells

B-cells proliferate and differentiate to produce 2 types of B-cells:
-Plasma cells (produces double Abs)
-Memory B-cells (retain BCR and survive for years)

116
Q

What is the T-helper cell effector response?

A

Both activated and memory-cytotoxic T-cells migrate to the site of infection after several days of exposure

Continue to release cytokines:
-Activate B-cells, cytotoxic T-cells, macrophages, and NK cells

117
Q

What is the T-cytotoxic effector response?

A

Both activated and memory-cytotoxic T-cells migrate to the site of infection after several days of exposure

Destroy infected cells displaying antigens by releasing cytotoxic chemicals:
-Granzymes induce cell death by apoptosis (Fas/FasL)
-Perforins form holes in the cell membrane increasing permeability

118
Q

What is the B-cell effector response?

A

Antibodies are the effectors of humoral immunity

Produced by plasma cells that remain in lymph nodes for 5 days and then later released into the bloodstream

119
Q

What are antibodies?

A

They mark antigens and facilitate their destruction by other immune cells

They are immunoglobins with 5 major classes 15 prescription

120
Q

What is the structure of antibodies?

A

Y-shaped and soluble

4 polypeptide chains (2 heavy and 2 light chains)

Variable regions contain the Ag binding site Binding through weak interactions

Constant Region: Contain Fc region determines biological function and elimination

121
Q

What is the IgG class of antibodies?

A

Major class (75-85%) of all antibodies

Blood, lymph, CSF, serous of all

Able to cross the placental barrier and participates in all functions described

122
Q

What is the IgM class of antibodies?

A

Pentamer is mostly found in blood

Effective at agglutination and binding complement

Responsible for mismatched blood transfusion

123
Q

What is the IgA class of antibodies?

A

Found in areas exposed to the environment for protection on respiratory and GI tract

Dimer in secretions

Prevents pathogens from adhering to epithelial cells

Effective at agglutination

124
Q

What is the IgD class of antibodies?

A

Acts as NCR to serve as a maturity signal for B-cells

125
Q

What is the IgE class of antibodies?

A

Low rate of synthesis

Plays a role in allergies and parasitic infections to cause produce release in basophils and mast cells (attract eosinophils)

126
Q

What does the binding of the antigen-binding site of an antibody with antigen cause?

A

Neutralization:
-Covers an antigenic determinant of a pathogen to make them ineffective

Agglutination:
-Causes cells to clump together to protect from bacteria or foreign RBCs

Precipitation:
-Causes the antigen to settle out of the solution
-Ag-Ab complex can be eliminated b phagocytic cells

127
Q

What does the exposed Fc portion following antigen binding by antibody promote?

A

Complement Fixation:
-Fc region of IgG & IgM bind complement proteins to activate the classical complement pathway

Opsonization:
-Fc region of IgG causes opsonization while neutrophils and macrophages have receptors for Fc regions

Activation of NK Cells:
-Fc region of IgG can activate NK cells to release cytotoxic chemicals to result in apoptosis (antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity)

128
Q

What is immunological memory?

A

Activation of adaptive immunity requires physical contain between antigen and lymphocyte

129
Q

What is the first exposure of immunological memory?

A

Lag time includes Ag detection, activation, proliferation, and differentiation from 3 to 6 days

Lower titer from 1 to 2 weeks of initial exposure. Produces IgM then IgG

130
Q

What is the second exposure of immunological memory?

A

Lag time is shorter

Higher titer rise within days of exposure and more IgG than IgM

131
Q

What is active immunity?

A

Obtained from a direct encounter with a pathogen/foreign substance

Natural - directly exposed to an antigen/infectious agent
Artificial - occurs through a vaccine

132
Q

What is passive immunity?

A

Obtained through another individual and lasts as long as the presence of the antibody (no memory cells)

Natural - transfer of antibodies between mother and child
Artificial - transfer of antibody-containing serum or antibodies from one individual to another

133
Q

What is a titer?

A

The concentration of Abs in circulation against the Ag